Term
| What 5 things are medications used for? |
|
Definition
-Treat -Cure -Diagnose -Prevent disease -provide relief |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A reference book or pamphlet that lists medications available at a specific health care facility. |
|
|
Term
| What term is used to describe a new drug before the drug becomes official? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why were drug standards developed? |
|
Definition
| To ensure uniform product quality. |
|
|
Term
| Who is involved in selecting, obtaining, and storing different medications, as well as accounting for the safe dispensation of medications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two essential patient history considerations must be obtained and documented before administering a medication? |
|
Definition
-Pt's current medications -Pt's allergies |
|
|
Term
| What are the "Five Rights" of medication administration? |
|
Definition
1.Right patient 2.right medication 3.right dose 4.right route 5.right time |
|
|
Term
| What's the first step in preparing a medication? |
|
Definition
| Verify the medication order |
|
|
Term
| What would you do if a pt refuses to take a medication? |
|
Definition
| Don't attempt to force it if the pt refuses |
|
|
Term
| What form do you use to report a medication error? |
|
Definition
| AF Form 765, Medical Treatment Facility Incident Statement. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 types of medication orders? |
|
Definition
1. Stat order 2. single order 3. standing order 4. PRN order |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 essential parts of a drug order? |
|
Definition
1. pt's name 2. date order was written 3. drug name 4. drug dosage 5. method of administering the drug 6. signature of provider |
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for documenting the administration of a medication? |
|
Definition
| The individual who administers the medication |
|
|
Term
| Why does the site of administration need to be documented whan an injection is given? |
|
Definition
| To avoid duplicate injections at the same site. |
|
|
Term
| In order to avoid errors, what do many facilities use to copy a medication order? |
|
Definition
| A computer-generated product that lists all of the medication orders that apply to a particular pt. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 main Federal laws that apply to the administration of drugs? |
|
Definition
-Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act - Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act |
|
|
Term
| When do double-locked drugs need to be accounted for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The drugs in which schedule aren't acceptable for medical use and have a high potential for abuse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Aspirin with codeine fall under what schedule of drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Special inventory procedures are required for what schedule of drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of a palliative drug action? |
|
Definition
| Relieves symptoms of a disease but doesn't affect the disease itself. |
|
|
Term
| What category of therapeutic drug effect has the purpose of replacing body fluids or substances? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you call the process in which a medication is transported from the site of entry to the circulatory system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When an overdose of a drug occurs, what normally results? |
|
Definition
| The body's inability to metabolize and excrete the drug in a timely manner. |
|
|
Term
| Name the two types of drug dependence. |
|
Definition
| Physical and psychological |
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of most drug therapy? |
|
Definition
| To maintain a constant level of a drug in the body in order to permit the therapeutic action to be achieved. |
|
|
Term
| What factors influence the action that drugs have on the body? |
|
Definition
-age -weight -sex -genetic factors -psychological factors -Illness and disease -Time of administration -external environment |
|
|
Term
| Why are infants highly affected by drugs? |
|
Definition
| Due to immature liver and kidney function that results in slower excretion of a drug. |
|
|
Term
| When pt's don't believe a certain medication will help them, what factors are influencing them? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do oral medications taken before meals usually act faster in the body? |
|
Definition
| They act faster due to a low digestive system content. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Physician's Desk Reference: It's a reference source containing the latest drug product info prepared by manufacturers. |
|
|
Term
| What reference source is a collection of drug monographs kept current by periodic supplements prepared by pharmacists? |
|
Definition
| American Hospital Formulary Service |
|
|
Term
| What reference is a combination of two official publications? |
|
Definition
| US Pharmacopoeia- National Formulary |
|
|
Term
| Who ensures the local formulary is updated as needed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When administering medication, what dangerous practice should you avoid? |
|
Definition
| Relying on your memory for drug info. |
|
|
Term
What determines which category a drug is placed on? |
|
Definition
| The specific action of a drug |
|
|
Term
| What type of preparation is described as one or more drugs dissolved in water? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gelatinous container to hold a drug in powder, liquid or oil form. |
|
|
Term
| What type of medication is used to induce sleep or dull the senses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's an antiemetic used for? |
|
Definition
| Prevention or relief of nausea. |
|
|
Term
| A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Each medication can be referred to by several names. Which of these drug names is used primarily by chemists? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration? |
|
Definition
| Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician. |
|
|
Term
| The two essential patient history facts that must be obtained and documented before a medication is administered are |
|
Definition
| allergies and current medications |
|
|
Term
| Patients have legal and ethical rights. Which statement is not considered one of those "rights" when medications are administered? |
|
Definition
| Choose the method of administration |
|
|
Term
| What are the five rights? |
|
Definition
Rt time Rt dose Rt medication Rt route Rt patient |
|
|
Term
| What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A provider can initiate a drug order in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do many medical treatment facilities used to avoid errors when a drug order is copied? |
