Term
| What are two ways a causitive agent may cause dissease? |
|
Definition
| By destroying host cells or releasing toxins. |
|
|
Term
| Where do normal flora originate? |
|
Definition
| Exposure to external sources in th environment. |
|
|
Term
| what type of relationship develops when a host is exposed repeatedly to a pathogen, but is never succesful in eliminating it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do carriers differ from individuals who actually develop an infectious disease? |
|
Definition
| Carriers have the pathogen but present no symptoms. |
|
|
Term
| What type of pathogen uses parts of the host's tissues as nutrients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the average rate of reproduction for bacterial cells? |
|
Definition
| They divide every 30- 120 min. |
|
|
Term
| What physical characteristics of bacteria are used to determine their classification? |
|
Definition
| Size shape and attachments. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three basic bacterial shapes? |
|
Definition
| Cocci (spere), spirochete (spiral), and bacilli (rod). |
|
|
Term
| What type of organism causes rocky mountain spotted fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are three useful functions of Fungi? |
|
Definition
| Food, Medication, and products that help make food (i.e. yeast). |
|
|
Term
| What unique quality does the cell wall of the protozoa possess and what does it allow the cell to do? |
|
Definition
| Protozoa have a flexible cell wall that allows the organism to assume different shapes. |
|
|
Term
| What enables an amoeba to propel itself and ingest food particles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the smallest known microorganism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what stage do helminthes normally enter the human host? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the components of the chain of infection. |
|
Definition
| Infectious agent, resevoir, portal of exit, mode of transfer, portal of entry, susceptible host. |
|
|
Term
| What are the normal exit portals for infectious agents? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory tract, GI tract, broken skin, mucus membranes. |
|
|
Term
| What is indirect contact. |
|
Definition
| Touching an object that has touched a contaminated person. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the droplet transmission |
|
Definition
| Infectious agents are transmitted through the air a short distance via small droplets from coughing, sneezing, or talking. |
|
|
Term
| What are the stages of infectious disease? |
|
Definition
| Incubation, prodormal, illness, convalesence. |
|
|
Term
| How much and the prodormal period vary in different diseases? |
|
Definition
| Anywhere from a few hours to a few days. |
|
|
Term
| What is the body's best natural barrier to infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do mucous membranes defend against infection? |
|
Definition
| It traps microorganisms, extra blood flow rushes WBC's to the area, and it harbors normal flora that kill viruses. |
|
|
Term
| How do tears defend against infection? |
|
Definition
| They wash debri and microorganisms away. |
|
|
Term
| What role does the lymphatic system play in the body's disease defense system? |
|
Definition
| Nodes produce WBC's and filter the blood for pathogens. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Substances produced by the body that attack and kill antigens. |
|
|
Term
| What is a regional infection? |
|
Definition
| An infection that spreads to the lymph nodes. |
|
|
Term
| What are thetwo recommended tiers of isolation precations developed by the CDC? |
|
Definition
| Standard cautions and transmission based precautions. |
|
|
Term
| Why were standard precautions developed? |
|
Definition
| To prevent nosocomial infections. |
|
|
Term
| When is it important to use masks, goggles, or face shields? |
|
Definition
| When splatter or splashing of bodily fluids is possible. |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of transmission based precautions? |
|
Definition
| Airborne, droplet, and contact precautions. |
|
|
Term
| Describe how to reduce the reisk of spreading infectious agents by the airborne route. |
|
Definition
| Place patient in a private room with negative pressure. Always where a mask when entering the room. |
|
|
Term
| If droplet precautions are in effect, when should you wear a mask? |
|
Definition
| When you are working within 3 ft of the patient. |
|
|
Term
| Describe the primary purpose of having housekeeping. |
|
Definition
| Conrole the spread of infection. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inflammation of the liver caused by a pathogen. |
|
|
Term
| What is meningitis, and what is the most serious type? |
|
Definition
| Inflammation of the meninges. Bacterial meningitis is the worst. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of meningitis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Autoimmune defficiency syndrom caused by the HIV. |
|
|
Term
| What are the most common/serious complications of gonorrhea infections in women? |
|
Definition
| Pelvic inflammatory disease. |
|
|
Term
| List the 5 stages of syphilis? |
|
