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06/27/2012

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Term

5 Level test 1 Questions 

 

01(Vol 1) 1. (001) The duties and responsibilities of each Air Force career field or specialty are described in AFMAN 36-

 

a. 2101. 

b. 2110. 

c. 2201. 

d. 2903.

 

Definition

5 Level test 1 Answers

 

01(Vol 1) 1. (001)

 

a. 2101.

 

 

Term

02(Vol 1) 4. (002) What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected Materiel Management noncommissioned officers (NCO)?

 

a. Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) and General Services Administration (GSA).

b. GSA and Materiel Management System.

c. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC.

d. Materiel Management System and DLA.

Definition

02(Vol 1) 4. (002) 

 

c. Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC.

Term

03(Vol 1) 7. (004) Local manufacture is a term that describes an item 

 

a. designed by a local commodity center.

b. sourced from another branch of service.

c. fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.

d. purchased by an organization using the government purchase card (GPC).

Definition

03(Vol 1) 7. (004)

 

c. fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.

Term

04(Vol 1) 10. (005) Which class of supply consists of ammunition?

 

a. III.

b. V.

c. VII.

d. IX.

Definition

04(Vol 1) 10. (005)

 

b. V.

Term

05(Vol 1) 13. (007) Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in the Materiel Management System?

 

a. Administration.

b. Item accounting.

c. File maintenance.

d. Accounting and finance.

b. Item accounting.

c. File maintenance.

d. Accounting and finance.

Definition

05(Vol 1) 13. (007)

 

a. Administration.

Term

06(Vol 1) 16. (008) How often is AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, published?

 

a. Monthly.

b. Quarterly.

c. Semiannually.

d. Annually.

Definition

06(Vol 1) 16. (008)

 

b. Quarterly.

 

Term

07(Vol 1) 19. (008) How would the document file name for volume 2, part 2, chapter 3 be identified in a search of AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual?

 

a. 0223.

b. 02023.

c. 020203.

d. 0202030.

Definition

07(Vol 1) 19. (008)

 

c. 020203.

Term

08(Vol 1) 22. (010) How many major types of inquiries are there in the Materiel Management System?

 

a. Four.

b. Three.

c. Two.

d. One.

Definition

08(Vol 1) 22. (010)

 

a. Four.

Term

09(Vol 1) 25. (010) What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the Materiel Management System to provide a summary of information about a given stock number?

 

a. C.

b. D.

c. F.

d. R.

 

Definition

09(Vol 1) 25. (010)

 

d. R.

Term

10(Vol 1) 28. (012) Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction?

 

a. Reject.

b. Inquiry.

c. Management notice.

d. Management support.

Definition

10(Vol 1) 28. (012)

 

a. Reject.

Term

11(Vol 1) 31. (012) Which product of the Materiel Management System is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner?

 

a. D818.

b. D097.

c. D043.

d. D019.

Definition

11(Vol 1) 31. (012)

 

a. D818.

Term

12(Vol 1) 34. (013) User identification and controlled transaction identification codes are loaded to designated terminal functions by the

 

a. data processing center.

b. terminal security manager.

c. computer operations supervisor.

d. management and systems officer.

Definition

12(Vol 1) 34. (013)

 

b. terminal security manager.

Term

13(Vol 1) 37. (015) The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into how many divisions?

 

a. Four.

b. Five.

c. Six.

d. Seven.

Definition

13(Vol 1) 37. (015)

 

c. Six.

 

Term

14(Vol 1) 40. (016) How frequently should you schedule surveillance visit?

 

a. As required.

b. Quarterly.

c. Semiannually.

d. Annually.

Definition

14(Vol 1) 40. (016)

 

d. Annually.

 

Term

15(Vol 1) 43. (017) Who is responsible for submitting and monitoring difficulty reports?

 

a. Procedures element.

b. Data processing center.

c. Administration element.

d. Computer operations element.

Definition

15(Vol 1) 43. (017)

 

a. Procedures element.

Term

16(Vol 1) 46. (018) What analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem?

 

a. Trend analysis.

b. Special studies.

c. Problem analysis.

d. Document analysis.

Definition

16(Vol 1) 46. (018)

 

b. Special studies.

 

Term

17(Vol 1) 49. (020) What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file?

 

a. Transaction identification codes (TRIC) FIC and FCU.

b. Source documents with file indicator D.

c. TRIC FCU.

d. TRIC FIC.

Definition

17(Vol 1) 49. (020)

 

b. Source documents with file indicator D.

Term

18(Vol 1) 52. (021) What materiel management register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes?

 

a. Daily Transaction (D06).

b. Daily Document Control (D04).

c. Consolidated Transaction (M19).

d. Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) (M10).

Definition

18(Vol 1) 52. (021)

 

c. Consolidated Transaction (M19).

Term

19(Vol 1) 55. (022) All shipments and transfers processed through the Logistics Readiness Squadron produce what type of detail?

 

a. Registered equipment management (REM) vehicles-only or special-spares.

b. Special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM).

c. Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC).

d. Shipment inventory.

Definition

19(Vol 1) 55. (022)

 

c. Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC).