|
Definition
| Computer-generated product |
|
|
Term
| Drug administration is controlled primarily by |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What classification of drugs are not acceptable for medical use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances? |
|
Definition
| Controlled Substances Act |
|
|
Term
| Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a patient has an unusually low response to a drug, the condition is called |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A Pt's weight is a factor in drug action due to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting? |
|
Definition
| Lower digestive system content |
|
|
Term
| Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action? |
|
Definition
| Warmer temperatures increase circulation |
|
|
Term
| Which of these is a common reference source of drugs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What publication contains a list of locally available medications, recommended despensing instructions, and administrative guidelines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medication preparation called a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally describes a type of medication preparation called a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregular heart action? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the five general routes of medication administration? |
|
Definition
-Parenteral -Oral -Buccal -Sublingual -Topical |
|
|
Term
| What's the first step to take when preparing a medication for administration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should be done if a medication is to be administered on a date other than when it was ordered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 types of parenteral injection methods? |
|
Definition
-Subcutaneous -Intradermal -Intramuscular -Intravenous |
|
|
Term
| What type of parenteral injection technique is administered to the skin's dermis layer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of IV drug administration methods? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What 4 factors may cause reduced muscle mass at at potential injection site? |
|
Definition
1. Age 2. Inactivity 3. Malnutrition 4. diesease processes |
|
|
Term
| What occurs within the barrel when the plunger of a syringe is pulled back? |
|
Definition
| A vacuum is created and fluid is pulled into the barrel. |
|
|
Term
| Why are the quadriceps femoris sites preferred for pedicatric patients? |
|
Definition
| They are free from nerves or blood vessels |
|
|
Term
| What are the three disadvantages of the oral method of administering medication? |
|
Definition
- Unpleasant taste -Potential for gastric irritation -Slower rate of absorption |
|
|
Term
| Ideally, in what position should you place a patient in order to administer an oral medication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is there a minimal loss of potency when a sublingual medication is administered? |
|
Definition
| The medication bypasses the liver |
|
|
Term
| In what 3 general areas of the body are topical medications administered? |
|
Definition
-Sking surface -Body cavities -body orifices |
|
|
Term
| Why should you wear gloves when applying a dermatologic medication? |
|
Definition
| For infection control and to avoid having the medications affect you in some way. |
|
|
Term
| How often do you assess a patient's vital signs when administering an inhalation? |
|
Definition
| Before, during, and after therapy |
|
|
Term
| In what part of the eye do you administer ophthalmic medications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you administer eardrops in a patient less than 3 years of age? In an adult? |
|
Definition
-Gently pull the earlobe down to straighten canal -Pull auricle up and back to straighten canal. |
|
|
Term
| What is the first step to perform when a medication is being prepared for administration to a patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is required on a medication order? |
|
Definition
Patient's Name Specified Time Provider's Signature |
|
|
Term
| Why is the route of administration a required part of a medication order? |
|
Definition
| Some medications are available in more than one form. |
|
|
Term
| Which one of these statements is true regarding subcutaneous injection? |
|
Definition
| Only small amounts of a drug may be administered |
|
|
Term
| The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The parts of a syringe are the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The parts of a needle are the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Subcutaneous injections are commonly administered in the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What administration method delivers medication directly into a pt's degestive system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You are administering a tablet or lozenge buccally to a pt. To do this properly, you would place the medication |
|
Definition
| Between the upper molars and the cheek of the pt. |
|
|
Term
| the proper procedure for administering inhalataions into the respiratory tract of a pt is to |
|
Definition
| assess pt's vital signs before, during, and after therapy. |
|
|
Term
When administering eye medications, you should ensure the pt's treated eye is lower that the other. This will aid in |
|
Definition
| Preventing the solution from running into the pt's unaffected eye. |
|
|
Term
| Into what body cavity are otic medications administered? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To administer ear drops in a pt under 3 years of age, you would gently pull the earlobe |
|
Definition
| Downward to straighten the canal |
|
|
Term
| Vaginal suppositories are |
|
Definition
| administered to combat infection |
|
|
Term
| You are administering a vaginal douche to a female pt. To do this properly, you would hang the bag... |
|
Definition
| 12 to 18 inches above the pt's vagina |
|
|
Term
| What are the 9 S/S of fluid volume deficit? |
|
Definition
-Poor skin tugor -Concentrated urine -High specific gravity -Oliguria -dry mucous membranes -weak and rapid pulse -orthostatic hypotension -low central venous pressure -Confusion and Restlessness |
|
|
Term
| What term is used to define a fluid volume deficit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the 4 disease processes mentioned in the text that can cause a fluid volume excess? |
|
Definition
1. Congestive heart failure 2. Renal Failure 3. Cirrhosis 4. Cushing's Syndrome |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A chemical substance capable of carrying an electrical charge when it's in water. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 8 S/S associated w/ a sodium deficit? |
|
Definition
1. Confusion 2. Weakness 3. Restlessness 4. Hyperthermia 5. tachycardia 6. muscle twitching 7. abdominal cramping 8. convulsions & coma |