Definition
| primary, secondary, latent, late, congenital |
|
|
Term
| How does a physician notify Public Health of a reprtable disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What dierective discusses how reportable disease lists must be updated? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who ensures civilian agencies are notified of reportable diseases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| State of being free from microorganisms. |
|
|
Term
| What is another term for medical asepsis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is anothe term for surgical asespsis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What procedure is designed to destroy pathogens, but usually does not affect spores? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between disinfectants and antiseptics? |
|
Definition
| Disinfectants are made to kill pathogens and are used on objects. Antiseptics are made to inhiit growth of pathogens on living tissue but don't necessarily kill them. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of isolation precautions? |
|
Definition
| To prevent the spread of infectious agents. |
|
|
Term
| What are tree reasons non medical individuals contaminate themselves when attempting to deal with isolation? |
|
Definition
| They don't believe, they don't understand, or they are illiterate. |
|
|
Term
| Why do medical staff members violate isolation principles? |
|
Definition
| They are taking short cuts, don't understand, or don't think the rules apply to them. |
|
|
Term
| Under what conditions can a roomate be placed with an isolation patient? |
|
Definition
| When they are of the same gender and have the same disease. Or when they both understand the infectious process and isolation precautions. |
|
|
Term
| Why are contaminated articles bagged berfore they are taken out of the isolation unit? |
|
Definition
| To prevent contamination of the general environment and othe patients. |
|
|
Term
| Define routine vs. terminal cleaning. |
|
Definition
| Routine is everyday cleaning while terminal cleaning invovles disinfecting things that the patient has touched. |
|
|
Term
| What additional precautions should be taken with cleaning equipment if the patient's condition requires a private room? |
|
Definition
| The cleaning equipment should be disinfected with an approved solution before going into another room. |
|
|
Term
| How is the solution that is used for terminal cleaning selected? |
|
Definition
| They are selected by the local infection control commitee according to EPA standards. |
|
|
Term
| What should infectious patients wear when they are being transported throught the hospital? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a private room the most effective type of isolation unit? |
|
Definition
| It isolates the patient and serves as a reminder to put on protective equipment. |
|
|
Term
| How do masks protect the wearer? |
|
Definition
| They prevent inhalation of infectious agents in the air, in dropplets, and prevent pathogens from touching mucus membranes. |
|
|
Term
| When should you put on and take off the mask? |
|
Definition
| Put on when you enter and take off when you leave the room. |
|
|
Term
| What general tasks are included in teh sterilization process? |
|
Definition
| Cleaning, disinfecting, wrapping, and sterilizing. |
|
|
Term
| For what purpose is low-level disinfection useful? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of disinfection is done by placing small itmes in boiling water for specified period of time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the method of choice for chemical disinfection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the EPA classify chemical disinfectant solutions as? |
|
Definition
| Sporicide, general disinfectants, hospital disinfectants, and sanitizers. |
|
|
Term
| What is the disadvantage of formaldahydes? |
|
Definition
| The solution is irritating to the skin, eyes, and mucous membranes; instruments must be rinsed thuroughly afterwards, the fumes are toxic, and you cannot disinfect porous materials. |
|
|
Term
| What are special precautions that you must take whe using ultraviolet irradiation? |
|
Definition
| You have to wear protective garments and glasses. |
|
|
Term
| List three items that are classified as semicritical items. |
|
Definition
| Fiber-optic endoscopes, endotracheal tubes, and cystoscopes. |
|
|
Term
| What factors determine the cleaning method to be used for equipment? |
|
Definition
| Local policy, the object to be cleaned, and the amount of debri left on the instrument. |
|
|
Term
| When cleaning equipment, what things should you do to prevent self contamination. |
|
Definition
| Wear protective equipment, wash under water to avoid splashing. |
|
|
Term
| Describe ultrasonic cleansing. |
|
Definition
| Ultrasonic soundwaves are passed through the cleaning water to break up debri clinging to the instruments. |
|
|
Term
| What characteristics should wrapping material or sterile packs have? |
|
Definition
| Allows sterilizing agent to come and leave but does not allow pathogens to enter. Must be durable, flexible, and provide protection. Finally it must be cost effective. |
|
|
