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Ch. 9-12 Flashcards for EMT Class
EMT CLASS made by TJ McKinney
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Graduate
02/12/2017

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Cards

Term

1. Vomiting or gagging when something is placed in the back of the pharynx is called:

A. gurgling.

B. stridor.

C. the Moro reflex.

D. the gag reflex.

 

 

Ch 9: Homework

Definition

D. the gag reflex.

Term

2. Which of the following is part of the lower airway?

A. Oropharynx

B. Tongue

C. Mainstem bronchus

D. Nasopharynx 

 

 

 

Ch 9: Homework

Definition

C. Mainstem bronchus

Term

3. What structure is just proximal to the alveoli?

A. Epiglottis

B. Bronchiole

C. Nasopharynx

D. Trachea

 

 

 

Ch 9: Homework

Definition

B. Bronchiole

Term

4. Which of the following is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in the unresponsive patient?

A. Food

B. Secretions

C. Dentures

D. The tongue 

 

 

Ch 9: Homework

Definition

D. The tongue

Term

5. You approach the patient and identify yourself. She smiles and says, "Thank you for coming." What do you know about the status of her airway?

A. It is open but always has the potential to swell.

B. It is partially open but needs to be assessed further.

C. It must be compromised because she answered you with only one sentence.

D. It is open, and she is capable of moving air right now.

Ch 9: Homework

Definition

D. It is open, and she is capable of moving air right now.

Term

6. Which of the following is a common cause of foreign body airway obstruction?

A. Tongue

B. Blood

C. Vomit

D. Food

 

 

Ch 9: Homework

Definition

D. Food

Term

7. Which of the following patients has an open airway but is still at risk for airway compromise?

A. A patient who swallowed water after he panicked in the deep end of a pool and began coughing but who is not coughing now

B. A patient who overdosed on a narcotic, was breathing four to six times per minute, was given naloxone, and is now alert and breathing at 16 times per minute

C. A patient who has started to snore after falling into a deep, sound, restful sleep

D. A patient who was rescued from a house fire and has facial burns and is coughing up black, sooty sputum           Ch 9: Homework

Definition

D. A patient who was rescued from a house fire and has facial burns and is coughing up black, sooty sputum 

Term

8. You observe a child with retractions, nasal flaring, and decreased level of consciousness. These are signs that the patient has:

A. mild dyspnea.

B. an inadequate airway.

C. respiratory arrest.

D. anaphylaxis. 

 

Ch 9: Homework

Definition

B. an inadequate airway.

Term

9. When opening the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, you should:

A. tilt the patient's head back, but do not lift under the neck.

B. position the patient's head so that it is slightly flexed or tilted forward.

C. use the same head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver as you would use on non-trauma patients.

D. use the jaw-thrust maneuver.       Ch 9: Homework

Definition

D. use the jaw-thrust maneuver. 

Term

10. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the OPA and the NPA?

A. They help to move soft tissue of the upper airway.

B. They ensure an open airway to the level of the lungs.

C. They do not need to be measured before insertion.

D. They must both be lubricated before insertion.

 

 

Ch 9: Homework

Definition

A. They help to move soft tissue of the upper airway.

Term

11. How should the EMT measure the soft (French) suction catheter before inserting it into the oral cavity?

A. From the tip of the nose, around the ear, and then to the sternal notch

B. From the tip of the nose to the corner of the mouth

C. From the earlobe to the corner of the mouth

D. From the corner of the mouth to the sternal notch

 

Ch 9: Homework

Definition

C. From the earlobe to the corner of the mouth

Term

12. Which of the following is NOT usually required in suctioning a patient?

A. Gloves

B. Mask

C. Gown

D. Eye protection

 

 

Ch 9: Homework

Definition

C. Gown

Term

13. When the suction tubing is kinked, the on-board suction unit should be able to create a negative suctioning pressure of:

A. >200 mmHg.

B. >500 mmHg.

C. >400 mmHg.

D. >300 mmHg

 

Ch 9: Homework

Definition

D. >300 mmHg

Term

14. Sometimes it may be necessary to do which of the following to clear the oropharynx manually?

A. Do a lengthy, manual blind finger sweep

B. Reach in with Magill forceps to move the uvula

C. Log roll the patient

D. Perform rapid, deep abdominal thrusts

 

 

Ch 9: Homework

Definition

C. Log roll the patient

Term

1. A harsh, high-pitched sound heard during inspiration, characteristic of an upper airway obstruction due to swelling, is called:

A. snoring.

B. stridor.

C. gurgling.

D. crowing.

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

B. stridor.

Term

2. Blood, vomitus, or other substances that occlude the nasopharynx may drain and lead to:

A. airway obstruction.

B. laryngeal trauma.

C. bronchiolitis.

D. epiglottitis.

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

A. airway obstruction.

Term

3. Which of the following is the most likely cause of lower airway resistance?

A. A piece of meat sitting on the epiglottis.

B. Swelling of the tongue.

C. A spasm of the mainstem bronchus.

D. Bronchoconstriction.

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

D. Bronchoconstriction.

Term

4. The passageway by which air enters or leaves the body is called the:

A. airway.

B. lungs.

C. diaphragm.

D. bronchioles.

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

A. airway.

Term

5. Which of the following is part of the upper airway?

A. Alveoli

B. Trachea

C. Bronchi

D. Pharynx

 

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

D. Pharynx

Term

6. To perform a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver, you should place one hand on the patient's forehead and:

A. place one hand on the patient's forehead and the other under the neck.

B. use the thumb of one hand to lift the patient's chin if necessary.

C. remove the patient's dentures immediately.

D. place the fingertips of your other hand under the patient's jaw.                                       Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

D. place the fingertips of your other hand under the patient's jaw.

Term

7. You are caring for an adult who witnesses say became unconscious on the couch and slid to the carpeted floor. She appears to have taken an overdose of a medication. What technique should you use to open her airway?