|
|
Term
| What are the S/S associated with a sodium excess? |
|
Definition
-Thirst -Dry, sticky membranes -oliguria -hyperthermia -dry tongue -lethargy |
|
|
Term
| What electrolyte deficit and excess can cause dysrhythmias leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which electrolyte in excess amounts can cause fractures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the symbol "pH" refer to? |
|
Definition
| The percentage of hydrogen ions (atoms) present in a solution. |
|
|
Term
| What do you call a solution that has a high "pH"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the normal plasma pH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you call imbalance in the metabolism of food or fluids that's usually associated insulin deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excessive gastric suctioning that removes too much hydrochloric acid can result in what type of acid- base imbalance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An increase in carbonic acid in the body fluids associated with difficulty breathing can result in what type of acid-base balance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of acid-base imbalance is associated w/ a patient hyperventilating? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What basic equipment do you need to initiate an IV? |
|
Definition
-Solution Container -Administration Set -Needle |
|
|
Term
| How high should the IV container be positioned? |
|
Definition
| Above the Pt between 24-36 inches |
|
|
Term
| What are the 8 basic components of an administration set? |
|
Definition
1. Insertion spike 2. drip chamber 3. length of plastic fusing 4.clamp 5. vent port 6.medication port 7.secondary port 8.needle adapter |
|
|
Term
| What prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions when a piggyback setup is used? |
|
Definition
| a back-check valve on the primary tubing |
|
|
Term
| What system is used to mix medications with specified amounts of the intravenous solution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 basic types of intravenous needles? |
|
Definition
1.Wing-tipped needle 2. Over-the-needle catheters 3. Inside-the-needle catheters |
|
|
Term
| What type of needle is commonly used to initiate an IV in the scalp of a pediatric pt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of needle is most commonly used when the possibility of extravasation is possible? |
|
Definition
| Inside-the-needle catheters |
|
|
Term
| When would a volumetric pump be used? |
|
Definition
| For intra-arterial infusions or deep central venous lines (cut-downs) |
|
|
Term
| When are variable pressure volumetric pumps used? |
|
Definition
| To deliver critical volumes and critical medications to selected pt's. |
|
|
Term
| What 3 factors determine the type of intravenous solution to be used? |
|
Definition
-Pt's condition -fluid and electrolyte balance -purpose for the IV |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Refers to the relative concentration of dissolved substances in a solution as compared to the solution concentration within the red blood cells. |
|
|
Term
| What type of pt's should receive parenteral hyperalimentation? |
|
Definition
| Pt's who have some sort of severe gastrointestinal disorder that precludes their obtaining nourishment by other means. |
|
|
Term
| Why are hyperalimentation solutions administered through central veins? |
|
Definition
| They are extremely hypertonic and irritating to the smaller vessels. |
|
|
Term
| What condition should be treated with blood volume expanders? |
|
Definition
| Hemorrhagic shock and other forms of shock characterized by an excessive plasma loss. |
|
|
Term
| Where are medications usually added to the IV container? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What information should be included on the medication label that's placed on the side of the bottle/bag? |
|
Definition
-name and strength of medication -date -time -initials of the person who added the drug |
|
|
Term
| How do you "prime" the administration set? |
|
Definition
| Insert spike to appropriate opening and allow small amounts of solution to flow through the tubing to prevent air bubbles. |
|
|
Term
| What information should be included on the label attached to the administration set? |
|
Definition
-start time -stop time -hourly intervals |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if there are visitors present when you're going to start an IV? |
|
Definition
| Ask them to leave the room until IV is inserted. |
|
|
Term
| What factors should you consider when selecting an IV injection site? |
|
Definition
-type of solution -rate of infusion -condition and age of pt -condition of veins -duration of therapy -type of equipment used |
|
|
Term
| Why is it sometimes difficult to initiate an IV on elderly patients? |
|
Definition
| They frequently have fragile veins that collapse when punctured w/a needle. |
|
|
Term
| Where would you start an IV if it will be in place for a long time? |
|
Definition
| In the most distal vein possible to preserve other sites for future use |
|
|
Term
| What 3 veins are preferred for IV sites in the hand and arm? |
|
Definition
1. Metacarpal 2. Cephalic 3. Basilic Veins |
|
|
Term
| What should you do before you begin actual contact procedures with the patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How tight should you make a tourniquet? |
|
Definition
| Tight enough to obstruct venous flow but not the arterial flow. |
|
|
Term
| Where should you insert the needle in relation to the vein you're trying to penetrate? |
|
Definition
| 1/2 inch below planned entry site into vein. |
|
|
Term
| What percaution should you take when applying tape to a dressing? |
|
Definition
| Don't wrap tape completely around arm. |
|
|
Term
| What factors determine whether you should immobilize an IV? |
|
Definition
-if it's in a precarious position -pt is fairly active -Near a joint |
|
|
Term
| What information should be documented after the IV is initiated? |
|
Definition
-date and time -location of site -Type and size of needle -type of solution -rate of infusion -any special equip or tubing used |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications of a circulatory overload? |
|
Definition
-cyanosis -dyspnea -coughing blood tinged sputum -rapid, shallow resp -edema -distended neck veins -weight gain -decreased urinary output -weak, rapid pulse |
|
|
Term
| What 5 complications are associated w/ the IV therapy itself? |
|
Definition
-Alterations of infused rate -infiltration -phlebitis -infection -embolism |
|
|
Term
| Why shouldn't you attempt to catch up if the infusion is behind schedule? |
|
Definition
| Could cause circulatory overload |
|
|
Term
| What causes infiltrations? |
|
Definition