Term
| Why should you avoid adding extra supplies or equipment to a sterile pack? |
|
Definition
| Packs have specific purposes that only require certain tools. Adding more is a waste of time and tools. |
|
|
Term
| Which wrapping method is used for most packages? |
|
Definition
| Double wrapped diagonal method. |
|
|
Term
| Why should you avoid using pins, clips, or staples to secure sterile packages? |
|
Definition
| To keep from making holes in the package. |
|
|
Term
| What instrument should you use to label a package? |
|
Definition
| Pre printed tape or an indellible ink, felt-tip pen to write on the chemical testing tape only. |
|
|
Term
| What info should be included on the label? |
|
Definition
| Date, contents, initials, unit, time, load and control number. |
|
|
Term
| What are three basic methods of sterilization? |
|
Definition
| Physical, chemical, and ionizing radiation. |
|
|
Term
| What kind of sterilization includes gravity displacement sterilizers, prevacuum sterilizers, and washer-sterilizers? |
|
Definition
| Pressure steam sterilization. |
|
|
Term
| When does a steam sterilizer being timeing the actual sterilization cylce? |
|
Definition
| When all the air is removed and the steam reaches a predetermined point. |
|
|
Term
| What are the disadvantages of using steam sterilizers? |
|
Definition
| They are really hot and cannot be used for delicate items. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between the gravity displacement sterilizer and the prevacuum steam sterilizer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary function of washer sterilizers? |
|
Definition
| Decontaminate/ sterilize used patient care items. |
|
|
Term
| A washer sterilizer cycle should only be used for what type of sterilization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should items be loaded in a steam sterilizer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When monitoring the sterilization cycle, what are some problems to look for? |
|
Definition
| Unsaturated steam, wet steam, incomplete air removal, and timer malfuntion. |
|
|
Term
| What should you always do before opening a steamer door? |
|
Definition
| Check the pressure and stand away form the opening. |
|
|
Term
| How many types of processing trays ar ethere for the paracetic acid sterilizer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often should biological testing be completed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whare are the four methods to monitor and control the sterilization process? |
|
Definition
| Message screen, status lights, print out, beeps |
|
|
Term
| When unloading the sterilizer, you must first check to make sure the chemical strips have changed to what color? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| For what purpose is ionizing radiation primarily used? |
|
Definition
| Bulk sterilization of commercial products |
|
|
Term
| What are three types of disinfection? |
|
Definition
| Pastuerization, exposure to chemical germicides, and ultraviolet irradiation. |
|
|
Term
| What type of microorganism causes malaria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of isolation are patients placed in who are highly susceptible to pathogens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation patient is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Howl oong is an item immersed in sterilant during the cycle of of a peracetic acid sterilizer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often should diagnostic tests chould be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer. |
|
Definition
| Recommended every 24 hours. |
|
|
Term
| How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, in what category would the ability to breathe without problems be located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What vitamins are necessary for RBC production? |
|
Definition
| Vitamins B12 and folic acids. |
|
|
Term
| What lipids are found in blood plasma? |
|
Definition
| Triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol |
|
|
Term
| Which type of lipoprotein has characteristics of having relatively high concentrations of cholesterol? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum number fot times ROM exercises should be performed? |
|
Definition
| 3-5 times per exercise usually at least 2X a day. |
|
|
Term
| Shelter is a consideration that falls into which need category? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is th third level of needs in the hierarchy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which need is satisfied when people are able to establish and maintain meaningful relationships? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What need relates to how others feel about you? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is self actualization? |
|
Definition
| Reaching one's full potential. |
|
|
Term
| During what stage of life does the development of normal sleeping patterns occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During late childhood, how many words are children capable of understanding? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What ages are included in the adolescent stage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what stage of life does physical deterioration start? |
