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cet associate section1-4
associate level cet test
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08/06/2019

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1. If the op-amp in the circuit of Figure 1-1 is working properly, the signal voltage
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18K2KX1V
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at point X should be:
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A. 0 V
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B. 0.7 V
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C. 9 V
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D. 18 V
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FIGURE 1-1
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2. If a unit under test appears to be dead, what is the first area that should be
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suspect?
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A. power supply
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B. output unit
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C. middle functional block
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D. none of the above
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3. What symptom would be observed if the feedback resistor on a non-inverting
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op-amp circuit opens?
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A. no observable symptom
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B. reduced output
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C. output only at positive and negative saturation
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D. an overheated op-amp chip
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4. Using the proper ohmmeter, resistance tests in both directions are performed
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across a silicon diode which has been removed from a circuit. Both tests indicate
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high resistance. What can be concluded?
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A. it is a good component
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B. the diode is shorted
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C. the diode is open
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D. no conclusions until a power test is performed
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5. What output should be seen in the circuit of Figure 1-2?
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A. high
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B. low
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C. pulsing
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D. high impedance
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HiHiOutput
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FIGURE 1-2
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6. What symptom would likely be observed when the emitter bypass capacitor opens
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on a common emitter amp?
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A. no symptom is observable
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B. reduced gain
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C. overheated transistor
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D. overheated emitter resistor
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7. What Vcc power supply voltage should be observed in TTL circuits?
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A. 3
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B. 5 V
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C. 12 V
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D. + / - 15 V
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8. What device is often used to protect systems from very fast, momentary, voltage
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spikes?
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A. zener
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B. SCR
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C. varistor
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D. varactor
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9. What is the DC output of a Class A amplifier designed for maximum DC
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compliance, with no signal applied, and powered by 12 volts?
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A. .7 V
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B. 0 V
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C. 12 V
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D. 6 V
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10. What indication is seen when resistance testing a good fuse?
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A. very low resistance
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B. infinite resistance
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C. low resistance in one direction and high resistance in the other direction
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D. approximately 1000 ohms in both directions
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11. If a diode in a bridge rectifier opens, the observable symptom is:
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A. there is no observable symptom
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B. increased ripple/decreased DC output under load
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C. the remaining bridge diodes fail due to overload
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D. the primary fuse blows
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12. The primary frequency of a fully loaded switching power supply might be about:
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A. 60 Hz
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B. 120 Hz
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C. 1K Hz
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D. 70K Hz
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13. If a diode in a bridge rectifier shorts, the most likely observable symptom is:
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A. there is no observable symptom
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B. increased ripple/decreased DC output under load
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C. the remaining bridge diodes fail due to overload
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D. the primary fuse blows
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14. Which segments on a seven segment display should be lit to display the number
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seven?
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A. a, b, c
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B. c, d, e
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C. d, e, g
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D. e, f, g
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15. If 4 volts is applied to the non-inverting input and 3.5 volts is applied to the
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inverting input of a differential amplifier configured for a gain of 10, the output
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voltage is:
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A. .5 V
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B. 5 V
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C. 7.5 V
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D. 37.50 V
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16. What logic probe indication should be viewed on the data lines of a normally
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operating microprocessor based system?
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A. high
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B. low
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C. pulsing
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D. tristated
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17. What is the frequency of the signal of Figure 1-3 if the time/division is set to 50
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microseconds/division?
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A. 2K Hz
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B. 5K Hz
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C. 20K Hz
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D. 50K Hz
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FIGURE 1-3
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18. Which instrument should always be used with the power disconnected in the
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circuit under test?
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A. voltmeter
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B. ohmmeter
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C. ammeter
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D. frequency counter
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19. An ohmmeter test across the anode-cathode (with the gate unconnected) of an out
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of circuit SCR shows low resistance in both directions. What would you conclude
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about the SCR?
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A. it is defective, probably shorted
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B. it is defective, probably open
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C. it is a good component
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D. no conclusions until a power test is performed
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20. A switching power supply should initially be tested:
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A. unloaded
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B. loaded
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C. at reduced input voltage
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D. at reduced input frequency
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21. Which of the following must a grounding wrist strap have?
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A. a static collector band liner
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B. a Velcro adjustable band
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C. a direct short to ground to drain charge
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D. a large resistance in series with the technician
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22. The indications shown on Figure 1-4 were obtained using a logic probe. What
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conclusion can be drawn from the indications?
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A. the circuit is functioning properly
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B. the circuit is probably functioning properly, but an oscilloscope test is
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needed to confirm this
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C. the circuit is not functioning properly
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D. the circuit is probably not functioning properly, but an oscilloscope test
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PulsingHiPulsing
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is needed to confirm this
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Figure 1-4
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23. What resistance indication should be obtained when testing a functional diode
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with an analog multimeter having sufficient voltage at the terminals?
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A. low resistance in both directions
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B. high resistance in both directions
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C. high resistance in one and low resistance in the other direction
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D. no indication, since an analog meter generally won
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junction
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24. What potential should be placed on the gate of an SCR when performing a simple
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trigger test?
