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1. (001) Which statement identifies the various forms of acts Congress uses to control government contracting?
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| Enabling and procedural acts, authorization acts and appropriations acts. |
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2. (001) What agency’s objective is to provide aid and counseling to small businesses?
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| Small Business Administration. |
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3. (001) Which party is the contractor?
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4. (001) What are the two categories of actual authority?
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5. (001) When government personnel make a mistake, the US Supreme Court has stated that rather than adopt a rule that might injure the public, it is better
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| for an individual to occasionally suffer from the mistakes. |
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| 6. (001) Who is responsible for ascertaining whether government agents are acting within the bounds of their authority? |
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| 7. (001) The elements of equitable estoppel include all of the following except the |
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| contractor did not reasonably and innocently rely on the acts of the government. |
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| 8. (001) Cases filed under the doctrine of estoppel are generally decided on the issue of |
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| whether the contractor acted reasonably and innocently. |
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| 9. (001) A CO appointment must be reviewed at least |
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| 10. (001) Which statement concerning the CO’s appointment or termination is true? |
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| In no event will the termination of a CO be retroactive. |
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| 11. (001) Which statement about the offeree is correct? |
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| Only the intended offeree can accept the offer. |
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| 12. (001) Which statement about an offer is correct? |
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| The offer must be so definite that the performance to be rendered by each party is reasonably certain. |
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| 13. (001) An offeror’s withdrawal of an offer before acceptance is called a |
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| 14. (001) Which statement about communicating acceptance of a contract is true? |
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If the time, place, and means of communication are expressed by the offeror, no other time,
place, or means will constitute an acceptance |
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| 15. (001) What is the name given to the exchange of promises? |
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| 16. (001) What is meant by adequate consideration? |
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| The consideration in the exchange is a fair bargain. |
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| 17. (001) What is meant by the term “competent” in regards to a contracting party? |
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| Having the mental capacity to understand the intent to be bound. |
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| 18. (001) Which individual would be considered competent to enter into a contract? |
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| A 23-year-old car salesperson. |
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| 19. (001) As a general rule, a contract that violates a statute is |
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| unlawful and void and will not be enforced. |
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| 20. (001) Under the clean hands doctrine, an individual may enforce an illegal contract when |
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the innocent party to the contract is in the class of persons for whom the law is designed to
protect. |
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| 21. (001) Which situation would preclude a ratification? |
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Definition
| Government not obtaining a benefit from the performance. |
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| 22. (001) What action may be taken for a nonratifiable commitment? |
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| Resolution by the GAO claim procedures. |
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| 23. (002) What publications series represents Contracting? |
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| 24. (002) Which AFI defines the roles and responsibilities of positions within the operational contracting squadron? |
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| 25. (002) FAR is issued under the joint authority of the |
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| Administrator of General Services, the Secretary of Defense, and the Administrator of the NASA. |
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| 26. (002) What councils prepare all FAR revisions? |
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| DAR Council and the CAA Council. |
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| 27. (002) What is meant by implementing FAR? |
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| Providing agency procedures to carry out the prescriptions in FAR. |
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| 28. (002) Which DFARS reference identifies supplemental information? |
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| 29. (002) DFARS is updated |
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30. (002) In determining the action to take in a specific case requiring a contract adjustment, the
Comptroller General Decisions are referred to and used as |
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| 31. (002) Where are short briefs of new Comptroller General Decisions located? |
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| 32. (003) A government action may be protested by |
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| 33. (003) Once an agency is notified by telephone that a protest has been filed, the agency (under most circumstances) has how many days to submit a complete report to GAO? |
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| 34. (003) When an agency receives notice of a protest from GAO within 10 days after contract award or within five days after a debriefing date, the contracting officer immediately |
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| suspends performance or terminates the awarded contract. |
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| 35. (003) How many days does an interested party have to protest after the basis of a protest is known, or should have been known? |
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| 36. (003) How many days does GAO have to issue its recommendation on a protest? |
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37. (003) What action may the contractor take when a dispute cannot be resolved by mutual
agreement of the contracting parties? |
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Definition
| Submit a claim under the Disputes clause. |
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| 38. (003) Contractor claims must be submitted to the CO for a decision within |
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Definition
| six years after accrual of the claim. |
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39. (003) Who is responsible for reviewing the contracting officer’s final decision on claims
exceeding $100,000 prior to sending the decision to the contractor? |
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| Air Force Material Command Law Center. |
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| 40. (003) If the contracting officer decides the contractor should be compensated for a claim, when is the amount paid to the contractor? |
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| As soon as possible without waiting for any appeal. |
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| 41. (003) How long after the contracting officer’s final decision does the contractor have to appeal to ASBCA? |
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| 90 days from the receipt of the contracting officer’s decision. |
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| 42. (003) Upon learning of an appeal to ASBCA, the contracting officer must comply with Rule 4 of the ASBCA rules found in |
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| 43. (003) Two techniques of ADR are |
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| mediation and arbitration. |
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| 44. (004) Which government requirement is violated when the wrong “color of money” is used? |
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| 45. (004) What act is violated when an organization obligates more funds than are available? |
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| 46. (004) The Bona-Fide Need rule requires current year funds be obligated |
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| in the same year the government will use the supplies or services. |
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| 47. (004) O&M funds are categorized as what type of appropriation? |
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| 48. (004) NAFs are generated through |
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| Morale, Welfare and Recreational facilities. |
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| 49. (004) Who directs the overall operation of NAF services facilities at an installation? |
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| Force Support Squadron Commander. |
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50. (004) What part of FAR determines whether to include contract financing through progress
payments? |
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| 51. (004) The aggregate of commercial advance payments cannot exceed what amount of the contract price? |
