Term
| Cranial nerve disorders are commonly classified as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List five causes of cranial nerve problems? |
|
Definition
Tumors
Trauma
Infections
Inflammatory processes
Idiopathic (unknown) causes |
|
|
Term
| Describe Trigeminal Neuralgia. |
|
Definition
| Sudden, usually unilateral, severe, brief, stabbing, recurrent episodes of pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve. |
|
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Term
| What is the most commonly diagnosed neuralgic condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is Tigeminal Neuralgia more common in men or women? |
|
Definition
| Seen twice as often in women than men (usually over the age of 40) |
|
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Term
| What is the classic feature of trigeminal neuralgia in reference to clinical manifestations? |
|
Definition
| An abrupt onset of excruciating pain described as a burning, knifelike, or lightning-like shock in the lips, upper or lower gums, cheek, forehead, or side of the nose. |
|
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Term
| What manifestations would you see in an acute attack of trigeminal neuralgia? |
|
Definition
Intense pain, twitching of facial muscles (tic), grimacing, and frequent blinking and tearing of the eye.
Note: some patients may also experience facial sensory loss |
|
|
Term
| How long do acute attacks of trigeminal neuralgia last? |
|
Definition
They are usually brief, lasting only 2-3 minutes
|
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Term
| True or False? Trigeminal Neuralgia attacks are usually bilateral. |
|
Definition
| False. Attacks are usually unilateral, often around the eye, cheek, and lower part of the face. |
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Term
|
Definition
| After the refractory (pain-free) period, a phenomenon known as clustering can occur. Clustering is characterized by a cycle of pain and refractoriness that continues for hours. |
|
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Term
| What are some examples of precipitating stimuli that could trigger a trigeminal neuralgia episode? |
|
Definition
Precipitating stimuli include chewing, tooth brushing, a hot or cold blast of air on the face, washing the face, yawning, or even talking.
Note: |
|
|
Term
| What are the two predominate causative triggers for trigeminal neuralgia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are you concerned about with your patient if they are concerned about triggering a trigeminal neuralgia episode? |
|
Definition
The patient may eat improperly, neglect hygienic practices, wear a cloth over the face, and withdraw from interaction with other individuals. The patient may also sleep excessively as a means of coping with the pain.
Note: Although this condition is considered benign, the severity of the pain and the disruption of lifestyle can result in almost total physical and psychologic dysfunction or even suicide.
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Term
| What three studies/tests are performed in the diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia? |
|
Definition
CT scan - performed to rule out any lesions, tumors, or vascular abnormalities
MRI - done to rule out multiple sclerosis
Complete Neurologic Assessment - includes audiologic evaluation, although results are usually normal |
|
|
Term
| What is the main goal of treatment for trigeminal neuralgia? |
|
Definition
| Relief of pain either medically or surgically. |
|
|
Term
| What is another name for trigeminal neuralgia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two branches of the 5th cranial nerve does trigeminal neuralgia specifically affect? |
|
Definition
| Maxillary and Mandibular branches |
|
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Term
| Although the cause is not known for sure, what are some of the presumed cause of trigeminal neuralgia? |
|
Definition
1. A blood vessel pressing on the trigeminal nerve at the brainstem causes the myelin sheath to wear away
2. May be part of the normal aging process - lengthening blood vessels may end up pressing against the nerve
3. Symptoms can occur in people with MS - condition that causes deterioration of the myelin sheath throughout the body
4. Tumor, HTN, infection of the teeth, or herpes may cause damage to the myelin sheath as well
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Term
| What are some goals for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia? |
|
Definition
Patient will be pain free
Patient will maintain adequate nutrition and oral hygiene
Patient will have minimal to no anxiety
Patient will return to normal of previous socialization and occupational activities
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Term
If nerve function is interrupted in a patient with trigeminal neuralgia, what three nursing actions would you do?
|
|
Definition
- Have patient chew on good side
- Monitor food temps (watch for burns)
- Manual removal of pouched foods
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|
Term
| What is the first choice drug for trigeminal neuralgia? |
|
Definition
| Tegretol (antiseizure drug) |
|
|
Term
| How is nerve blocking used to treat trigeminal neuralgia? |
|
Definition
| Local anesthetics are used to temporarily relieve pain (usually lasts 6-18 months). |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Controlling how your body reacts to pain and teaches you how to relax stiffened muscles. |
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Term
| Microvascular Decompression is a surgical option for the treatment of trigeinal neuralgia. Explain what this procedure involves? |
|
Definition
This is the removal of blood vessels that are irritating the trigeminal nerve.