A. Modified jaw-thrust maneuver

B. Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver

C. Neck-lift maneuver

D. OPA insertion maneuver

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

B. Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver

Term

8. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the oropharyngeal airway?

A. Measure the oral airway by comparing the airway to the patient's little finger.

B. An appropriate manual airway technique should be performed before using the OPA.

C. The oral airway may be used in any conscious patient who needs airway control.

D. The preferred method of insertion in an infant or child is upside-down first.

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

B. An appropriate manual airway technique should be performed before using the OPA.

Term

9. Which of the airway structures are surrounded by the pulmonary capillaries?

A. Carina

B. Bronchioles

C. Pharynx

D. Alveoli

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

D. Alveoli

Term

10. When fluids or secretions are present in the airway or whenever a gurgling sound is heard, what needs to be done?

A. Having the patient take a deep breath

B. Suctioning of the airway

C. Sitting the patient upright

D. Turning the patient prone

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

B. Suctioning of the airway

Term

11. You are called to a residence for a 19-year-old female who had a seizure and is now unresponsive with gurgling respirations. Which of the following devices should you utilize FIRST?

A. A bite block

B. A portable suction unit

C. A nonrebreather mask

D. An OPA

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

B. A portable suction unit

Term

12. Signs that your patient may have a completely blocked airway include which of the following?

A. no signs of air movement.

B. equal rise and fall of the chest.

C. a strong cough.

D. the ability to speak full sentences

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

A. no signs of air movement.

Term

13. Why would an EMT select an NPA instead of an OPA?

A. The patient still has a gag reflex.

B. The patient is allergic to airways.

C. The patient is in shock.

D. The patient refuses to have an airway inserted.

 

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

A. The patient still has a gag reflex.

Term

14. Which of the following patients has an open airway but is still at risk for airway compromise?

A. A child who was choking on a piece of candy but has spit it out and is crying loudly and forcefully

B. A child with a hoarse voice and wheezing after a bee sting

C. A child who is screaming for her parents after falling off her bike and scraping her leg

D. A child with a recurrence of hiccups and coughing over the past few hours


Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

B. A child with a hoarse voice and wheezing after a bee sting

Term

15. Your patient with facial burns was talking clearly a few minutes ago, but his voice now seems to be developing some hoarseness. What is happening to his airway?

A. His nasopharynx is starting to become edematous.

B. Soot has gotten into his oropharynx and is irritating the uvula.

C. The glottic opening is enlarging, thus making this sound.

D. Swelling is building up in and around the vocal cords.




Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

D. Swelling is building up in and around the vocal cords.

Term

16. To assess a patient's airway, you should:

A. measure for an OPA.

B. percuss the chest.

C. look for signs of breathing.

D. measure oxygen saturation with a pulse oximeter.

 

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

C. look for signs of breathing.

Term

17. What position should a child be placed in to open and maintain an airway?

A. Trendelenburg

B. Flexed

C. Neutral

D. Extended

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

C. Neutral

Term

18. If you hear a gurgling sound when you are assessing the airway or during artificial ventilation, you should:

A. ventilate more forcefully to clear the airway of secretions.

B. perform a blind finger sweep to clear the airway.

C. immediately apply suction to remove the liquid from the airway.

D. turn the patient on his or her side and allow the secretions to drain out.                             Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

C. immediately apply suction to remove the liquid from the airway.

Term

19. When using a soft (French) catheter to suction a patient's mouth and oropharynx, you should:

A. insert the catheter 1 to 2 cm past the base of the tongue.

B. measure from the tip of the nose to the tip of the ear.

C. measure the catheter from the earlobe to the corner of the mouth.

D. suction for no more than 30 seconds at a time in the infant patient.                                        Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

C. measure the catheter from the earlobe to the corner of the mouth.

Term

20. Which of the following patients cannot reliably manage his or her own airway?

A. An unresponsive patient

B. A trauma patient who is complaining of abdominal pain

C. An alert patient with dyspnea

D. A confused diabetic patient

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

A. An unresponsive patient

Term

21. Where is the palatine tonsil located?

A. Oropharynx

B. Nasopharynx

C. Hypopharynx

D. Laryngopharynx

 

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

A. Oropharynx

Term

22. A high-pitched noise is coming from your patient's upper airway. This patient has:

A. stridor caused by upper airway obstruction.

B. rales caused by heart failure.

C. wheezing likely caused by an asthma attack.

D. rhonchi likely caused by pneumonia.

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

A. stridor caused by upper airway obstruction.

Term

23. Signs of an adequate airway include:

A. nonlabored breathing.

B. absent breath sounds.

C. wheezing.

D. gasping.

 

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

A. nonlabored breathing.

Term

24. Which of the following is true regarding the use of a rigid suction catheter?

A. It is more effective for particulate matter than is a soft catheter.

B. It is recommended for deep suctioning of the upper airway.

C. It is recommended for both oral and nasal suctioning.

D. It is best in the suctioning of a conscious patient.

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

A. It is more effective for particulate matter than is a soft catheter.

Term

25. What is the maximum amount of time that should be taken to suction the oropharynx of an adult?

A. 25 seconds

B. 10 seconds

C. 15 seconds

D. 20 seconds

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

B. 10 seconds

Term

26. You perform a jaw thrust on an unconscious patient and assess for airway patency. Which of the following may indicate the patient has an occluded airway?