| When the needle becomes dislodged or penetrates the vein wall, and the IV solution flows into tissues instead of through the vein. |
|
|
Term
| What condition may complicate phlebitis? |
|
Definition
| The formation of a clot along the vein (thrombophlebitis) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Air bubbles or foreign particles in the vein |
|
|
Term
| What's the normal rate for a KVO IV? |
|
Definition
| 10-50 cc/hour, w/ the amount infused less than 500cc |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The intravenous administration of whole blood or blood products. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| In 225cc units as pooled plasma, fresh frozen plasma, and single-donor plasma |
|
|
Term
| What is blood mixed with after it's collected from a donor? |
|
Definition
| An anticoagulant solution |
|
|
Term
| What's the first step in the actual transfusion process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Once a transfusion is initiated, how long should it run slowly? |
|
Definition
| For the first 15-30 minutes |
|
|
Term
| Which event is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotension, and a low central venous pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fatigue, weakness,anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and dysrhythmias are signs and symptoms associated with which electrolyte imbalances? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which imbalance may be caused by starvation and diabetic acidosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most direct approach for administering medication is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The basic purpose of infusion therapy is to |
|
Definition
| administer fluids into the circulatory system |
|
|
Term
| Intravenous (IV) solution bags normally range in size from |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used to prevent the mixing of primary and secondary infusions in a piggyback setup? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A scalp vein needle(commonly used in pediatric pts) is an example of a |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| to avoid infections, you should change a pt's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily. In addition, you should not allow the container to hang longer than |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To reduce the possiblity of infection and vessel damage on a pt scheduled for long-term therapy, you must change the intravenous (IV) site every |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a pt exhibits a mild allergic response to an intravenous (IV) solution, you would |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| an inflammation of a vein |
|
|
Term
| The slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intravenous (IV) solution is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You have removed an IV catheter. You should maintain pressure over the injection site for about |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilites is to document a pt's transfusion on |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of reaction is caused by a transfusion of contaminated blood or blood product? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 3 reasons a catheterization is performed? |
|
Definition
1. Relieve or prevent bladder distention 2. Collect a sterile urine specimen for lab analysis 3.Empty bladder before certain surgical procedures |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 types of catheters you'll deal with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to decompress the bladder slowly? |
|
Definition
| Rapid decompression may allow the bladder to collapse and result in bladder damage causing possible shock, chills, and fever. |
|
|
Term
| What type of technique is used when inserting a catheter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How far into the urethra is the catheter inserted for a female pt? |
|
Definition
| 2 to 3 inches or until urine begins to flow |
|
|
Term
| How far into the urethra is the straight catheter inserted for a male pt? How about an indwelling catheter? |
|
Definition
-6 to 10 inches or until urine begins to flow -to the catheter bifurication |
|
|
Term
| Why do you pinch the catheter tube prior to removing it? |
|
Definition
| To prevent air from entering the bladder |
|
|
Term
| To prevent damaging the urethra, what must you remember to do what when removing an indwelling catheter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of bladder irrigations? |
|
Definition
| To remove or wash out blood, pus, or waste products following urinary surgery. |
|
|
Term
| What are two types of enemas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 3 reasons for the use of cleansing enemas? |
|
Definition
1.Constipation 2.Preparation for surgery 3.Diagnostic procedures |
|
|
Term
| In what position is the pt placed when administering an enema? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When giving a cleansing enema, how many minutes should the solution be retained? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When giving a retention enema, how high should the solution container be held above the rectum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are retention enemas used for? |
|
Definition
-Treat diseases of rectum and lower colon -Soften fecal material -Soothe an irritated colon or rectum. |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 reasons for colostomy irrigations? |
|
Definition
-Establishing fecal control -Keeping pt clean |
|
|
Term
| What's the most common reason for receiving a colostomy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What diet is usually ordered for pts who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than 3 days is the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the pt's NG tube? |
|
Definition
| Check the physician's orders |
|
|
Term
| Which procedure is performed to cleanse the stomach of harmful substances? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the maximum amount of urine to remove during catherization is between |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During catheterization of a male pt, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted? |
|
Definition
| 90 degrees; 6 to 10 inches |
|
|
Term
| When administering an enema, the pt is preferably positioned |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The pt should retain the solution of a cleansing enema for a time period of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pt's colostomy bag should be changed when it is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The purpose of a colostomy irrigation is to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the partial pressure of arterial oxygen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the percentage of hydrogen ions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the arterial oxygen saturation percentage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term means the pt has a low oxygen content in the arterial blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hypoventilation can cause what type of acid-base imbalance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hyperventilation can cause what type of acid-base imbalance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When do you listen to lung sounds when you're providing respiratory care? |