|
Definition
| Young adult, after 30 yrs old |
|
|
Term
| During what stage of life do people often look back at the goals they have accompllished so far? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to Florence Nightingale's theory, what are the controllable environmental factors mnedics should be concerned about? |
|
Definition
| Pure air, pure water, efficient drainage, and light (sun light). |
|
|
Term
| What are three health risk factors that cannot be changed? |
|
Definition
| Age, gender, and heredity. |
|
|
Term
| Explain the environmental control program. |
|
Definition
| Monitoring or eliminating environmental hazards, specifically, comtaminants of air, food, and water. |
|
|
Term
| What type of community helath program is designed to assess health status and provide services that assist in maintaining a healthy lifestyle? |
|
Definition
| Health and Wellness programs. |
|
|
Term
| What are some sources of protein? |
|
Definition
| Meat, fish, eggs, some cereals. |
|
|
Term
| Which vitamins cannot be stored by the body and need to be ingested daily? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are common reasons for ordering a bland diet? |
|
Definition
| Ulcers, intestinal problems, gallbladder problems, and post abdominal surgery. |
|
|
Term
| What are two major components of nutrients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should patients without a confirmed B12 deficiency avoid taking large doses of it? |
|
Definition
| It can mask a folic acid deficiency and create cardiac complications. |
|
|
Term
| What is the max recommended folic acid dosage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients reated for what specific disease are advised not to take B6 supplements? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are signs of vitamin C deficiency? |
|
Definition
| Muscle weakness, cramps, sore/bleeding gums, degeneration of bone and connective tissue. |
|
|
Term
| What is the body deprived of without vitamin C? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is vitamin K neccessary for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Minerals are usually extracted from what source? |
|
Definition
| Plants extract minerals from the soil and human get it from the plants or the animals that eat plants. |
|
|
Term
| Whod do sodium and chloride maintain homeostasis of the body? |
|
Definition
| They maintain the electrolyte balance and regulate pH levels throughout the body. |
|
|
Term
| Where is the concentration of potassium found? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a primary concern when administering potassium intravenously, and how can it be prevented? |
|
Definition
| Pain and phlebitis may occur at the site. Potassium should always be run at a slow rate mixing the potassium in another solution thruroughly before the bag is hung. |
|
|
Term
| What triggers the body's need for calcium and what elements are necessary for adequate absorbtion of it? |
|
Definition
| The body's need determines the rate of absorbtion. Vitamins C and D, and protein promote calcium absorbtion. |
|
|
Term
| What are some side affects of iron supplements? |
|
Definition
| Black stools, constipation or diarrhea, and nausea/vomitting. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A particular molecule that can chanve the rate of a chemical reaction by lowering required activation energy. |
|
|
Term
| What are substances that release ions in water? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A blood pH level of 7.5-7.8 |
|
|
Term
| What are the functions of water in the body? |
|
Definition
| Transportation fo chemicals, and it functions as a major component of several body fluids. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common lipid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the building blocks of proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the average body's normal temperature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What controls the functions to maintain body temperature? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the body's attempt to fight infection by inducing a hyperthermic state? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of exercise involves taking in less oxygen then the body needs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of ROM exercises? |
|
Definition
| Maintain muscle strength and endurance, as well as to maintain cardiorespiratory status in a patient who is immobilized. |
|
|
Term
| Which cell is the first line of defense to fight infection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between granulocytes and agranulocytes? |
|
Definition
| Granulocytes have granules in their cytoplasm. |
|
|
Term
| What are some characteristics of agranulocytes? |
|
Definition
| Include monocytes and lymphocytes, and have extend life spans from weeks to years. |
|
|
Term
| Whar are some characteristics of Granulocytes? |
|
Definition
| Includes eosinophils, nuetrophils and basophils. Have a short life span of about 12 hours |
|
|
Term
| What does it mean to phagocyte? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which Leukocytes are the most active phagocytes? |