Note: high success rate, but risk of double vision, hearing loss, and facial weakness. |
|
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Term
| Glycerol Injections are a surgical option for the treatment of trigeinal neuralgia. Explain what this procedure involves? |
|
Definition
| Glycerol is injected into the trigeminal nerve damaging it enough to block pain signals |
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Term
| Partial sensory rhizotomy is a surgical option for the treatment of trigeinal neuralgia. Explain what this procedure involves? |
|
Definition
| This is a complete severing of the trigeminal nerve from the base of the base. |
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Term
| What kind of meal should a patient with trigeminal neuralgia receive? |
|
Definition
| Food should be high in protein and calories and easy to chew. It should be served lukewarm and offered frequently. When oral intake is sharply reduced and the patient's nutritional status is compromised, an NG tube can be inserted on the unaffected side for enteral feedings. |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation (acute disruption) of CN VII (facial nerve) on one side of the face in the absence of any other disease like a stroke. |
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Term
| What is Bell's Palsy said to be a possible reaction of (accompanied by)? |
|
Definition
| Herpes Simplex vesicles in and around the ear. |
|
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Term
| What are some clinical manifestations of Bell's Palsy? |
|
Definition
Pain around and behind the ear
Fever
Tinnitus
Hearing deficit
Flaccidity on affected side
Drooping of mouth and drooling
Inability to close eyelid
Inability to smile, frown, or whistle
increased tear production |
|
|
Term
| How is Bell's Palsy diagnosed? |
|
Definition
| No definitive test. Done by exclusion. |
|
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Term
| List three methods (not including pharmacological methods) of treatment for Bell's palsy. |
|
Definition
| Moist heat, gentle massage, and electrical stimulation with prescribed exercises (prevents atrophy and maintains muscle tone). |
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Term
| List two medications used in the treatment of symptoms of Bell's palsy. |
|
Definition
Corticosteroids - decreases edema and pain
Acyclovir (Zovirax) - alone or in conjunction with prednisone because HSV is implicated in 70% of cases.
Note: MUST TAKE WITHIN 24 HOURS OF SYMPTOMS STARTING TO BE MOST EFFECTIVE |
|
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Term
| True or False? Most people with Bell's palsy have a full recovery in about 6 weeks. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What can the doctor prescribe to help a patient who cannot close their eye completely? |
|
Definition
| Lubricating eye drops or eye ointment to protect the eye from drying. Patient may also wear an eyepatch while they sleep. |
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Term
| What is extremely important to remember in regards to psychosocial support for a patient with Bell's palsy? |
|
Definition
| It is important to give the patient privacy. Tearing and drooling can be very embarrassing for them. |
|
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Term
| What are three signs that may signal a patient is having side effects from corticosteroids? |
|
Definition
| Infections, high blood pressure, hyperglycemia. |
|
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Term
| If a patient has a hx of HSV, what should you tell them? |
|
Definition
| To seek medical care if they experience pain in or around the ear. |
|
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Term
| What should a patient with Bell's palsy report in reference to their open eye? |
|
Definition
| Ocular pain, drainage, or discharge (we must monitor eye for infection). |
|
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Term
| What is Guillain-Barre Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Guillain-Barre syndrome is a serious disorder that occurs when the body's defense (immune) system mistakenly attacks part of the nervous system. This leads to nerve inflammation that causes muscle weakness (ascending symmetrical paralysis). |
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Term
Often Gullain-Barre Syndrome occurs 1-3 weeks after an infection of the lungs or stomach and intestines. What are some examples of infections that could trigger it?
|
|
Definition
Infections that may trigger GBS include: Campylobacter jejuni, which can cause a type of food poisoning. Mycoplasma , which can cause pneumonia.
Cytomegalovirus (CMV), which can cause fever, chills, sore throat, swollen glands, body aches, and fatigue. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), which can cause mononucleosis (mono). Varicella-zoster virus, which can cause chickenpox and shingles. HIV
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Term
| Explain the process of ascending paralysis in regards to Gullain-Barre Syndrome. |
|
Definition
Muscle weakness or the loss of muscle function (paralysis) affects both sides of the body and usually starts in the legs and spreads to the arms.