A. There is no sign of breathing or air movement.

B. The rise and fall of the chest are equal.

C. There is no audible stridor or wheezing.

D. There are no teeth or vomit in the airway.

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

A. There is no sign of breathing or air movement.

Term

27. Which of the following is TRUE about airway control of the unresponsive medical patient?

A. Manual airway maneuvers help to prevent the tongue from blocking the airway.

B. An airway adjunct should be used first on any unresponsive patient.

C. Manual airway maneuvers are not necessary if the patient is a medical patient.

D. The EMT will be forced to use the modified jaw lift on this medical patient.


Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

A. Manual airway maneuvers help to prevent the tongue from blocking the airway.

Term

28. Which of the following is a difference between a pediatric airway and an adult airway?

A. A child's cricoid cartilage is harder and stronger.

B. A child has a wider trachea.

C. A child has a smaller nose and mouth.

D. A child has a smaller tongue and a larger mouth.

 

 

Ch 9: Pretest

Definition

C. A child has a smaller nose and mouth.

Term

1. An insufficient supply of oxygen to the body's tissues is called:

A. hyperventilation.

B. hypoxia.

C. apnea.

D. anoxia

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

B. hypoxia.

Term

2. The amount of air that enters the alveoli for gas exchange is referred to as:

A. residual volume.

B. pulmonary circulation.

C. compliance volume.

D. alveolar ventilation.

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

D. alveolar ventilation.

Term

3. Out of a normal tidal volume, how much air actually reaches the alveoli?

A. 150 ml

B. 500 ml

C. 350 ml

D. 200 ml

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

C. 350 ml

Term

4. When a person inhales, the diaphragm:

A. and the intercostal muscles contract.

B. and the intercostal muscles relax.

C. relaxes and the intercostal muscles contract.

D. contracts and the intercostal muscles relax.

 

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

A. and the intercostal muscles contract.

Term

5. A decrease in which of the following will cause breathing rates to increase?

A. Oxygen

B. Nitrogen

C. Argon

D. Carbon dioxide

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

A. Oxygen

Term

6. Assuming no change in respiratory rate, what happens if the tidal volume is decreased?

A. Dead space air increases.

B. Alveolar ventilation is unaffected.

C. Minute volume increases.

D. Alveolar ventilation decreases.

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

D. Alveolar ventilation decreases.

Term

7. What gases are exchanged during the process of respiration?

A. Oxygen and nitrogen

B. Nitrogen and carbon monoxide

C. Nitrogen and carbon dioxide

D. Oxygen and carbon dioxide

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

D. Oxygen and carbon dioxide

Term

8. Which of the following patients is at risk for failure of the cardiopulmonary system?

A. A patient who has had a tourniquet applied to an extremity with a laceration

B. A patient who hit the steering wheel of a car with her chest at 90 mph

C. A patient who fell three feet off a porch onto his feet

D. A patient who exercises daily at a moderate pace

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

B. A patient who hit the steering wheel of a car with her chest at 90 mph

Term

9. You are caring for a patient with respiratory distress. The patient is found in a seated position with nasal flaring and absent breath sounds. You also note cyanosis at the nail beds. Which of these findings is MOST suggestive of inadequate breathing?

A. The chief complaint

B. Cyanosis

C. Absent breath sounds

D. The seated position                        Ch 10: Homework

Definition

C. Absent breath sounds

Term

10. Which of the following patients is MOST likely hypoxic?

A. A patient who was trapped in a fire for an extended time period

B. A patient with a small laceration and controlled bleeding

C. An adult patient who is breathing 18 times per minute and is in no obvious distress

D. A patient who has just been removed from a hyperbaric chamber at the doctor's office




Ch 10: Homework

Definition

A. A patient who was trapped in a fire for an extended time period

Term

11. Assessment of a patient's breathing should include:

A. palpation of the torso.

B. observing the chest for adequate expansion.

C. assessing the patient's pulse pressure.

D. assessing the patient's pulse.

 

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

B. observing the chest for adequate expansion.

Term

12. Why is it important to administer oxygen to the patient with respiratory compromise?

A. To minimize the cell hypoxia

B. To improve the blood flow to the brain

C. To maintain the patient's body temperature

D. To dilate the bronchioles

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

A. To minimize the cell hypoxia

Term

13. What is the cause of gastric distention during ventilation?

A. Too low a tidal volume every time the bag is squeezed

B. Airway pressures generated during ventilation that are too high

C. Too slow a ventilatory rate

D. Improper mask seal

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

B. Airway pressures generated during ventilation that are too high

Term

14. A common problem caused by overly aggressive manual ventilation by the EMT is:

A. hypercapnea.

B. a narrowing of the pulse pressure.

C. hyperoxia.

D. gastric distention.

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

D. gastric distention.

Term

15. When ventilating an adult with a pulse using a bag-mask device, the EMT should ventilate the patient:

A. 12 to 20 times a minute.

B. 20 to 32 times a minute.

C. 10 to 12 times a minute.

D. 40 to 60 times a minute.

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

C. 10 to 12 times a minute.

Term

16. The preferred method of artificial ventilation is:

A. a flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device (FROPVD).

B. mouth to mouth.

C. single-rescuer BVM.

D. two-person BVM.

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

D. two-person BVM.

Term

17. When ventilating a patient, you should see:

A. the oxygen saturation dropping below 94%.

B. gray or ashen skin color.

C. a pulse rate below 60 per minute.

D. the chest rise and fall with each ventilation.

 

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

D. the chest rise and fall with each ventilation.

Term

18. What must be done before providing ventilations through a stoma?

A. Attempt to ventilate with the mask over the patient's face.

B. Turn the patient's head to the side.

C. Determine the condition that led to the stoma.

D. Clear any mucus or secretions from the stoma.

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

D. Clear any mucus or secretions from the stoma.

Term

19. A nasal cannula should be used to administer oxygen to a patient:

A. who is suffering from severe hypoxia.

B. who needs only small amounts of oxygen.

C. who is experiencing chest pain.

D. who is not yet unconscious.

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

B. who needs only small amounts of oxygen.

Term

20. The reservoir bag on a nonrebreather mask should:

A. not completely empty during inhalation.

B. not have a reservoir.

C. be detached if the patient is receiving less than 12 lpm oxygen.

D. completely collapse when the patient inhales.

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

A. not completely empty during inhalation.

Term

21. When delivering oxygen via a nonrebreather mask, you are:

A. delivering the lowest concentration of oxygen possible.

B. delivering the highest concentration of oxygen possible.

C. not to exceed a 10 lpm flow rate.

D. increasing the patient's risk of vomiting.

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

B. delivering the highest concentration of oxygen possible.

Term

22. A device that is used to dial in exact oxygen concentrations for the patient who needs low to moderate concentrations of oxygen is a:

A. rebreather mask.

B. partial-rebreather mask.

C. venturi mask.

D. nonrebreather mask.

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

C. venturi mask.

Term

23. Oxygen should never be used:

A. indoors.

B. around open flames.

C. on COPD patients.

D. on infants

 

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

B. around open flames.

Term

24. Never use adhesive tape on an oxygen tank, as it may cause:

A. corrosive residue.

B. oxygen contamination.

C. an unprofessional appearance.

D. a fire.

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

D. a fire.

Term

25. What is the approximate amount of oxygen in a G cylinder?

A. 3,350 liters

B. 2,250 liters

C. 4,450 liters

D. 5,300 liters

 

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

D. 5,300 liters

Term

26. The maximum flow rate recommended to achieve high concentrations of oxygen when using a nonrebreather mask is typically:

A. 6 lpm.

B. 8 lpm.

C. 10 lpm.

D. 15 lpm.

 

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

D. 15 lpm.

Term

27. If you will be transporting a patient to a hospital hours away, and the patient requires supplemental oxygen, which of the following will likely make the patient more comfortable?

A. CPAP.

B. a nasal cannula.

C. a tracheostomy mask.

D. humidified oxygen.

Ch 10: Homework

Definition

 

D. humidified oxygen.

 
Term

1. Why does air enter the lungs during inhalation?

A. High pressure outside the body and negative pressure inside the lungs

B. High pressure outside the body and positive pressure inside the lungs

C. Low pressure outside the body and positive pressure inside the lungs

D. Low pressure outside the body and negative pressure inside the lungs                                Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

A. High pressure outside the body and negative pressure inside the lungs

Term

2. Why should you avoid aggressive hyperventilation with a BVM?

A. Overstimulation of the trachea can result in swelling of the tracheal lumen.

B. Hyperoxygenation can result in oxidative stress.

C. Additional air may be introduced into the stomach.

D. Hyperventilation can result in swelling of the brain.

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

C. Additional air may be introduced into the stomach.

Term

3. A permanent surgical opening in the neck through which the patient breathes is called a:

A. carina.

B. glottis.

C. Shiley.

D. stoma

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. stoma

Term

4. When should the EMT consider humidifying oxygen for a patient?

A. Whenever high-concentration oxygen is administered

B. Whenever oxygen is administered by nasal cannula

C. When the oxygen will be administered over a long period of time

D. Only if the patient requests it

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

C. When the oxygen will be administered over a long period of time

Term

5. Which of the following will prevent the blood from carrying enough oxygen to the body's cells?

A. Taking antibiotics

B. Development of renal calculi

C. A blood sugar above 120 mg/dl

D. Significant blood loss

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. Significant blood loss

Term

6. How does exhalation take place?

A. The intercostals and diaphragm relax.

B. The diaphragm contracts.

C. The nervous system activates.

D. The intercostals contract.

 

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

A. The intercostals and diaphragm relax.

Term

7. When ventilating with a bag-mask device, the EMT should:

A. ventilate over two seconds.

B. hyperventilate the patient.

C. ensure that there are air leaks around the mask seal.

D. watch for chest rise with each ventilation

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. watch for chest rise with each ventilation

Term

8. An acronym for the manually triggered ventilation device is:

A. ATV.

B. BVM.

C. FROPVD.

D. CPAP.

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

C. FROPVD.

Term

9. Low concentrations of oxygen (24% to 44%) can be administered by using:

A. a nonrebreather.

B. a nasal cannula.

C. a BVM.

D. a partial rebreather.

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

B. a nasal cannula.

Term

10. Why should EMS providers administer oxygen to a patient who is suspected of hypoxia?

A. More oxygen in the inspired air will increase the amount absorbed by the blood.

B. More oxygen in the inspired air will decrease the absorption of other gases present.

C. More oxygen in the inspired air will slow the respiratory rate.

D. More oxygen in the inspired air will raise the respiratory rate.



Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

A. More oxygen in the inspired air will increase the amount absorbed by the blood.

Term

11. Which of the following is appropriate for delivery of high-flow oxygen of 80% or greater?

A. Venturi mask

B. Nonrebreather mask

C. Nasal cannula

D. Simple face mask

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

B. Nonrebreather mask

Term

12. What is a detrimental effect of hypoxia?

A. Hypocarbia

B. Hyperventilation

C. Brain damage

D. Respiratory alkalosis

 

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

C. Brain damage

Term

13. If you notice the apneic patient's abdomen getting larger during artificial ventilation, what should you do?

A. Roll the patient onto his or her side for a while.

B. Call for a Paramedic unit.

C. Decrease the oxygen concentration.

D. Ensure that you are not hyperventilating the patient.

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. Ensure that you are not hyperventilating the patient.

Term

14. Oxygen cylinders should be hydrostatically tested:

A. only if damage is suspected.

B. before each use.

C. every shift.

D. every five to ten years

 

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. every five to ten years

Term

15. An increase in which of the following will cause the breathing rate to increase?

A. Oxygen

B. Argon

C. Carbon dioxide

D. Nitrogen

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

C. Carbon dioxide

Term

16. What is the universal color for medical grade oxygen tanks?

A. Silver

B. Orange

C. Green

D. Black

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

C. Green

Term

17. You should administer oxygen by NRB mask to a patient:

A. who is apneic with a pulse ox of 76%.

B. whose breathing is inadequate with a pulse ox of 88%.

C. with adequate breathing and a pulse ox of 90%.

D. whom you are bagging at 10 times per minute.

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

C. with adequate breathing and a pulse ox of 90%.

Term

18. Which of the following MOST likely indicates hypoxia?

A. Flushed skin

B. Cyanosis

C. Jaundice

D. Pale skin

 

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

B. Cyanosis

Term

19. Only slight chest movement or abdominal wall motion is an indication of:

A. shallow breathing.

B. noisy breathing.

C. labored breathing.

D. normal breathing.

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

A. shallow breathing.

Term

20. What is normally the maximum flow setting for oxygen delivery with a nonrebreather mask?

A. 12 lpm

B. 15 lpm

C. 6 lpm

D. 60 lpm

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

B. 15 lpm

Term

21. Your patient has a heart rate of 100 per minute, and her ventilations are 26. She is awake and alert with some mild expiratory wheezing. How would you classify her?