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A. positive
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B. negative
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C. alternating
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D. answer depends on whether an NPN or PNP SCR is used
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25. What logical level would be represented by an output of 1.5 volts in a TTL digital
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circuit?
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A. high
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B. low
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C. tristate
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D. 1.5 volts is not a valid logic high or low
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26. What effect does increasing the base bias, making it more positive, have on the
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reading of meter M1?
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A. the current remains unchanged
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B. the current decreases
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C. the current increases
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D. M1 leads would need to be switched
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27. What should the impedance of meter M2 in the circuit of figure 1-5 be to obtain
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VCC12VM1M2
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the least amount of loading?
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A. low impedance
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B. equal to the impedance of the emitter resistor
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C. equal to the dynamic impedance of the transistor
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D. high impedance
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FIGURE 1-5
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28. How is the voltmeter connected to measure the voltage developed in a
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component?
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A. in series with the component
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B. in parallel with the component
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C. remove the component and replace it with the meter
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D. momentarily open the component and measure its voltage
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29. When using an ohmmeter to test an SCR, the SCR can often be fired by:
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A. momentarily shorting the gate to the cathode
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B. momentarily shorting the gate to the anode
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C. momentarily shorting the base to the cathode
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D. momentarily shorting the base to the emitter
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30. What indication should be seen when viewing a microprocessor
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with a logic probe?
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A. high
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B. low
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C. pulsing high and low
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D. tristate
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31. Which coupling technique would be used to view a 50 mV noise signal riding on
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top of a 12 volt DC level?
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A. grounded
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B. inverted
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C. DC
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D. AC
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32. Which of the following is not indicated by a logic probe?
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A. a voltage in the logic high region
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B. a voltage in the logic low region
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C. a voltage in the undefined region
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D. the magnitude of a voltage in the undefined region
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33. On which of the following instruments would the occasional presence of the
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signal in Figure 1-6 be the easiest to detect?
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A. logic probe
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B. oscilloscope
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500 uS1 uS3.4V
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C. voltmeter
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D. signature analyzer
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FIGURE 1-6
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34. Which oscilloscope control determines the input voltage level required to start the
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sweep?
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A. trigger source
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B. trigger level
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C. volts/div
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D. vertical coupling control
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35. Which of the following instruments would be most suitable for analyzing a
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continuous 10M Hz signal?
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A. voltmeter
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B. oscilloscope
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C. logic probe
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D. logic analyzer
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36. Which of the following voltmeter input impedances provides for the least amount
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of circuit loading?
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A.1,000 ohms
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B.10,000 ohms
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C.1,000,000 ohms
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D. impedance doesn
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37. You are using an oscilloscope with an X10 probe. Because of the probe you
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must:
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A. divide the frequency reading by 10
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B. multiply the frequency reading by 10
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C. divide the voltage reading by 10
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D. multiply the voltage reading by 10
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38. Observation of two low frequency signals, about 60 Hz, on a dual trace scope
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generally requires the use of the:
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A. triggered mode
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B. expanded mode
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C. alternate mode
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D. chopped mode
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39. The combined input impedance of an oscilloscope and a 10X probe is generally:
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A. very low
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B. very high
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C. adjustable with the triggering source control
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D. adjustable with the triggering level control
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40. The compensation adjustment of an oscilloscope probe is usually performed when
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displaying a:
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A. random noise signal
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B. white noise signal
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C. sine wave
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D. square wave
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41. Which of the following voltage levels represents a valid high in most TTL
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circuits?
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A. 0.4 V
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B. 0.8 V
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C. 1.5 V
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D. 2.4 V
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42. Which of the following SCR firing techniques produces the lowest RFI noise?
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A. phase firing
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B. zero crossing firing
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C. arc-over firing
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D. diac firing
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43. What function does the optocoupler serve in a solid state relay?
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A. isolation
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B. power switch
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C. fuse
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D. optocouplers aren
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44. Which kind of memory retains its contents only as long as power is applied?
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A. EPROM
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B. EEPROM
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C. ROM
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D. RAM
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45. What is the output of the logic circuit of Figure 1-7?
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A. high
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B. low
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C. pulsing
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D. tristate
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HiLoLoLo
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FIGURE 1-7
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46. What is the gain of the amplifier in Figure 1-8?
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A. 1
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10K1K
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B. 10
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C. 11
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D. 100
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FIGURE 1-8
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47. What is the approximate output of the comparator of Figure 1-9?
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A. 0 V
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B. 2.0 V
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+9V2.4V2V
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C. 2.4 V
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D. 9 V
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FIGURE 1-9
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48. If the J input of a JK flip-flop is high and the K input is low, what is the level on
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the Q output after the next clock pulse?
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A. high
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B. low
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C. tristate
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D. the opposite of its pre-clock state
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49. If 100 mV is applied to the op-amp circuit of Figure 1-10, what output voltage is
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produced?
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10K1K
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A. 1 mV
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B. 10 mV
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C. 100 mV
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D. 1 V
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FIGURE 1-10
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50. If the voltage applied to the inverting input of a comparator is less positive than
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that applied to the non-inverting input, what is the approximate output voltage?