|
Definition
| Nuetrophils and monocytes. |
|
|
Term
| What lymphocyte is responsible for producing cytokine and what is it used for? |
|
Definition
| T lymphocytes produce cytokine, which is a protein necessary for proper cell reproduction and division and is directly linked to the immune system response. |
|
|
Term
| What does the cervical lymph node do? |
|
Definition
| drains the skin ao0f the scalp, face and the tissue of the nasal cavity and pharynx. |
|
|
Term
| Which lymph node drains the upper limbs, thoraci wall, mammary glands, and upper wall of the abdomen? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which node recieves lymph from the lower limbs, exeternal genitalia, and lower abdominal wall? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the pelvic cavity node do? |
|
Definition
| Recieves lymph from the pelvic viscera. |
|
|
Term
| Which node recieves lymph from the abdominal viscera? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the thoracic cavity node do? |
|
Definition
| Recieves lymph from the internal wall of the thorax and the thoracic viscera. |
|
|
Term
| Hypersensitivity reaction is also know as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organ is consedered the primary central gland of the lymphatic system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Wyat type of wound closure involves suturing of surgical incisions where the egdges are easily approxiamted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is secondary wound closure? |
|
Definition
| Wound tissue is allowed to granulate and heal. |
|
|
Term
| What is tertiary wound closure? |
|
Definition
| The wound is allowed to granulate and then the edges are approximated and sutured. |
|
|
Term
| What are three important things you should keep in mind when coversing with a pt in regard to personal concerns? |
|
Definition
Be a good Listener.
Don't give advice.
Refer pt to their provider. |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the feelings a pt might experience in response to illness or injury? |
|
Definition
| Shock, depression, guilt, anxitety and fear, PTSD |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Recurrent intrusive memories of the event, reliving the event, dreams, feelings of being wounded again |
|
|
Term
| At what blood alcohol level is a person usually considered to be intoxicated? |
|
Definition
| Anythijng greater then 100 mg/dL |
|
|
Term
| Intoxication dramatically affects the central nervous system. What signs make this evident? |
|
Definition
| Slurred speach, impaired coordination/senses, behavioral changes |
|
|
Term
| What are the four main categories of drugs often abused? |
|
Definition
| Narcodics, sedatives, stimulants, hallucinogens |
|
|
Term
| Explain the funciton of local poison control centers... |
|
Definition
| Provide up-to-date info and guidance on treatments of poison victims |
|
|
Term
| Which basic human need category is rest included in? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest? |
|
Definition
| Being Pain Free, and Rest |
|
|
Term
| What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement be extending and retracting the arms and legs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A toddler is expected to weigh 4x the birth weight at what age? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What substance does the body need in order to absorb vitamin B12? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| B12 deficiency is first noted by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vitamin B6 in food is lost through what process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Large doeses of Vitamin C cause all of the following except:
heartburn, cramps, kidney stones, constipation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does vitamin D not interact with? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen thorugh what disease process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Vitamin K is used to treat what specific ailments? |
|
Definition
| Ulcerative colitis, malabsorption syndroms, prolonged use of salicylates. |
|
|
Term
| Vitamin C is fat soluble. True or Fals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Signs of sodium chloride defficiency can be seen through excessive amounts of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is half normal saline represented? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Iron supplements should not be taken with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What conditions would require special caution when administering potassium? |
|
Definition
| Gastric ulcers, cardiac disease, renal impairment |
|
|
Term
| When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a sign of excessive amounts of fats being metabolized? |
|
Definition
| Acetone in the breath or urine |
|
|
Term
| What are nuetrophils known as? |
|
Definition
| polymorphonuclear leukocytes |
|
|
Term
| The life span of lymphocytes is measure in... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cells do lymph nodes contain in a large number to fight microorganisms? |
|
Definition
| Lymphocytes and macrophages |
|
|
Term