Note: weakness usually peaks around 14th day
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|
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Term
| Outside of muscle weakness/paralysis, what are some common manifestations of Gullain-Barre Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Pain (worse at night), loss of reflexes (areflexia), numbness and tingling (paresthesia), reduced muscle tone (hypotonia).
Note: If condition persists and brainstem becomes involved, may see facial weakness, extraocular eye movement difficulties, dysphagia, and paresthesia of the face
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Term
| What is the most serious complication of Gullain-Barre Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory failiure. Patient may need intubation and mechanical ventilation if nerves of the diaphragm are affected (KEEP INTUBATION KIT AT BEDSIDE). |
|
|
Term
| What are two diagnostic studies that would be abnormal with Gullain-Barre Syndrome? |
|
Definition
CSF - initially normal, but shows elevated protein after 7-10 days
EMG - markedly abnormal (shows reduced nerve conduction in affected extremities) |
|
|
Term
| In addition to Plasmapheresis in the first two weeks, what high dose immunoglobulin will be given to patients with Gullain-Barre Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| IV Sandoglobulin will be given (beyond 3 weeks after onset, plasma exchange and immunoglobulin therapies have little value). |
|
|
Term
| What is extremely important for a patient receiving high-dose immunoglobulin? |
|
Definition
| Patient needs to be well hydrated and have adequate renal function. |
|
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Term
| How could you help ensure a patient with dysphagia resulting from Gullain-Barre receives adequate nutrition? |
|
Definition
If mild dysphagia, can place patient in upright position and flex the head during feedings. If severe dysphagia, tube feedings may be required.
Note: Patient with paralytic ileus or intestinal obstruction may need parenteral nutrition. |
|
|
Term
| What six things need to be assessed during the acute phase of Gullain-Barre Syndrome? |
|
Definition
Ascending paralysis
Respiratory function
ABGs
Reflexes - gag, corneal, & swallowing (decreased or absent)
Blood pressure (orthostatic hypotension - Vasopressers)
Cardiac rate & rhythm (bradycardia & dysrhythmias)
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|
Term
| What would you tell a patient with Gullain-Barre asking if their muscle function will ever return? |
|
Definition
| Reassure the patient that their muscle function will probably return. |
|
|
Term
| In relation to spinal injuries, what is the difference between the primary and secondary injury? |
|
Definition
Primary injury - initial mechanical disruption of axons as a result of stretch or laceration
Secondary injury - the ongoing, progressive damage that occurs after the initial injury [apoptosis (cell death) may continue for weeks to months after initial injury] |
|
|
Term
| How long does it take for hemorrhagic areas to appear in the center of the spinal cord? |
|
Definition
| They appear within 1 hour and infarction in the gray matter may occur by 4 hours. |
|
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Term
| How long does it take for permanent damage to occur because of the development of edema? Why is this edema so harmful? |
|
Definition
| By 24 hours or less, permanent damage may occur because of the development of edema. Edema secondary to the inflammatory response is particularly harmful because of lack of space for tissue expansion. Therefore compression of the cord occurs. Edema extends above and below the injury, thus increasing the ischemic damage. |
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Term
| How long does it take to be able to accurately assess the extent of spinal cord injury and give a prognosis for recovery? |
|
Definition
| Because secondary injury progresses over time, the extent of injury and prognosis for recovery are most accurately determined at least 72 hours or more after injury. |
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|
Term
| About 50% of people with acute spinal cord injury experience a temporary neurologic syndrome known as spinal shock that is characterized by what manifestations? |
|
Definition
Decreased reflexes
Loss of sensation
Flaccid paralysis below the level of the injury
Note: lasts days to months, may mask postinjury neurologic function, and active rehab may begin in the presence of spinal shock. |
|
|
Term
| What is neurogenic shock characterized by? |
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Definition
| Characterized by hypotension and bradycardia (important clinical clues). |
|
|
Term
| What type of spinal cord injury is neurogenic shock associated with? |
|
Definition
| Usually associated with a cervical or high thoracic injury (T6 or higher). |
|
|
Term
| What medication would you give a patient with neurogenic shock to treat the bradycardia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Out of flexion, hyperextension, flexion-rotation, extension-rotation, and compression, which mechanism of injury is most unstable and most often implicated in severe neurologic defecits? |
|
Definition
| The flexion-rotation injury is the most unstable of all injuries because the ligamentous structures that stabilize the spine are torn and is most often implicated in severe neurologic deficits. |
|
|
Term
| Is the skeletal or neurologic level of injury where the most damage on sensory and motor function occurs? |
|
Definition
Skeletal level of injury is the vertebral level where there is the most damage to vertebral bones and ligaments.