Term

20(Vol 1) 58. (023) What code is assigned if an item record requiring reverse-post action does not contain a freeze code?

 

a. I.

b. Q.

c. S.

d. U.

Definition

20(Vol 1) 58. (023)

 

b. Q.

Term

21(Vol 2) 1. (201) When preparing an issue request, which copy of what form is used by the point of submission as a control register for determining the next available document serial number?

 

a. Copy 2 of AF Form 1221.

b. Copy 1 of DD Form 1348.

c. Copy 2 of AF Form 2005.

d. Copy 1 of AF Form 2005.

Definition

21(Vol 2) 1. (201)

 

c. Copy 2 of AF Form 2005.

Term

22(Vol 2) 4. (202) Which management notice is a result of issue processing and reflects issue, kill, or backorder quantity status?

 

a. I004.

b. I005.

c. I007.

d. I023.

Definition

22(Vol 2) 4. (202)

 

a. I004.

Term

23(Vol 2) 7. (204) Which organization contacts sources of supply directly to obtain status, lateral support, or other assistance?

 

a. EME.

b. EMS.

c. LRS.

d. LSC.

Definition

23(Vol 2) 7. (204)

 

d. LSC.

Term

24(Vol 2) 10. (204) What core automated maintenance system (CAMS) data screen is used to reconcile the maintenance status of a mission capability (MICAP) requirement?

 

a. I023.

b. 1SH.

c. 233.

d. 731.

Definition

24(Vol 2) 10. (204)

 

d. 731.

Term

25(Vol 2) 13. (205) Y-type details are internally established and maintained in the supply computer for how many days after a mission capability (MICAP) termination?

a. 30.

b. 45.

c. 60.

d. 90.

 

Definition

25(Vol 2) 13. (205)

 

d. 90.

Term

26(Vol 2) 17. (207) Which listing is an important tool for monitoring status and maintaining visibility of due in from maintenance (DIFM) assets?

 

a. D19.

b. D20.

c. D23.

d. Q04.

Definition

26(Vol 2) 17. (207)

 

c. D23.

Term

27(Vol 2) 20. (209) What term is used to describe selected XD items that are candidates for two-level repair?

 

a. Shop reparables.

b. Two-level reparables.

c. Equipment reparables.

d. Depot-level reparables.

Definition

27(Vol 2) 20. (209)

 

d. Depot-level reparables.

Term

28(Vol 2) 23. (212) Which input is used for initial stockage and replenishment of a supply point?

 

a. MSI.

 

b. ISU.

c. DFM.

d. AWP.

Definition

28(Vol 2) 23. (212)

 

b. ISU.

Term

29(Vol 2) 26. (213) What program is used to perform the readiness spares package (RSP) reconciliation?

 

a. Q05.

b. S05.

c. R07.

d. S07.

Definition

29(Vol 2) 26. (213)

 

b. S05.

Term

30(Vol 2) 29. (213) Mobility readiness spares package (MRSP) will be inventoried within how many days after return from a deployment?

 

a. 3.

b. 5.

c. 10.

d. 14.

Definition

30(Vol 2) 29. (213)

 

c. 10.

Term

31(Vol 2) 32. (213) Deployments are considered long-term after how many days?

 

a. 90.

b. 120.

c. 180

d. 365.

Definition

31(Vol 2) 32. (213)

 

b. 120.

 

Term

32(Vol 2) 35. (214) Who is responsible to select the method for document distribution and creation?

 

a. Team Chief.

b. ELRS Commander.

c. Accountable Officer.

d. Person creating the document.

Definition

32(Vol 2) 35. (214)

 

a. Team Chief.

Term

33(Vol 2) 38. (215) What code reflected in the operations plan (OPlan) or time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) defines the number of passengers and amount of cargo that must be moved to meet a wartime tasking?

 

a. Transaction identification code (TRIC).

b. Time-phased deployment list (TPFDL).

c. Controlled item code (CIC).

d. Unit type code (UTC).

Definition

33(Vol 2) 38. (215)

 

d. Unit type code (UTC).

 

Term

34(Vol 2) 41. (216) Mobility bags (MOBAGS) can be built ahead of time and stored using what concept?

 

a. Tariff-sizing.

b. Right-sizing.

c. Sample-sizing.

d. Mobility Inventory Control and Accountability System (MICAS)-sizing.

Definition

34(Vol 2) 41. (216)

 

a. Tariff-sizing.

Term

35(Vol 3) 2. (401) The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between

 

a. the Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders.

b. the previous custodian and equipment management element (EME).

c. organization commanders and the previous custodian.

d. the accountable officer and organization commanders.

Definition

35(Vol 3) 2. (401)

 

a. the Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders.

Term

36(Vol 3) 5. (402) Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment items?

 

a. NF1.

b. ND1.

c. XB3.

d. XD2.

Definition

36(Vol 3) 5. (402)

 

a. NF1.

Term

37(Vol 3) 8. (403) Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property?

 

a. Automatic.

b. Post-post.

c. Directed.

d. Prepost.

Definition

37(Vol 3) 8. (403)

 

d. Prepost.