|
Definition
| Before treatment and after treatment |
|
|
Term
| Course, gurgling sounds heard best on expiration.. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| noisy breathing caused by an obstructed airway |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should "no smoking" signs be posted outside rooms where oxygen is in use? |
|
Definition
| Because oxygen supports combustion and makes things more flammable. |
|
|
Term
| What type of blanket must be used in areas where oxygen is in use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What safety precautions should you take if you're using a metal oxygen tank? |
|
Definition
| Ensure its fill date doesn't exceed 5 years. |
|
|
Term
| What's the function of airways? |
|
Definition
| To prevent obstruction of upper airway by the tongue and allow passage of air and oxygen to the lungs. |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if an oropharyngeal airway is used on a conscious or semiconscious patient? |
|
Definition
| Airways may cause vomitting or spasms of the vocal cord |
|
|
Term
| What factors determine the method of oxygen administration the physician will select? |
|
Definition
-Pt's condition -immediate situation -available equipment -whether pt can tolerate the specific type of equipment necessary for its administration |
|
|
Term
| For what type of patient is an oxygen tent used? |
|
Definition
| Very sick, restless, or uncooperative pt |
|
|
Term
| How is the concentration of oxygen monitored within the oxygen tent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of mask is used to administer inspired oxygen concentrations of 60 to 90 percent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of mask is used when the pt needs low concentrations of oxygen, 24 to 40 percent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is a continuous positive airway pressure mask used? |
|
Definition
| For pt's who are breathing spontaneously, but need airway support. |
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of a pocket mask? |
|
Definition
| To reduce the possibility of of transfer of infectious organisms, plus supply supplemental oxygen during rescue breathing. |
|
|
Term
| What concentration of oxygen can be delivered with the bag-valve-mask system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often should you ventilate the pt when you're using the bag-valve-mask system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What triggers the flow restricted oxygen powered ventilation device? |
|
Definition
| Pt inspiration or external controls |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if the humidifier is too full when you're using a nasal cannula? |
|
Definition
| The bubbling water may overflow into the gauges. |
|
|
Term
How often are oxygen humidifiers changed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should suctioning be limited to 15 seconds? |
|
Definition
| Longer suctioning may induce hypoxia and respiratory problems. |
|
|
Term
| Who is normally responsible for inserting endotracheal tubes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The surgical puncture of the chest wall to remove fluid or air from the pleural space... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A drainage system used to reexpand a collapsed or partially collapsed lung.. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This procedure maintains and cleanses the airway, improves vital capacity, and helps prevent such conditions as atelectasis and postoperative pneumonia.. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Helps to remove excess secretions by gravity.. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| May be done to confirm the diagnosis of fluid in the pleural space, to obtain a culture of orgainisms present, or to relieve respiratory symptoms.. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pt may become dizzy the first few times chest percussions are done in this position; however, in time, the lenth of time of this procedure may be extended to 15 or 20 minutes... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| the pt may be sitting on the side of the bed or lying in a lateral, recumbent position... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a tracheostomy usually performed? |
|
Definition
| For an emergency measure when there's obstruction of the upper air passages. |
|
|
Term
| Why do you suction a tracheostomy prior to changing the dressing? |
|
Definition
| To help maintain a clean area longer |
|
|
Term
| How often should tracheostomy care be performed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define exertional dyspnea |
|
Definition
| Difficulty breathing on exertion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Unusual or irregular heart beats felt by the pt. |
|
|
Term
| What's one cause of cardiogenic syncope? |
|
Definition
| A fall in cardiac output which results in cerebral ischemia. |
|
|
Term
| What's the cause of cyanosis? |
|
Definition
| By a reduced amount of hemoglobin in the blood. |
|
|
Term
| What can cause diminished pulses? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the best anatomical location to hear heart sounds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During auscultation of heart sounds, what does the S1 sound represent? |
|
Definition
| The closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. |
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of taking an apical-radial pulse? |
|
Definition
| To compare the pulse rate at the apex of the heart with that at the radial artery to determine if a pulse deficit exists. |
|
|
Term
| Why do you need two people to take an apical-radial pulse? |
|
Definition
| One listens over the apex of the heart while the other counts the pulse rate of the radial artery. |
|
|
Term
| What's the pupose of defibrillation? |
|
Definition
| To terminate ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if defibrillation is unsuccessful? |
|
Definition
| Continue CPR until the physician determines whether or not he/she wants to try to defibrillate the pt. again. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Electronic monitoring over airways, like a transistor radio |
|
|
Term