Neurologic level is the lowest segment of the spinal cord with normal sensory and motor function on both sides of the body. |
|
|
Term
| What type of paralysis occurs if the cervical cord is injured? |
|
Definition
Paralysis of all four extremities, resulting in tetraplegia (quadraplegia).
Note: when damage is low in the cervical cord, the arms are rarely completely paralyzed. |
|
|
Term
| What type of paralysis occurs if the thoracic or lumbar cord is damaged? |
|
Definition
| If the thoracic or lumbar cord is damaged, the result is paraplegia (paralysis and loss of sensation in the legs). |
|
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Term
| In relation to spinal cord injuries, explain the difference between complete and incomplete cord involvement. |
|
Definition
Complete cord involvement results in total loss of sensory and motor function below the level of the lesion (injury).
Incomplete cord involvement results in a mixed loss of voluntary motor activity and sensation and leaves some tracts intact. |
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|
Term
| What six syndromes (complications) are associated with incomplete spinal cord lesions? |
|
Definition
Central cord syndrome
Anterior cord syndrome
Brown-Séquard syndrome
Posterior cord syndrome
Cauda equina syndrome
Conus medullaris syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What is Central Cord Syndrome? What manifestations will be seen? |
|
Definition
Damage to the central spinal cord (involves motor weakness and sensory loss in upper and lower extremities).
Note: upper extremities affected more than lower ones |
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|
Term
| What is Anterior Cord Syndrome? What manifestations will be seen? |
|
Definition
| Damage to anterior spinal cord that results in compromised blood flow to anterior spinal cord (will see motor paralysis and loss of pain and temperature sensation below level of injury). |
|
|
Term
| What is Brown-Sequard Syndrome? What manifestations will be seen? |
|
Definition
Damage to one half of the spinal cord. Characterized by loss of motor function/position and vibratory sense, as well as vasomotor paralysis on the same side as lesion. Opposite side has loss of pain and temperature sensation below level of lesion.
Note: Usually from penetrating injury |
|
|
Term
| What is Posterior Cord Syndrome? |
|
Definition
| Results from compression or damage to the posterior spinal artery. It is a very rare condition. Generally the dorsal columns are damaged, resulting in loss of proprioception. |
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Term
| What is Conus Medullaris Syndrome and Cauda Equina Syndrome? What manifestations will be seen? |
|
Definition
| Damage to the very lowest portion of the spinal cord and the lumbar and sacral nerve roots. Produces flaccid paralysis of lower limbs and flaccid bladder and bowel. |
|
|
Term
| At what level of the spine would their be total loss of respiratory muscle function if injured? |
|
Definition
| Above the level of C4 (mechanical ventilation is required to keep the patient alive) |
|
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Term
| True or False? Cervical injury below the level of C4 will cause diaphragmatic breathing if phrenic nerve if still functioning. |
|
Definition
True
Note: Spinal cord edema and hemorrhage can affect function of phrenic nerve and cause respiratory insufficiency |
|
|
Term
| Why could cervical and thoracic injuries lead to atelectasis or pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| They cause paralysis of abdominal and intercostal muscles, which means the patient cannot cough effectively enough to remove secretions. |
|
|
Term
| What cardiovascular symptoms are associated with any cord injury above the level of T6 and why? |
|
Definition
| Bradycardia and peripheral vasodilation, resulting in hypotension. This is because any cord injury above the level of T6 greatly decreases the influence of the sympathetic nervous system. |
|
|
Term
| In marked bradycardia (heart rate <40 beats/min), what drug would be appropriate to increase the heart rate and prevent hypoxemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two pharmacological treatments would be used to increase blood pressure in a patient with a cord injury above the level of T6? |
|
Definition
| IV fluids and vasopressors |
|
|
Term
| What will be used to drain the bladder of a patient with an atonic bladder that becomes overdistended? |
|
Definition
| An indwelling catheter is used until the patient is medically stable and large quantities of IV fluids are no longer required. At this point, the indwelling catheter will be removed and intermittent catheterization should begin as early as possible (helps maintain bladder tone and decrease risk of infection). |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary GI problem related to cord injury above the level of T5? |
|
Definition
| Hypomotility (contributes to development of paralytic ileus and gastric distention). |
|
|
Term
| What would you use to give relief to a patient with gastric distention? |