A. Respiratory distress

B. Respiratory failure

C. Respiratory stable

D. Respiratory arrest

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

A. Respiratory distress

Term

22. Which of the following has the MOST significant impact on regulation of breathing?

A. Hydrogen levels 

B. Nitrogen levels

C. Blood glucose levels

D. Carbon dioxide levels

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. Carbon dioxide levels

Term

23. The product of tidal volume and ventilation rate is:

A. alveolar volume.

B. pulmonary respiration.

C. dead space air.

D. minute volume.

 

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. minute volume.

Term

24. Assessing a patient's spontaneous ventilations is BEST done by:

A. listening for the sound of wheezing.

B. watching for condensation on the inside of the mask as the patient breathes.

C. watching for the use of accessory muscles of breathing.

D. looking closely for chest rise.

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. looking closely for chest rise.

Term

25. Your patient has an adequate respiratory rate but an inadequate tidal volume. This will lead to:

A. inadequate breathing.

B. improved health of the patient.

C. an adequate tidal volume over time.

D. increased respiratory volume

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

A. inadequate breathing.

Term

26. What is the approximate amount of oxygen in a portable D cylinder?

A. 350 liters

B. 550 liters

C. 450 liters

D. 250 liters

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

A. 350 liters

Term

27. Which of the following is a complication of using an FROPVD on an adult patient?

A. Gastric distention can occur.

B. It requires multiple rescuers.

C. The risk of hyperventilation is eliminated.

D. The patient receives high-concentration oxygen

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

A. Gastric distention can occur

Term

28. Which of the following patients would be the MOST likely to receive humidified oxygen?

A. A patient who is en route to the hospital after resuscitation from sudden cardiac arrest

B. An asthma patient who is being transferred to a pulmonary center in another part of the state

C. A stroke patient

D. A patient who is complaining of leg pain

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

B. An asthma patient who is being transferred to a pulmonary center in another part of the state

Term

29. Which of the following patients MOST needs supplemental oxygen?

A. An alert diabetic patient who missed a meal

B. A patient who sprained his right ankle

C. An asthmatic patient who fell off her bike

D. A cardiac arrest patient who is being resuscitated

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. A cardiac arrest patient who is being resuscitated

Term

30. The amount of air moved into and out of the alveoli in one minute is called the:

A. alveolar ventilation.

B. tidal volume.

C. residual ventilation volume.

D. minute volume.

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

A. alveolar ventilation.

Term

31. You are treating a patient who needs supplemental oxygen but will not tolerate the nonrebreather mask that you would like to use. What should you do?

A. Skip the oxygen for the ride to the hospital.

B. Switch to a simple mask.

C. Admonish the patient for being uncooperative.

D. Switch to a nasal cannula

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. Switch to a nasal cannula

Term

32. Unlike normal respirations, labored breathing usually involves use of:

A. intercostal muscles.

B. the diaphragm.

C. accessory muscles.

D. the lungs.

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

C. accessory muscles.

Term

33. Which of the following respiratory rates would NOT be found in a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

A. Slower than normal.

B. Normal.

C. Absent.

D. Faster than normal.

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

C. Absent.

Term

34. When a patient is found to have a normal respiratory assessment, this means that the patient should have:

A. an irregular breathing pattern.

B. wheezing or crackles.

C. shallow ventilations.

D. an acceptable respiratory rate.

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. an acceptable respiratory rate.

Term

35. You are treating a patient who has taken too much of her pain-relieving narcotic. She is breathing very slowly with minimal chest rise. The BEST device to administer oxygen to this patient would be the:

A. CPAP device with supplemental oxygen.

B. nonrebreather mask.

C. nasal cannula.

D. bag-mask device with supplemental oxygen.

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. bag-mask device with supplemental oxygen.

Term

36. A number of different oxygen cylinders are available. Which of the following is TRUE?

A. Oxygen is highly flammable.

B. The D cylinder is the largest tank, with a capacity of 6,900 liters.

C. No matter what size it is, an oxygen tank is full at a pressure of 2,000 psi.

D. Oxygen pressure regulators should be cleaned frequently with oil to prevent rust.      Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

C. No matter what size it is, an oxygen tank is full at a pressure of 2,000 psi.

Term

37. Which of the following MOST likely indicates acute hypoxia?

A. Restlessness and confusion

B. Warm, flushed skin

C. A history of smoking

D. Hyperactivity and alertness

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

A. Restlessness and confusion

Term

38. When the diaphragm contracts, the patient:

A. coughs.

B. is able to speak.

C. exhales.

D. inhales.

 

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. inhales.

Term

39. Which of the following patients is at risk for failure of the cardiopulmonary system?

A. A patient with severe asthma or COPD

B. A patient who is experiencing an aura

C. A patient who is breathing at 20/minute

D. A patient with PTSD

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

A. A patient with severe asthma or COPD

Term

40. To avoid hyperventilating a patient, the EMT should:

A. ventilate the patient with an FROPVD.

B. ventilate the patient at the appropriate rate and depth.

C. ventilate the patient with the lowest amount of oxygen needed to keep the pulse ox greater than 95%.

D. ventilate the patient with a two-person BVM technique

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

B. ventilate the patient at the appropriate rate and depth.

Term

41. What oxygen delivery device can provide precise concentrations of oxygen?

A. Partial rebreather mask

B. Nonrebreather mask

C. Simple face mask

D. Venturi mask

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. Venturi mask

Term

42. The rate of artificial ventilations through a stoma is based on:

A. the EMT's preference.

B. the patient's oxygen saturation.

C. the patient's pulse rate.

D. the patient's age.

 

 

Ch 10: Pretest

Definition

D. the patient's age

Term

1. Which of the following is associated with a scene size-up and is used in assessing a patient who has received a traumatic injury?