| What's the normal arterial mean pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What prevents blood from backing up into the tubing of an arterial line? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of information can a CVP provide to a physician? |
|
Definition
-Venous blood volume -Assessment of rt sided heart failure -determination of heart infarctions |
|
|
Term
| Name 4 possible insertion sites for a CVP line. |
|
Definition
1. Brachial 2. Femoral 3. Subclavian 4. Jugular |
|
|
Term
| Why is the pt taught to perform the "valsalva maneuver" prior to insertion of a CVP line? |
|
Definition
| To decrease chance of air embolism |
|
|
Term
| What's the normal CVP range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the normal range for the PCWP? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| PCWPs greater than 20 mm Hg are associated? |
|
Definition
| Left ventricular failure, pulmonary congestion, and hypervolemia. |
|
|
Term
| The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lung sound (heard upon inspiration or expiration) is a whistling sound caused by narrow airways? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For pt's using a nonrebreather mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which mask is suggested for pts with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For pt's under 12 years of age, you would avoid using a |
|
Definition
| flow restricted oxygen powered ventilation device |
|
|
Term
| To prevent hypoxia, suctioning should be limited to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Closed-chest drainage is a drainage system used to |
|
Definition
reexpand a collapsed lung |
|
|
Term
| A pt describes a jumping, pounding, or stopping of the heart within his/her chest. This condition is called heart |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To initiate defibrillation procedures due to ventricular fibrillation, you would first set defibrillator at |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prior to insertion of a central venous pressure line to decrease the change of an air embolism, the pt is taught the |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 common causes of immobility? |
|
Definition
1. pain 2. neurological damage 3. structural defects 4. weakness 5. psychological problems 6. rehabilitation measures |
|
|
Term
| What type of special nursing challenge do pts in pain present? |
|
Definition
| They must be convinced the activity is going to help, and be motivated to do the activity. |
|
|
Term
| Why should you schedule activities for a pt at a time when the pt is feeling energetic? |
|
Definition
Fatigue lowers pain tolerance |
|
|
Term
| Usually, what type of pt is not able to communicate effectively? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two causes of weakness? |
|
Definition
1. Inactivity 2. Associated w/ some degenerative disease such as cancer |
|
|
Term
| What's the purpose of bed rest? |
|
Definition
| To allow injured tissues to heal |
|
|
Term
| How do pt's who are on bed rest differ from other immobilized pt's? |
|
Definition
| Many of them don't want to be on bedrest and won't accept limitations set by the doctor. |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 resons immobilized pts might be frightened? |
|
Definition
1. The hospital environment is strange 2. They don't know what's going to happen 3. Unable to protect or even help themselves |
|
|
Term
| What psychological condition is exhibited when a pt spends a great deal of time worrying about meals and bowel movements? |
|
Definition
| Regression and child-like behavior |
|
|
Term
| What's the primary cause of decubitus ulcers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the effects of a grade III ulcer? |
|
Definition
| Damage has penetrated down to the muscle causing distortion and loss of body fluids |
|
|
Term
| What treatments can be used for decubitus ulcers? |
|
Definition
| Topical agents, surgery, heat lamps, and various other remedies |
|
|
Term
| What does muscle tone do? |
|
Definition
| Holds body erect when you are standing, sitting, or walking or balancing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Combination of poor posture, lack of support, and stretched muscles |
|
|
Term
| What's the final effect of disuse osteoporosis on bones? |
|
Definition
| The muscles will begin to atrophy, or waste away. |
|
|
Term
| What's the best treatment for musculoskeletal problems related to immobility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect does immobility have on the flow of blood through the body? |
|
Definition
| The flow is slower because there's no muscle activity helping to push the blood through the body. |
|
|
Term
| What causes orthostatic hypotension? |
|
Definition
| Inadequate vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| What affect does immobility have on the respiratory system? |
|
Definition
-Loss of respiratory tone -inadequate exchange of O2 and CO2 -Disruption of the acid-base balance -hypostatic pneumonia -Atelectasis |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 reasons an immobilized pt's metabolic rate might increase instead of decrease? |
|
Definition
1. pt has a fever 2. pt is in pain |
|
|
Term
| What possible consequences of using poor body mechanics were discussed in the text? |
|
Definition
Backaches contractures muscle strains other problems |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The proper relationship of body parts to one another |
|
|
Term
| How does contracting your abdominal and buttocks muscles help protect your back? |
|
Definition
| Help keep your back straight by supporting abdominal organs and reducing pull on lower back. |
|
|
Term
| For proper posture, what's the position for your head? |
|
Definition
| Erect, and in line with your back |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 ways you can impede the circulation to your lower legs when you're sitting? |
|
Definition
Crossing your legs or sitting so the back of the chair is pressing against your popliteal area. |
|
|
Term
| What 3 factors should you consider when you're planning a task? |
|
Definition
1. How you'll do the task 2. What equipment you'll need 3. how much help you'll need |
|
|
Term
| What will happen if you don't accept and work with your own physical limitations? |
|
Definition
| You could injure either yourself or your pt, or both |
|
|
Term
| What's the relationship between your stability and your center of gravity? |
|
Definition
| your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your base of support |
|
|
Term
| Why is it easier to lift a pt with a smooth, steady motion than with a series of jerky motions? |
|
Definition
| When using jerky motions, you tend to lose your momentum and need more energy to start moving again. |
|
|
Term
| Describe how you can use leverage to help move a pt to the side of the bed. |
|
Definition
| Use your body weight to help pull the pt towards you |
|
|
Term