|
Definition
| An NG tube with intermittent suctioning |
|
|
Term
| What medication may be used to treat delayed gastric emptying? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stress ulcers in the stomach are a common side effect of spinal cord injury, because of excessive release of hydrochloric acid in the stomach. What are some medications used to prevent ulcers in the initial phase? |
|
Definition
| Histamine (H2)-receptor blockers, such as ranitidine (Zantac) and famotidine (Pepcid), and proton pump inhibitors (e.g., pantoprazole [Protonix IV], omeprazole [Prilosec], lansoprazole [Prevacid]) |
|
|
Term
| Since there are no subjective symptoms of intraabdominal bleeding related to spinal cord injury, what would make you suspect it? |
|
Definition
- Continued hypotension in spite of vigorous treatment
- Decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
- Expanding girth of the abdomen
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|
Term
| Neurogenic bowel is associated with spinal injury at the level of T12 or below. Explain what Neurogenic bowel is. |
|
Definition
| Less voluntary neurologic control over the bowel results in a neurogenic bowel. In the early period after injury, the bowel is areflexic and sphincter tone is decreased. As reflexes return, the bowel becomes reflexic, sphincter tone is enhanced, and reflex emptying occurs. |
|
|
Term
| How is neurogenic bowel treated? |
|
Definition
| Can be managed successfully with a regular bowel program coordinated with the gastrocolic reflex to minimize untimely incontinence. |
|
|
Term
| Patients with spinal cord injuries experience Poikilothermism as well as the inability to sweat or shier? Explain what effect this has on temperature regulation. |
|
Definition
- Poikilothermism is the adjustment of the body temperature to the room temperature.
- With spinal cord disruption there is also decreased ability to sweat or shiver below the level of the lesion, which also affects the ability to regulate body temperature.
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|
Term
| The degree of poikilothermism depends on the level of injury, explain the differences in temperature regulation with cervical and thoracic or lumbar injuries. |
|
Definition
| Patients with high cervical injuries have a greater loss of the ability to regulate temperature than do those with thoracic or lumbar injuries. |
|
|
Term
| Why should you closely monitor electrolyte levels in a patient receiving NG suctioning? |
|
Definition
Suctioning could cause metabolic alkalosis. Must monitor until suctioning is discontinued and a normal diet is resumed.
Note: Decreased tissue perfusion can lead to acidosis |
|
|
Term
| What kind of diet is to be expected for a patient with SCI? |
|
Definition
| A positive nitrogen balance and a high-protein diet help to prevent skin breakdown and infections and decrease the rate of muscle atrophy. |
|
|
Term
| DVT is more difficult to detect in patients with SCI, because signs such as pain and tenderness will not be present. How will you assess for DVT? |
|
Definition
- Doppler examination
- Impedance plethysmography
- Measurement of leg and thigh girth
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|
|
Term
| What is the gold standard for diagnosing the stability of a spinal cord injury, location and degree of bony injury, and degree of spinal canal compromise? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is an MRI used for SCIs? |
|
Definition
| MRI is used to assess for soft tissue and neural changes and when there is unexplained neurologic deficit or worsening of neurologic status. |
|
|
Term
| What is the timeframe for a patient with a complete or incomplete SCI to receive the benefits of Methylprednisolone (Solu Medrol)? |
|
Definition
| Must be taken within 8 hours of injury to receive improvement in motor function, sensation, blood flow and edema. |
|
|
Term
| When is the use of Methylprednisolone (Solu Medrol) contraindicated in a SCI? |
|
Definition
When there is a penetrating trauma to the spinal cord.
Note: should be used with caution in elderly population. |
|
|
Term
| What are three major side effects of Methylprednisolone (Solu Medrol)? |
|
Definition
- Immunosupression
- Increased frequency of upper GI bleeding
- Increased risk of infection
|
|
|
Term
| True or False? If a patient that may have a SCI is not breathing and has a heartbeat, you should do a jaw thrust to start CPR. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True or False? A patient with a SCI who is unable to count to 10 aloud without taking a breath needs immediate attention. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What medication will be used to treat hypotension related to spinal cord injury? |
|
Definition
| Dopamine or Norepinephrine (in addition to fluid replacement, if needed) |
|
|
Term
True or False? Bladder overdistention can result in reflux into kidneys with eventual renal failure.
|
|
Definition
True. Indwelling catheter used in acute phase followed by intermittent catheterization program (q3-4h) once stabilized.