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A. -Vs (the negative supply voltage)
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B. +Vs (the positive supply voltage)
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C. 0 Volts
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D. the voltage level applied to the inverting input
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51. What is the relative size of the gate current required to fire an SCR and the anode
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load current when it is conducting?
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A. a small gate current and a large anode current
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B. a small gate current and a small anode current
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C. a large gate current and a small anode current
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D. a large gate current and a large anode current
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52. What polarity voltage (with respect to the cathode) is applied to the gate of an
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SCR to fire it?
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A. positive
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B. negative
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C. ground
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D. 0 V
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53. If 18 volts is applied to the circuit of Figure 1-11, how much voltage would be
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normally measured across RI?
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A. 0 V
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B. 6 V
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R1R212VZener+18V
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C. 12 V
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D. 18 V
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FIGURE 1-11
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54. Which lead of a TRIAC generally controls the triggering of the device?
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A. main terminal 1
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B. main terminal 2
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C. base
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D. gate
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55. How much voltage should be dropped across the emitter-base junction of a silicon
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NPN transistor connected in a common emitter circuit if the amp is biased for
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class A operation?
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A. 0.9 V
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B. 0.7 V
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C. 0.3 V
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D. 0.1 V
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56. If 0.5 volts peak-to-peak is applied to the input of the amplifier shown in Figure
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10K2.2K10K2.2K10VInOut
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1-12, what is the approximate output voltage?
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A. 2.227 Vpp
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B. 4.55 Vpp
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C. 10.0 Vpp
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D. Cannot be determined without transistor data
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FIGURE 1-12
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57. During normal operation, how is the base-emitter junction of a Class A amplifier
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biased?
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A. forward
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B. reverse
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C. grounded
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D. open
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58. About how much voltage would be dropped across a reverse biased silicon diode?
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A. 0 V
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B. 0.3 V
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C. 0.7 V
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D. the source voltage
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59. Generally, how much opposition to current flow is offered by a conducting ,
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forward biased PN junction silicon diode?
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A. infinite
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B. relatively large opposition
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C. relatively little opposition
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D. no opposition
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60. About how much voltage would be dropped across a forward biased silicon
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diode?
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A. 0 V
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B. 0.3 V
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C. 0.7 V
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D. the source voltage
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61. What is the resonant frequency of the circuit of Figure 1-13?
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A. 70.7 Hz
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B. 707 Hz
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C. 707K Hz
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D. 800K Hz
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R=25XL=100XC=50Vs=6V
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FIGURE 1-13
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62. What is the impedance of the circuit of Figure 1-13?
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A. 50 ohms
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B. 75 ohms
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C. 56 ohms
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D. 25 ohms
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63. As the frequency of the AC signal applied to a capacitor is increased, how does its
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reactance change?
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A. it stays the same
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B. it decreases
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C. it increases
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D. reactance does not apply to capacitance
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64. What is the approximate inductive of a 10 mH inductor in a 3.58 MHz circuit?
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A. 10K ohms
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B. 35.8K ohms
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C. 100K ohms
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D. 225K ohms
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65. What is the effective (RMS) voltage of 1.0 volt peak-to-peak signal?
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A. 2.0 V
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B. 1.0 V
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C. 0.707 V
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D. 0.3535 V
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66. How much voltage is dropped across a 10K ohms resistor that is in series with a
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20K ohms resistor, when 10 volts is applied to the series circuit?
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A. 6.6 V
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B. 5 V
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C. 3.3 V
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D. 2 V
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67. How much current is flowing through R3 of Figure 1-14?
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A. 0.00025 A
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B. 0.0005 A
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C. 0.0010 A
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R210KR120KR310KV=10V
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D. 0.0050 A
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FIGURE 1-14
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68. What is the voltage across R2 in the circuit of Figure 1-15?
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A. 3.33 V
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B. 5 V
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C. 6.66 V
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R210KR110KR310KR410KV=10V
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D. 10 V
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FIGURE 1-15
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69. What is the current through R1 in the circuit of Figure 1-15?
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A. 0.5 mA
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B. 0.75 mA
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C. 1.0 mA
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D. 1.5 mA
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70. How does the current flowing through a resistor change if the voltage applied to it
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is doubled?
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A. it halves
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B. it doubles
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C. it remains the same
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D. the kind of circuit, series or parallel, must be known
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71. Which of the following represents an acceptable 2.2K ohms 10% tolerance
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resistor?
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A. 1850 ohms
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B. 1900 ohms
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C. 2400 ohms
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D. 2450 ohms
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72. What is the decimal equivalent of binary 110101?
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A. 4
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B. 31
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C. 47
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D. 53
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73. What is the peak voltage of a 2 volt effective (RMS) signal?
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A. 2 V
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B. 2.8 V
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C. 4 V
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D. 5.6 V
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74. Which of the following is equivalent to .2 milliamps?
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A. .02 A
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B. .002 A
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C. .0002 A
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D. .00002 A
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75. What is the frequency of a signal which has a cycle time of 100 microseconds?
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A. 10 kHz
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B. 100 kHz
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C. 1000 kHz
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D. 10 MHz
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