A. Index of injury

B. Index of suspicion

C. Nature of illness

D. Mechanism of injury

 

Ch 11: Homework

Definition

D. Mechanism of injury

Term

2. You arrive at the scene of an overturned vehicle. Your scene size-up identifies power lines lying across the road that you would use to approach the vehicle. You should:

A. yell to the victim to self-evacuate.

B. stay in the vehicle until you have cleared the downed lines.

C. stage in place and await the power company.

D. get out of the vehicle and jump over the lines as you approach.                                      Ch 11: Homework

Definition

C. stage in place and await the power company.

Term

3. Your ambulance has been dispatched to a multiple-car motor vehicle crash. Dispatch has alerted you that fire and rescue units are en route. As you approach the scene, you should:

A. don personal protective equipment.

B. remove your seat belt to allow easy exit of the ambulance.

C. review the trauma triage criteria.

D. look and listen for other emergency units approaching from side streets.



Ch 11: Homework

Definition

 

D. look and listen for other emergency units approaching from side streets.


Term

4. Which of the following would represent the next best location to park if you could not park upwind or uphill from a scene of a gasoline spill?

A. In the drainage ditch

B. Behind a barrier

C. Downwind from the spill

D. Downhill from the spill

 

Ch 11: Homework

Definition

B. Behind a barrier

Term

5. You are caring for a 19-year-old male who was shot during a gang confrontation. The police have secured the scene and requested you to treat the patient. In addition to patient care, you should:

A. refuse to treat any patient at this crime scene.

B. have one EMT constantly watch bystanders and the surrounding area.

C. ask the patient about the crime so that you can report the answers to law enforcement.

D. assist law enforcement in searching the scene for clues.


Ch 11: Homework

Definition

B. have one EMT constantly watch bystanders and the surrounding area.

Term

6. A 68-year-old female complains of respiratory distress. She says that she has been sick for three days, and she has a history of COPD. You note that she is coughing forcefully into a napkin. Which of the following would be the most appropriate personal protective equipment for use on this scene?

A. Mask and eye protection

B. Gloves and gown

C. Gloves, eye protection, and mask

D. Gloves and eye protection


Ch 11: Homework

Definition

C. Gloves, eye protection, and mask

Term

7. The type of medical condition or complaint a patient is suffering from is referred to as the:

A. history of the present illness.

B. nature of illness.

C. index of suspicion.

D. mechanism of injury.

 

 

Ch 11: Homework

Definition

B. nature of illness.

Term

8. A 39-year-old male complains of respiratory distress, cough, and a fever. The patient weighs 400 pounds and lives on the second floor of a small house. You determine that transport is indicated. You should next:

A. request additional lifting assistance.

B. get medical direction orders to treat and release.

C. have the patient walk down to the first floor.

D. manage the best you can with your partner

Ch 11: Homework

Definition

A. request additional lifting assistance.

Term

9. Which of the following elements should be completed only after the EMT has finished the scene size-up?

A. Identify and manage life-threatening conditions.

B. Determine the mechanism of injury or nature of illness.

C. Assess the scene for additional resources that might be needed.

D. Identify possible hazards.

 

Ch 11: Homework

Definition

A. Identify and manage life-threatening conditions.

Term

10. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention states that a fall of greater than how many feet for an adult is considered to be a severe fall for which transport to a trauma center is recommended?

A. 40

B. 30

C. 20

D. 50

Ch 11: Homework

Definition

C. 20

Term

11. Penetrating trauma associated with handguns and shotguns is generally considered to be:

A. high velocity.

B. critical velocity.

C. medium velocity.

D. low velocity.

 

 

Ch 11: Homework

Definition

C. medium velocity.

Term

12. You are dispatched to an auto accident. As you approach the scene, you notice that law enforcement is there and the fire department is close behind you. Four badly damaged vehicles are involved. You should next:

A. determine the number of victims.

B. begin treatment.

C. contact dispatch and request additional EMS units.

D. position the ambulance to protect the scene.

Ch 11: Homework

Definition

C. contact dispatch and request additional EMS units.

Term

13. You should consider calling for advanced life support:

A. for all patients.

B. for all patients with external bleeding.

C. whenever your patient's airway is compromised.

D. for patients who are receiving supplemental oxygen.

 

 

 

Ch 11: Homework

Definition

C. whenever your patient's airway is compromised.

Term

14. An accident scene involving a chemical spill would likely require the additional resources of what entity?

A. Water rescue

B. CISD

C. Rescue

D. Hazmat

 

 

Ch 11: Homework

Definition

D. Hazmat

Term

1. You have been dispatched to 29 Park Avenue for a man having chest pain. As you approach the house, you hear loud voices and verbal threats coming from inside. You should:

A. direct everyone to move away from the patient.

B. approach the scene quietly.

C. NOT enter the scene.

D. use the PA system to announce your arrival

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

C. NOT enter the scene.

Term

2. What is the purpose for establishing a danger zone while working at a motor vehicle crash scene?

A. To ensure that the traffic will be rerouted around the wreckage

B. To require additional equipment to be dispatched to the scene

C. To designate the area where special safety precautions should be taken

D. To establish the area where the fire department will be operating




Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

C. To designate the area where special safety precautions should be taken

Term

3. A 77-year-old female complains of chest pain. When you arrive, her husband greets you at the front door. You note that he is out of breath, sweaty, and holding his chest. You should:

A. assess his wife first but then return to him once you have confirmed that she is non-emergent.

B. immediately focus your attention only on him.

C. ask him where the patient is located.

D. radio for an additional unit and have your partner assess him while you check on his wife


Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

D. radio for an additional unit and have your partner assess him while you check on his wife

Term

4. Your unit arrives first at the scene of a tractor-trailer motor vehicle crash. Your partner notes that he sees hazardous materials placards on the truck. You should first:

A. immediately leave the scene.

B. approach the truck to identify the placard.

C. stage in place, uphill and upwind from the scene.

D. use your intercom to ask the driver to come to the ambulance                                            Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

C. stage in place, uphill and upwind from the scene.

Term

5. Which of the following scenes would require you to be extra vigilant?

A. A noisy scene room in a factory

B. Police on scene motioning you in

C. A large crowd at a daycare

D. An unusually quiet scene

 

 

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

D. An unusually quiet scene

Term

6. You are dispatched to the scene of a child who was bitten by a dog. What step of the scene size-up can you begin to perform before arrival?

A. Establish the seriousness of the bite.

B. Instruct bystanders on bleeding control.

C. Place the trauma kit in close proximity.

D. Determine whether the animal has been secured.

 

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

D. Determine whether the animal has been secured.

Term

7. Which of the following would be considered one of the three basic goals of the scene size-up?

A. Determining the patient's chief complaint

B. Determining whether the patient is breathing

C. Determining the patient's medical history

D. Determining what led to your being called to the scene

 

 

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

D. Determining what led to your being called to the scene

Term

8. You suspect that your patient may have tuberculosis. Which of the following should be added to your personal protective equipment?

A. Simple face mask

B. N-95 mask

C. Shoe covers

D. Gown

 

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

B. N-95 mask

Term

9. Which of the following provides the best protection against bloodborne pathogens?

A. Appropriate personal decontamination

B. Decontamination of common surfaces

C. The use of HEPA respirators

D. Standard Precautions

 

 

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

D. Standard Precautions

Term

10. You are dispatched to a motor vehicle crash on a street in a residential neighborhood. As you pull up, you note that none of the houses along the street have lights on. You should suspect:

A. that the residents are not yet home from work.

B. a violent ambush.

C. downed power lines.

D. that the houses are not occupied.

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

C. downed power lines.

Term

11. The EMT's initial evaluation of the scene is called the:

A. hazard assessment.

B. initial assessment.

C. scene size-up.

D. primary assessment

 

 

 

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

C. scene size-up.

Term

12. You are performing a scene size-up at a large motor vehicle crash scene. Which of the following elements should be assessed first?

A. The number of patients.

B. The need for additional resources.

C. A general impression of the patient.

D. Possible hazards to your safety.

 

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

D. Possible hazards to your safety.

Term

13. An explosion has occurred at a local church. You are the first responding medical unit, and you note many patients lying in the street. After establishing incident command, you should next:

A. begin primary triage.

B. begin caring for the closest patient.

C. call for additional resources and begin the scene size-up.

D. return to the ambulance until additional resources arrive.




Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

C. call for additional resources and begin the scene size-up.

Term

14. Which of the following would be the appropriate place to park an ambulance if you were responding to a hazardous materials scene that involved gases or fumes?

A. Downhill from the scene

B. Uphill from the scene

C. Downwind from the scene

D. Level with the scene

 

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

D. Level with the scene

Term

15. Which of the following elements would be considered parts of the mechanism of injury?

A. The speed of the vehicle that struck the patient

B. A scene safety hazard such as an unstable vehicle

C. The patient's chief complaint

D. A specific injury such as a fractured femur

 

 

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

A. The speed of the vehicle that struck the patient

Term

16. You are dispatched for a 35-year-old male complaining of chest pain. You arrive on scene at a residential address in a very run-down section of town. You approach the scene carefully, and upon entering, you find that the patient has been shot in the chest. You should:

A. provide treatment of immediate life threats and then leave the scene.

B. provide treatment of immediate life threats only.

C. exit the scene and call for law enforcement.

D. call for law enforcement and then begin care


Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

C. exit the scene and call for law enforcement.

Term

17. Which of the following would be indicated by a patient found sitting in a tripod position?

A. Abdominal pain

B. Respiratory distress

C. A stroke

D. Trouble swallowing

 

 

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

B. Respiratory distress

Term

18. Your patient is an elderly male who has paralysis of his right arm and leg. What is likely the nature of his illness?

A. Stroke

B. Heart attack

C. Renal failure

D. Hypertension

 

 

Ch 11: Pretest 

Definition

A. Stroke

Term

1. Which of the following phases of patient interaction is most likely the phase in which the EMT will discover and deal with life-threatening problems?

A. Secondary assessment

B. Patient history

C. Primary assessment

D. General impression

 

Ch 12: Homework

Definition

C. Primary assessment

Term

2. A 21-year-old male patient has been shot in the chest and is breathing rapidly. Law enforcement has determined that the scene is safe, and you have completed a scene size-up. You should NEXT:

A. ensure that the patient has an open airway.

B. check for a pulse.

C. listen to the patient's lung sounds.

D. make a transport decision.

Ch 12: Homework

Definition

A. ensure that the patient has an open airway.

Term

3. A 40-year-old male has crashed his motorcycle. Your general impression identifies that he is unconscious and that he has spurting blood pouring out of the junction between his leg and his groin. You also hear gurgling respirations. You should first:

A. apply direct pressure to the bleeding wound.

B. assess for a carotid pulse.

C. suction the patient's airway.

D. open the patient's airway using the jaw-thrust maneuver



Ch 12: Homework

Definition

A. apply direct pressure to the bleeding wound.

Term

4. Forming your general impression of the patient can essentially be characterized as:

A. your first intuitive evaluation of the patient.

B. your interpretation of the patient before the scene size-up.

C. your interpretation of the patient after the primary assessment.

D. your interpretation of the patient after the medical interview.                                 Ch 12: Homework

Definition

A. your first intuitive evaluation of the patient.

Term

5. During your assessment of a patient who is suspected of having had a stroke, you have to pinch his nail beds for him to respond. Which of the following would best categorize this patient's mental status?