| In what parts of your body are your largest muscles located? |
|
Definition
Shoulders upper arms thighs hips |
|
|
Term
| Why should you use pulling or pushing movements rather than lifting movements? |
|
Definition
| The resistance is less than the force of gravity |
|
|
Term
| At what point do you become involved in moving pts? |
|
Definition
| Whenever the pt can't move himself or herself |
|
|
Term
| What 4 steps should preface any movement procedure? |
|
Definition
1. hand washing 2. greeting the pt 3. checking the pt's ID 4. explaining the procedure |
|
|
Term
| How do you prepare the bed for moving a pt? |
|
Definition
| Raise it to a working level, lock the wheels, lower the head of the bed, and place pillow against the headboard. |
|
|
Term
| How can the pt help w/ the one-person technique? |
|
Definition
| By pulling with the arms and pushing with his or her feet. |
|
|
Term
| What 2 types of pt should be moved with the two-person technique? |
|
Definition
-Pts too heavy for one person to handle safely -Pt's who are incapable of assisting with the move |
|
|
Term
| Where do you place the pt's arms when you're using the two-person technique? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of pt's can't be moved by the shoulder-lift technique? |
|
Definition
| Pts who have back, shoulder, or chest injuries |
|
|
Term
Which two-person technique adds an element of speed to the move? |
|
Definition
| The modified shoulder drag technique |
|
|
Term
| Which two-person technique adds an element of speed to the move? |
|
Definition
The modified shoulder drag technique |
|
|
Term
| Where do the technicians grasp the drawsheet if there are only two people trying to move the pt? |
|
Definition
| At the hip and neck level |
|
|
Term
| At a minimum, how frequently should immobilized pts be turned? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two reasons you should provide privacy when moving a pt? |
|
Definition
1. Most pts don't want other pt's staring at them as they're dragged around the bed 2. Some pts are accidentally exposed during the procedure |
|
|
Term
| What's your last step before leaving a pt you have moved? |
|
Definition
| Make sure the pt is comfortable and his or her body is aligned properly |
|
|
Term
| Why should you bend the pt's legs before turning him or her pt to the side-lying position? |
|
Definition
| To shift the pt's weight and to prevent him or her from rolling back to the original position. |
|
|
Term
| How should you place your feet wehn you're preparing to turn a pt to his or her side? |
|
Definition
| About 12 to 15 inches apart w/one foot slightly behind the other |
|
|
Term
| Why is it best to pull rather than push a pt into a different position? |
|
Definition
| When you push, you lose some control and risk the possiblility of accidentally pushing the pt out of bed |
|
|
Term
| What are the reasons pts are moved to the edge of the bed? |
|
Definition
| For repositioning, to perform various procedures, and in preparation for getting out of bed |
|
|
Term
| What's the best position for the person who is controlling a move? |
|
Definition
| At the head of the pt so he or she can see the pt and what the other technicians are doing. |
|
|
Term
| How do you move a pt to the edge of the bed if you're working alone? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do safety precautions and principles of body mechanics apply more to transfer techniques than they do to simple pt movements? |
|
Definition
| There's more lifting and moving involved as well as a greater chance for injury to the pt and technician. |
|
|
Term
| What types of pts are transported on stretchers? |
|
Definition
| Helpless and near-helpless pts, preoperative and postoperative pts, and others who must remain in a lying position. |
|
|
Term
| Why are bed to stretcher transfers hard on technicians? |
|
Definition
| There's more lifting and reaching involved |
|
|
Term
| How do you prepare a stretcher for a pt? |
|
Definition
| Cover it w/ a clean, dry sheet, tuck it in around the edges to eliminate wrinkles, have another sheet and blanket available to cover the pt after he or she is on the litter, also have a pillow available if allowed, and have in place attachments to support any equipment that's attached to the pt. |
|
|
Term
| Where should the stretcher be positioned if the pt is to be transferred by lifting? |
|
Definition
| At a 90 degree angle to the foot of the bed |
|
|
Term
| What technique is the best for repositioning a pt in the bed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should the technicians position themselves to slide a pt onto a stretcher? |
|
Definition
| On the far side of the litter from the pt. |
|
|
Term
| What's the preferred method for moving a pt from a bed to a stretcher? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do you place a stretcher pt onto an elevator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should the pt's legs not be allowed to hang unsupported from the edge of the bed? |
|
Definition
| The edge of the bed will put pressure on the bgacks of the pt's legs and interfere w/circulation. |
|
|
Term
| What position should you take when you're preparing to turn a pt to the dangling position? |
|
Definition
| Beside the pt w/ one arm behind the pt's shoulders and the other arm beneath the pt's legs. |
|
|
Term
What 2 procedures are preliminary steps for both transferring a pt to a chair and ambulating a pt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What criteria should you use when selecting a transfer technique? |
|
Definition
| The technique you're most comfortable with, allows you to control the pt's movements and still permits you to use good body mechanics. |
|
|
Term
| Why should you allow the pt to stand for a few moments before being transferred to a bedside chair? |
|
Definition
| The pt may be a little unsteady when first standing up |
|
|
Term
| What additional advantage do you obtain by bracing your feet against teh pt's feet when helping the pt to a standing position? |
|
Definition
| Prevents the pt's feet from sliding out from under him or her |
|
|
Term
| What type of shoes should a pt wear when being transferred to a chair? |
|
Definition
| Well-fitting, hard-soled shoes |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 precautions you should take before moving a pt to a wheelchair? |
|
Definition
| Be sure the wheels are locked and the footrests are out of the way |
|
|
Term
| How should you position yourself if you're moving a near-helpless pt by yourself? |
|
Definition
| Behind the pt w/ my arms under the pt's arms and my hands, grasping the pt's forearms. |
|
|
Term
| Why are both the one-person and two-person techniques unsatisfactory for moving near-helpless pt from a bed to a chair? |
|
Definition
| Because it puts too much strain on the first technician's back. |
|
|
Term
| When should you back up w/a pt in a wheelchair? |