Term

38 11. (403) When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section processes what input to reduce or delete an authorization?

 

a. FCD.

b. FIC.

c. FCI.

d. FID.

Definition

38 11. (403)

 

c. FCI.

Term

39(Vol 3) 14. (405) Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to detect or isolate a fault or problem in online equipment?

 

a. Training spares.

b. Test station spares.

c. Shop standard spares.

d. Fault isolation spares.

Definition

39(Vol 3) 14. (405)

 

d. Fault isolation spares.

Term

40(Vol 3) 17. (406) When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, what report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base?

 

a. DSM.

b. MMC.

c. SRC.

d. XHA.

Definition

40(Vol 3) 17. (406)

 

a. DSM.

Term

41(Vol 3) 21. (408) When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used?

 

a. D.

b. C.

c. B.

d. A.

Definition

41(Vol 3) 21. (408)

 

d. A.

 

Term

42(Vol 3) 26. (409) Readiness-based level details are identified by

 

a. type detail L, activity code A.

b. type detail L, activity code B.

c. type detail C, activity code A.

d. type detail C, activity code B.

Definition

42(Vol 3) 26. (409)

 

a. type detail L, activity code A.

Term

43(Vol 3) 29. (410) What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers?

 

a. B7*.

b. BLO.

c. FTR.

d. RDO.

Definition

43(Vol 3) 29. (410)

 

a. B7*.

Term

44(Vol 3) 32. (410) Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen—do not ship?

 

a. A.

b. 1.

c. 2.

d. 3.

Definition

44(Vol 3) 32. (410)

 

b. 1.

 

Term

45(Vol 3) 35. (411) What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply?

 

a. Force activity designator (FAD), delivery priority.

b. FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND).

c. Urgency justification code (UJC), FAD.

d. UND, delivery priority.

Definition

45(Vol 3) 35. (411)

 

b. FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND).

Term

46(Vol 3) 38. (413) Military Management System programs create cancellation requests to control

 

a. stock replenishment.

b. excess stockage.

c. substitutions.

d. back orders.

Definition

46(Vol 3) 38. (413)

 

b. excess stockage.

Term

47(Vol 3) 41. (414) To identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria, the military standard transportation and movement procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (GV597) is run at least

 

a. once a month.

b. twice a month.

c. quarterly.

d. semiannually.

Definition

47(Vol 3) 41. (414)

 

b. twice a month.

Term

48(Vol 3) 44. (415) Which two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation?

 

a. D18 and R01.

b. Q12 and R01.

c. Q12 and M37.

d. M37 and D18.

Definition

48(Vol 3) 44. (415)

 

a. D18 and R01.

Term

49(Vol 3) 47. (415) When a due-out cancellation was processed in the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS), what review code is used on the due-out-cancellation input?

 

a. C.

b. D.

c. I.

d. M.

Definition

49(Vol 3) 47. (415)

 

d. M.

Term

50(Vol 3) 50. (416) What CD-ROM based research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers?

 

a. Core automated maintenance system (CAMS).

b. MICAP asset sourcing system (MASS).

c. Federal logistics (FEDLOG).

d. D043A.

Definition

50(Vol 3) 50. (416)

 

c. Federal logistics (FEDLOG).

Term

51(Vol 3) 53. (417) Which code in an illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibility, support methods, and disposition instructions?

 

a. Next higher assembly (NHA).

b. Illustrated parts breakdown (IPB).

c. Numeric parts preference code (NPPC).

d. Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR).

Definition

51(Vol 3) 53. (417)

 

d. Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR).

Term

52(Vol 3) 56. (418) What non-catalogue number position indicates which Air Logistics Center (ALC) assigned the number?

 

a. Position 6.

b. Position 7.

c. Position 8.

d. Position 9.

Definition

52(Vol 3) 56. (418)

 

b. Position 7.

 

Term

53(Vol 3) 59. (419) For internal records what transaction identification code (TRIC) changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack (except for local purchase [LP] items) fields?

 

a. FCU.

b. FIC.

c. FID.

d. FNL.

Definition

53(Vol 3) 59. (419)

 

a. FCU.

Term

54(Vol 3) 62. (420) Which interchangeable and substitution group (ISG) relationship code identifies an item that can only be used in place of another for a particular use or under certain conditions?

 

a. T.

b. S.

c. M.

d. I.

Definition

54(Vol 3) 62. (420)

 

b. S.

Term

55(Vol 4) 3. (602) What type of receipt must be processed before all others?

 

a. Routine.

b. Priority.

c. Equipment.

d. MICAP.

Definition

55(Vol 4) 3. (602)

 

d. MICAP.

Term

56(Vol 4) 6. (603) The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the

 

a. supplier.

b. warehouse.

c. materiel management inspector.

d. cargo movement representative.

Definition

56(Vol 4) 6. (603)

 

c. materiel management inspector.

Term

57(Vol 4) 9. (605) Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies?

 

a. Quantity.

b. Documentation.

c. Misidentified items.

d. Serviceable/undamaged items.

Definition

57(Vol 4) 9. (605)

 

d. Serviceable/undamaged items.

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