A. The patient responds to painful stimuli.

B. The patient is alert.

C. The patient responds to verbal stimuli.

D. The patient is unresponsive.

Ch 12: Homework

Definition

A. The patient responds to painful stimuli.

Term

6. A 58-year-old male crashed his vehicle at high speed. He was not wearing his seatbelt and has a deep laceration on his forehead and neck pain. It is not clear whether there was a period of unconsciousness before your arrival on the scene. Which of the following would best define the patient's transport mode, given the previous information?

A. Low priority to the trauma center

B. High priority to the trauma center

C. Low priority to the nearest hospital

D. High priority to the nearest hospital

Ch 12: Homework

Definition

B. High priority to the trauma center

Term

7. A 25-year-old male was shot in the leg. His bleeding has been controlled. When assessing this patient's circulation in the primary assessment, you should also consider:

A. blood pressure.

B. pulse oximetry reading.

C. peripheral pulses.

D. lung sounds.

Ch 12: Homework

Definition

C. peripheral pulses.

Term

8. During the primary assessment, an example of a life threat to circulation that must be managed right away would be:

A. a throbbing headache.

B. external arterial bleeding.

C. nausea and stomach pain.

D. very cold, pale skin.

 

Ch 12: Homework

Definition

B. external arterial bleeding.

Term

9. A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and vomiting blood. She appears weak and pale. Her airway is patent, and her breathing is adequate, although fast. You attempt to find a radial pulse but cannot locate it. This finding most likely indicates:

A. shock.

B. cardiac dysrhythmia.

C. sepsis.

D. hypothermia                             Ch 12: Homework

Definition

A. shock.

Term

10. In which of the following patients would you check a brachial pulse initially?

A. Geriatric

B. Adult

C. Infant

D. Child

 

 

Ch 12: Homework

Definition

C. Infant

Term

1. As you interview a patient with a medical complaint, the reason why the ambulance was called for is often called the:

A. mechanism of injury.

B. chief complaint.

C. physical examination.

D. SAMPLE history.

 

Ch 12: Pretest 

Definition

B. chief complaint.

Term

2. During your primary assessment, you note blood in the patient's mouth and hear gurgling. You should NEXT:

A. suction the airway and clear any secretions.

B. proceed on to the evaluation of the patient's circulation.

C. initiate abdominal thrusts to clear the secretions.

D. proceed on to evaluation of the patient's breathing.

 

 

Ch 12: Pretest 

Definition

A. suction the airway and clear any secretions.

Term

3. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the primary assessment?

A. The primary assessment includes airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) and baseline vitals.

B. Critical conditions that are identified during the primary assessment must be treated immediately as found.

C. The main purpose of the primary assessment is to perform a head-to-toe physical examination to discover injuries.

D. You cannot gain enough information about the patient during the primary assessment to make a transport decision.

Ch 12: Pretest 

Definition

B. Critical conditions that are identified during the primary assessment must be treated immediately as found.

Term

4. How would you assess the mental status of an infant who appears unresponsive?

A. Ask the caregiver whether the infant is alert.

B. Shout as a verbal stimulus, and flick the feet as a painful stimulus.

C. Do a light sternal rub to elicit a painful response.

D. Shake the infant and shout.

 

Ch 12: Pretest 

Definition

B. Shout as a verbal stimulus, and flick the feet as a painful stimulus.

Term

5. A 66-year-old female has been found apneic and pulseless. You should immediately:

A. initiate positive pressure ventilations.

B. begin chest compressions.

C. open the patient's airway.

D. insert an OPA

 

 

Ch 12: Pretest 

Definition

B. begin chest compressions.

Term

6. Which of the following phases of patient assessment would be conducted immediately after the scene size-up?

A. Primary assessment

B. Baseline vitals

C. Transport decision

D. Rapid trauma assessment

 

 

Ch 12: Pretest 

Definition

A. Primary assessment

Term

7. A 56-year-old male has fallen off a 12-foot ladder. After ensuring scene safety and completing the scene size-up, you should NEXT:

A. take manual cervical spine precautions.

B. question bystanders.

C. assess baseline vital signs.

D. asses the patient's airway.

 

Ch 12: Pretest 

Definition

A. take manual cervical spine precautions.

Term

8. A 13-year-old male has crashed an ATV. He was not wearing a helmet and was found unconscious. His airway is patent, but he has crepitus and diminished lung sounds in his right chest. Which of the following destinations would be most appropriate for this patient?

A. A community hospital 5 miles away

B. An urgent care center 3 miles away

C. A level III trauma center 12 miles away

D. A level I trauma center 14 miles away    



Ch 12: Pretest

Definition

D. A level I trauma center 14 miles away 

Term

9. Which of the following would be the BEST method to open the airway on an unresponsive trauma patient?

A. Insert an oropharyngeal airway

B. Place patient in a sniffing position

C. Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver

D. Jaw-thrust maneuver

 

 

Ch 12: Pretest 

Definition

D. Jaw-thrust maneuver

Term

10. Which of the following acronyms may be used in assessing the patient's level of consciousness?

A. DCAP-BTLS

B. SAMPLE

C. AVPU

D. OPQRST

 

 

Ch 12: Pretest 

Definition

C. AVPU

Term

11. A 45-year-old female is found unconscious. She is not breathing but has a pulse. You should NEXT:

A. apply an AED.

B. initiate positive pressure ventilations.

C. administer supplemental oxygen.

D. initiate chest compressions.

 

 

Ch 12: Pretest 

Definition

B. initiate positive pressure ventilations.

Term

12. Which of the following findings would address the breathing section of the primary assessment?

A. Capillary refill time

B. Cyanotic skin

C. Absent radial pulse

D. Pale skin

 

 

Ch 12: Pretest 

Definition

B. Cyanotic skin

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