| What are the 8 signs of hypovolemia |
|
Definition
| Poor skin turgor, dry mucosa membranes, oliguria, rapid weak pulse, orthostatic hypotension, low central venous pressure, concentrated urine |
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 disease processes mentioned in the text that can cause a fluid volume excess? |
|
Definition
| Congestive heart failure, renal failure, cirrhosis, and cushing's syndrome |
|
|
Term
| What are symptoms associated with a sodium deficit? |
|
Definition
| Confusion, weakness, hyperthermia, tachycardia, muscle twitching, and cramps |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs and sypmtoms associated with sodium excess? |
|
Definition
| Similare to dehydration...thirst, dry mucus membranes, oliguria, hyperthermia, dry tongue, lethargy |
|
|
Term
| What electrolyte deficit and excess can cause dysrhythmias leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which electrolyte in excess amounts can cause fractures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| what does the symbol pH refer to? |
|
Definition
| percentage of Hydrogen ions in a solution |
|
|
Term
| What ist he nrmal plasma pH? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a solution has a high pH is it acidic or alkaline? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of acid-base imbalance occurs in the metabolism of food or fluids and is usually associated with insulin deficiency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excesssive gastric suctioning that removes too much hydrochloric acid can result in what type of acid-base balance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An increase in carbonic acid in the body fluids associated with dificulty breathihg an result in what type of acid-base imbalance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of acid-base imbalance is associated with a patient hyperventilating? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of factors determine the typ e of intravenous solution used? |
|
Definition
| Pt condition, fluid electrolyte balance, and purpose for the IV |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The relative concentration of a substance in fluid when compared to the concentration of the substance in RBC's. |
|
|
Term
| What type of patients should recieve pareteral hyperalimentation? |
|
Definition
| Pt's with gastrointestinal disorders |
|
|
Term
| Why are hyperalimentation solutions adminstered through central veins? |
|
Definition
| Because they may damage or irritate smaler veins |
|
|
Term
| What condition should be treated with blood volume expanders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What basic equipmetn is needed to initiate and IV? |
|
Definition
| solution container, administration kit, and a needle |
|
|
Term
| how highshould the iv container be positioned? |
|
Definition
| between 2 and 3 feet above the pt |
|
|
Term
| What prevents the mixing of primary and secondary infusions when a piggyback seup is used? |
|
Definition
| backcheck valve in the assembly |
|
|
Term
| What are the basic components of an administration set? |
|
Definition
| spike, drip chamber, tubing, clamp, vent port, medication port, secondary port, needle adapter |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 basic types of needles? |
|
Definition
| Wing-tipped, over-the-needle catheters, and inside-the-needle catheters |
|
|
Term
| What type of needle is commonly used to initiate an IV in the scalp of an infant? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of needle is most commonly used when the possibility of extravasation is present? |
|
Definition
| Inside the needle catheter |
|
|
Term
| When would a volumetric pump be used? |
|
Definition
| For arterial or central vein infusions, if the pt has multiple IV's or of there is a danger of the pt rolling and occluding the line. |
|
|
Term
| When are variable presssure volumetric pumps used? |
|
Definition
| when pt's require critical volumes ore medications |
|
|
Term
| How do you prime the administration set? |
|
Definition
| Allow a small amount of solution to run through the tubing to eliminate air bubbles. |
|
|
Term
| What information should be included on the medication lable placed on the side of the bottle/bag? |
|
Definition
| Start time, stop time, and hourly intervals |
|
|
Term
| Where are medications usually added to the IV container? |
|
Definition
| In the pharmacy or nursing unit |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if there are visitors present when you go to start an IV? |
|
Definition
| Ask them to step out of the room till the IV is in place. |
|
|
Term
| What factors should you consider when selecting an IV injection site? |
|
Definition
| Age and condition of the pt, condition of the veins, solution to be administered, infusion rate, durations of IV therapy, and type of equipment used |
|
|
Term
| Why is it sometimes difficult to initiate an IV on elderly pt? |
|
Definition
| Their veins collapse when puntured |
|
|
Term
| Where should you start an IV is it will be in place for a long time? |
|
Definition
| The most distal vein possible to preserve other veins for use |
|
|
Term
| what three veins are preferred for IV sites in the hand and arm? |