|
Definition
| When going through a doorway or entering an elevator |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 purposes of mechanical aids? |
|
Definition
| To provide a smooth transfer and to reduce the possibility of injury to pt and technician. |
|
|
Term
| Why should some of the technicians kneel on the bed when moving a pt w/ a drawsheet? |
|
Definition
| To avoid excessive reaching |
|
|
Term
Why can't pts who have been bedridden for a long period of time just get up and walk? |
|
Definition
| Their muscles have atrophied and weakened, and they're usually unsteady. |
|
|
Term
| what can you do to reduce pt problems w/ ambulation? |
|
Definition
| Help the bedridden pt remain as active as possible and move the pt out of bed in gradual stages. |
|
|
Term
| What can you uses as a substitute if you don't have a commercial transfer belt? |
|
Definition
| A litter strap or even the pt's own belt |
|
|
Term
| What's the preferred position for a technician who is ambulating a pt? |
|
Definition
| Standing beside and a little behind the pt, w/one hand on the pt's waist and the other hand supporting the pt's near arm. |
|
|
Term
| What objects should the pt avoid using for support? |
|
Definition
| Light, unstable objects and objects that are on wheels |
|
|
Term
| What factors determine the type of ambulation aid that will be used for each pt? |
|
Definition
| Pt's physical condition and preferences, and the doctor's recommendations |
|
|
Term
| what type of crutch is most commonly used for short-term pts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the procedure for measuring crutch length on a standing pt? |
|
Definition
| Have the pt stand straight and measure from a point 6 to 8 inches out from the side of the pt's foot to 2 to 3 fingersbreadth below the pt's axillary fold. |
|
|
Term
What basic rule should a crutch pt follow when going up stairs? |
|
Definition
Body first, then crutches |
|
|
Term
| How do platform crutches differ from Canadian crutches? |
|
Definition
| Pts' using Canadian crutches support themselves on their hands. In contrast, platform crutches are designed to support the pt's weight on the forearms and require very little hand strength. |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if a pt begins to experience pain or fatigue during exercise? |
|
Definition
| Stop the exercise and notify the doctor or nurse |
|
|
Term
| What types of pts should receive passive exercises? |
|
Definition
| Pts who are unable or not allowed to do active exercises |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Movement toward the center of the body |
|
|
Term
| How do ROM exercises help prevent joint function? |
|
Definition
| They prevent shortening of the muscles, tendons, ligaments, and joint capsules that lead to joint fixation |
|
|
Term
| What information will help you decide the type of exercise a pt will need? |
|
Definition
Doctor's orders and the pt's diagnosis and capabilities |
|
|
Term
| How should you support a body part when you're doing passive exercises? |
|
Definition
| Cradle or cup the body part and support it above and below the involved joint |
|
|
Term
| What are the three different types of active exercises? |
|
Definition
1. Active ROM exercises 2. isometric exercises 3. bed exercises |
|
|
Term
| Why should you instruct pts not to hold their breath as they do isometric exercises? |
|
Definition
| Straining causes irregular heart beats that may cause a heart attack |
|
|
Term
| How do pts benefit from pull-up and push-up exercises? |
|
Definition
| Increased upper body strength |
|
|
Term
| The best time to schedule pt activities is |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| You are planning activities for a pt w/psychological problems, In this situation, your primary goal would be to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you do to help pts who become angry and hostile? |
|
Definition
| Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression |
|
|
Term
| What grade of a decubitus ulcer has penetrated down to the muscle causing distortion and loss of body fluids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, pt positioning should be changed every |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing? |
|
Definition
| Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain. |
|
|
Term
| Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To use the internal girdle of support, you must |
|
Definition
| simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles |
|
|
Term
Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the pt up in bed? |
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Definition
| Size and capabilities of the pt |
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Term
| Which technique for moving the pt up in bed is contraindicated for a pt who has back or chest injuries? |
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Definition
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Term
| When turning a pt, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the pt? |
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Definition
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Term
| When transferring pts, you can reduce the chance of injury to yourself by |
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Definition
| using good teamwork and proper body mechanics |
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Term
| The person in charge of a bed to a stretcher transfer should be positioned |
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Definition
| at the head of the bed on the stretcher side |
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Term
| A pt's feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent |
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Definition
| pressure on the back of the legs |
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Term
| Which devices can be used to slide a pt from a bed to a stretcher? |
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Definition
| Drawsheet and roller board |
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Term
| The crutch most commonly used for fractures and other short-term disabilities is the |
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Definition
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Term
| Which gait is used by pts who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which type of exercise would you provide for a pt who is unable or not allowed to exercise? |
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Definition
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Term
| Isometric exercises are activities that involve muscle |
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Definition
| contraction without body movement |
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