Note: need high fluid intake during indwelling catheter phase |
|
|
Term
| Your patient has a SCI. What are the three situations that would result in ET tube or Tracheostomy with mechanical ventilation? |
|
Definition
- Injury is at or above C3
- Patient is exhausted from labored breathing
- ABGs deteriorate (indicating inadequate oxygenation or ventilation)
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|
|
Term
| What causes the slowed heart rate (<60 bpm) in a patient with SCI? |
|
Definition
Unopposed vagal response (give Atropine).
Note: Any increase in vagal stimulation, such as turning or suctioning, can result in cardiac arrest.
|
|
|
Term
| What is the cause of chronic low blood pressure in patients with SCI? |
|
Definition
| Loss of sympathetic tone in peripheral vessels (give Dopamine or Norepinephrine and fluid replacement). |
|
|
Term
| What is the reason for increased risk of DVT in patients with SCI? |
|
Definition
Lack of muscle tone to aid venous return can result in sluggish blood flow and predispose the patient to DVT. Obviously, immobility is another concern.
Note: will use Heparin or Lovenox to prevent DVT unless patient has internal bleeding or recent surgery |
|
|
Term
| What is the best method for preventing UTIs in your patient with SCI? |
|
Definition
| Regular and complete bladder drainage |
|
|
Term
| When should you send a patient's urine for culture? |
|
Definition
| If the appearance or odor of the urine is suspicious or if the patient develops symptoms of a UTI (e.g., chills, fever, malaise), a specimen is sent for culture. |
|
|
Term
| What would happen to the hematocrit level if your patient has a stress ulcer? |
|
Definition
| You would observe a slow drop in hematocrit. |
|
|
Term
| What are some ways you need to compensate for your patient's absent sensations and prevent sensory deprivation? |
|
Definition
Do this by stimulating the patient above the level of injury. Conversation, music, strong aromas, and interesting flavors should be a part of the nursing care plan. Provide prism glasses so that the patient can read and watch television.
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|
|
Term
| The return of reflexes after the resolution of spinal shock means that patients with an injury level at T6 or higher may develop autonomic dysreflexia. Explain what this is and the severity of the situation. |
|
Definition
- Autonomic Dysreflexia is when there is stimulation of sensory receptors below the level of cord lesion and the intact sympathetic nervous system below the level of the lesion responds to the stimulation with a reflex arteriolar vasoconstriction that increases blood pressure but the parasympathetic nervous system is unable to directly counteract these responses via the injured spinal cord.
- Life-threatening - requires immediate resolution.
- If resolution doesn't occur, can lead to status epilepticus, stroke, myocardial infarction, & death.
|
|
|
Term
| What is the most common precipitating cause of Autonomic Dysreflexia? |
|
Definition
| The most common precipitating cause is a distended bladder or rectum, although any sensory stimulation may cause autonomic dysreflexia (includes restrictive clothing, pressure areas, or UTI as well) |
|
|
Term
| What are the manifestations associated with Autonomic Dysreflexia? |
|
Definition
- Hypertension (up to 300 mm Hg systolic)
- Throbbing headache (measure BP immediately)
- Marked diaphoresis above the level of the lesion
- Bradycardia (30 to 40 beats/minute)
- Piloerection (erection of body hair)
- Flushing of the skin above the level of the lesion
- Blurred vision or spots in the visual fields
- Nasal congestion
- Anxiety
- Nausea
|
|
|
Term
| What are the nursing interventions for immediate care of a patient experiencing Autonomic Dysreflexia? |
|
Definition
- Elevation of the head of the bed 45 degrees or sitting the patient upright
- Notification of the physician
- Assessment to determine the cause
- May be necessary to relieve bladder distention with catheterization if this is the cause (use lidocaine)
- May be necessary to do digital rectal exam to assess for impaction (use anesthetic ointment first)
- Remove all skin stimuli (restrictive clothing/tight shoes)
|
|
|
Term
| What medication will most likely be ordered if your patient's symptoms of Autonomic Dysreflexia persist after the source has been relieved? |
|
Definition
| Nifedipine (Procardia), which is an arteriolar vasodilator |
|
|
Term
| What should we teach patients with cervical-level injuries who are not ventilator dependent in regards to respiratory rehabilitation? |
|
Definition
| Should be taught assisted coughing and regular use of incentive spirometry or deep-breathing exercises. |
|
|