|
Definition
| Metacarpal, cephalic, and basilic veins |
|
|
Term
| What should you do before you begin actual contact procedures with the pt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How tight should you make the touniquet? |
|
Definition
| Tight enough to obstruct venous flow but not arterial flow. |
|
|
Term
| Where should you insert the needle in relation to the vein you are trying to penetrate? |
|
Definition
| 1/2 inch below the planned entry site into the vein. |
|
|
Term
| What precaution should you take when applying tape to a dressing? |
|
Definition
| Do not wrap tape all the way around the extremity. |
|
|
Term
| What factors determine whether you should immobilize and IV? |
|
Definition
| Precarious position, near a joint, or if the pt is fairly active. |
|
|
Term
| What info should be documented after the IV is initiated? |
|
Definition
| Date and time of insertion, location of IV, type and size of needle, type of solution, infusion rate, and special equipment. |
|
|
Term
| What are the indications of a circulatory overload? |
|
Definition
| cyanosis, coughing, bloody sputum, dyspnea, neck vein distention, weight gain, weak rapid pulse, and shallow respirations |
|
|
Term
| What are the complications associated with IV therapy itself? |
|
Definition
| Alterations of rates, infiltration, phlebitis, infection, and embolisms. |
|
|
Term
| What are the complications associated with IV therapy itself? |
|
Definition
| Alterations of rates, infiltration, phlebitis, infection, and embolisms. |
|
|
Term
| Why should you not try to catch up if an infusion is behind? |
|
Definition
| It can cause circulatory system overload. |
|
|
Term
| What causes infiltrations? |
|
Definition
| The needle becoming dislodged or penetrating the vein and solution flowing into the tissues. |
|
|
Term
| What condition may complicate phlebitis? |
|
Definition
| formation of clots along the vein |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| air bubbles, pieces of needles broken off, blood clots |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal rate for a KVO IV? |
|
Definition
| between 10-50cc/hour not to exceed 500 cc total |
|
|
Term
| What type of pulmonary disorder is frequently discovered through collecting sputum cultures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What special test is used to detect occult blood in the urine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you find calculi (stones) when straining urine, what should you do? |
|
Definition
| save it, place it ina sterile cup, apply correct labeling, notify the nurse and send it to lab |
|
|
Term
| What is the average specific gravity of urine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the average specific gravity of urine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Stool samples are obtained for what reasons? |
|
Definition
| blood occult, paracites, fat, and other abnormalities |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Removal and examination of tissues. |
|
|
Term
| What equipment is needed to perform a venipuncture? |
|
Definition
| needle, syringe, antiseptic, gauze, test tubes, touniquet, gloves |
|
|
Term
| what is the purpose of a touniquet when performing a venipuncture? |
|
Definition
| it will distend the veins making it possible to visualize them |
|
|
Term
| When performing a venipunture how is the needle inserted? |
|
Definition
| bevel up a a 45 degree angle |
|
|
Term
| How long is pressure maintained over a venipuncture site? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When performing a skin puncture why is the first drop of blood wiped away? |
|
Definition
| It's contaminated with disinfectant or epithelial cells and you'll get a false reading |
|
|
Term
| What is the perpose of a glucose meter? |
|
Definition
| Find a blood glucose level |
|
|
Term
| What acid-base imbalace is likey to occur when a pt has excessive vomiting, excessive suctioning or ingested too many antacids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To avoid infections, you should change a pt's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily and not allow the container to hang longer then how many hours? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the range of IV bag sizes in CC's? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the pt exhibits only a mild reaction to an infusion what should you do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What step should you take before opperating a glucose meter? |
|
Definition
| Read the operating instructions |
|
|
Term
| The normal fasting blood glucose level in mg/dL is what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much fecal material should you collect to send to lab for a stool sample? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What format is used to documetn an interview witha pt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the objective determined in SOAPP? |
|
Definition
| physical examinations and diagnostic tests |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a pysical examination? |
|
Definition
| to determine overall health status of the pt and educated them on healthy practices |