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| 52. (005) Whose job is it to ensure the local purchase program effectively meets customer needs while complying with all applicable statutes, executive orders, regulations, and AFIs? |
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| Contracting squadron commander. |
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| 53. (005) Which position is responsible for managing the socio-economic and other public policy programs? |
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| Director of business operations. |
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| 54. (005) Which is not a function of the contracting superintendent? |
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| 55. (006) A CO responsibility includes |
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| ensuring contractors receive equitable treatment. |
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| 56. (006) Who is responsible for precisely describing a requirement in a purchase request? |
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| 57. (006) What is a purpose of the customer education program? |
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| Develop open lines of communication. |
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| 58. (006) Which of the following topics is used for contractor education activities? |
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59. (006) The Prompt Payment Act requires that final payment of construction contracts be made
within |
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| 30 days of acceptance by the government. |
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60. (006) What contractor education method may be used to assist new small business concerns
achieve a clear and mutual understanding of all contract requirements? |
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| 61. (007) What skill level identifies a contracting journeyman? |
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| 62. (007) What tool assists the contracting management team in determining whether or not a unit is in compliance with applicable laws and regulations? |
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63. (007) What program is designed to prevent sensitive information from getting into the wrong
hands? |
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| 64. (007) What is the definition of a classified contract? |
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Any contract that requires, or may require, access to classified information by the contractor in
the performance of the contract. |
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| 65. (007) Who is responsible for identifying safety hazards? |
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| 66. (007) Who must comply with OSHA requirements? |
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| Contractors and government employees. |
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67. (007) What document must contractors and vendors submit when they supply hazardous
materials to the government? |
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Definition
| Material Safety Data Sheet. |
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| 68. (007) Products or services that have a lesser negative effect on human health or the environment when compared with competing products or services that serve the same purpose are known as |
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| environmentally preferable. |
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| 69. (008) The Buy American Act allows exceptions for articles, materials, and supplies purchased |
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Definition
| specifically for commissary resale. |
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| 70. (008) What action should the CO take if contract award is made on the nonqualifying country offer and the duty is exempted by the Duty-Free clause? |
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Definition
| Award the contract at the offered price minus the amount of duty. |
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| 71. (009) Which contract type may be used when it is possible to negotiate a fair and reasonable firmfixed- price for an initial period, but not for subsequent periods of performance? |
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| Fixed-price with prospective price redetermination. |
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| 72. (009) Incentive contracts are appropriate when the |
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Definition
| firm-fixed-price contract is not appropriate |
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| 73. (009) What three types of predetermined, formula-type incentives may be used? |
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| Cost, delivery, and performance. |
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| 74. (009) Which incentive arrangement should motivate contractors to strive for outstanding results in all incentive areas? |
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| Multiple-incentive arrangement. |
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| 75. (009) When the government cannot use other incentives in fixed-price contracts because it cannot objectively measure contractor performance, it motivates the contractor by using |
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| 76. (009) Which written preliminary contractual instrument immediately authorizes a contractor to begin manufacturing supplies or performing services? |
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| 77. (009) When a contractor will acquire materials and services based on direct labor hours at specified fixed hourly rates, the appropriate contract is |
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| 78. (009) Which of the following contracts provide no positive profit incentive to the contractor for cost control or labor efficiency? |
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| 79. (010) Which contract type does not require execution of a determination and finding prior to use? |
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| 80. (011) The purpose of simplified acquisition procedures is to |
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| reduce administrative costs and the administrative burden on the contractor. |
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| 81. (011) Solicitations and contracts for the acquisition of commercial items are prepared on Standard Form |
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| 82. (011) When may a contractor be issued a GPC? |
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| 83. (011) The micro-purchase threshold for supply purchases made by an overseas cardholder from a CONUS vendor for use overseas is |
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| 84. (011) An SF44 may be used when |
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| a single delivery and a single payment will be made. |
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| 85. (011) Performance-based acquisition |
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| allows contractors the latitude to meet contract objectives. |
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86. (011) Sealed bidding should not be used for construction contracts when
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| it is necessary to conduct discussions with offerors. |
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| 87. (012) What factors are multiplied against standard prices in a SABER contract and include cost elements such as overhead and G&A expenses? |
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| 88. (012) A SABER contract |
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Definition
| complements the traditional construction program. |
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| 89. (013) Contracts for professional services of an architectural or engineering nature that must be performed or approved by a person licensed, registered, or certified to provide such services are known as |
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| architect-engineer services contracts. |
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| 90. (013) What is the statutory limitation on the contract fee for A-E services for the preparation of designs, plans, drawings, and specifications? |
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Definition
| Six percent of the project’s estimated cost to complete construction. |
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| 91. (013) What clause must be included in the contract if the government requires the contractor to design the project so that construction costs will not exceed a specified amount due to a funding limitation? |
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| Design within Funding Limitations clause. |
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| 92. (014) Which of the following is a characteristic of agreements? |
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Definition
| Establishes the ground work for future contracts. |
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| 93. (014) The government can exercise its right to the option period |
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Definition
| without further negotiation or agreement with the contractor. |
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| 94. (014) Benefits of options include increased |
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| 95. (015) What type of contracting instrument would have the letter “M” in the ninth position of the PIIN? |
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| 96. (015) Solicitations types using the letter “R” in the procurement instrument identification number (PIIN) represent |
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| 97. (016) The commercial contract format uses the |
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| 98. (016) When using the UCF, which section title would you find under Part I – The Schedule? |
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| Contract administration data. |
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| 99. (016) When using the UCF you include lengthy specifications in |
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| 100. (016) When using the UCF, which section contains evaluation factors for award? |
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