|
|
Term
| What position should the pt be in for a pelvic exam? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an endoscopic examination? |
|
Definition
| A look at your insides with the aid of a scope camera |
|
|
Term
| Expalin how to prepare aa pt for a sigmoidoscopy. |
|
Definition
| pt is given a cathartic or enema or both the night before the procedure |
|
|
Term
| Why do pt's undergoing a colonoscopy normally require sedatives? |
|
Definition
| The endoscope is inserted farther into the colon than most pt's would be able to tolerate without sedatives |
|
|
Term
| What are some examples of specific clinics or treatments that may used care extender protocols? |
|
Definition
| ER's, f/u appointments, suturing, wart removal, throat cultures, PFB clinics |
|
|
Term
| What is speudofolliculitis barbae? |
|
Definition
| PFB is an inflammatory condition around facial hair follicles after shaving. (Shaving bumps) |
|
|
Term
| What is your responsibility in the PFB clinic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To whom must the medical provider recommend the pt be permitted to grow facial hair up to 1/4 inch long? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what phase of PFB program is medical assistance no longer needed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a clean-shaven face important to continued worldwide duty? |
|
Definition
| to be able to wear protective equipment without comlication |
|
|
Term
| What are the three steps to proper shaving technique taught to the PFB pt? |
|
Definition
| preparation, shave, finish |
|
|
Term
| What viurs is repsonsible for most warts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are 4 methods of treating warts? |
|
Definition
| paring down the veruccae, crycotherapy, curettage, and topical chemotherapy |
|
|
Term
| Where is the butttocks to knee measurement taken? |
|
Definition
| in a seated position from the tip of the knee to the farthest protrusion of the buttocks |
|
|
Term
| what should you inform the pt about before performing tympanometry? |
|
Definition
| Some noises may startle them. Remain calm as possible. Don't talk or swallow |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| the part of space that can be seen when the head and eyes remain motionless |
|
|
Term
| What are the reasons for visual field testing? |
|
Definition
| detect abnormalities not found in routine acuity tests. monitor changes in pt visual status |
|
|
Term
| How many degrees out from the visual axis is consider the central field? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the most comon visual field defects? |
|
Definition
| Depressions, or relative scotomas |
|
|
Term
| Before you can begin testing on the OVT, what three questions must you ask? |
|
Definition
Do you wear glasses?
Do you wear contact lenses?
Do you have or have you had eye problems? |
|
|
Term
| WHat must you do if you suspect the examinee has memorized the test plates of the PIP? |
|
Definition
| Change the order and readminister the test |
|
|
Term
| What is the amsler grid used for? |
|
Definition
| Detects abnormalitie of the central 10 degrees of the visual field |
|
|
Term
| What is near point of convergence? |
|
Definition
| A binocular test that shows a pt's ablility to focus on an object as it is moved toward the face |
|
|
Term
| What are the 2 most useful purposes of the pulmonary function test? |
|
Definition
| Evaluating losses in respiratory function and following the disease process of certain respiratory diseases |
|
|
Term
| Which of the 4 respiratory capacities represents the total amount of exchangeable air? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is anatomical dead space? |
|
Definition
| The volume of air passageways that are involved with but do not directly contribute to air exchange |
|
|
Term
| Before administering the PFT what info ust you find out from the pt that may have an effect on the test? |
|
Definition
| If the pt has smoked or used an inhaler in the last hour, if the pt has eaten in the last 2 hours, or if the pt has had any respiratory disease or infection in the last 3 weeks |
|
|
Term
| Before administering the PFT what info ust you find out from the pt that may have an effect on the test? |
|
Definition
| If the pt has smoked or used an inhaler in the last hour, if the pt has eaten in the last 2 hours, or if the pt has had any respiratory disease or infection in the last 3 weeks |
|
|
Term
| How long must an examinee blw ito the PFT machine before tracing can be considered acceptable? |
|
Definition
| 5 seconds or untill obvious plateau has been reached |
|
|
Term
| When using the appropriate comogram to determine predicted values, what 2 factors must be known? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What must you do to the predicted FEV1 adn FVC values for non-caucasian examinees and why? |
|
Definition
| Multiply by .85 to adjust for lower predicted normals. |
|
|
Term
| What initiates electrical impulses in the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the electrical impulse progress through the heart? |
|
Definition
| AV node sends impulse to the AV node which then travels down the bundle of his and into the purkinje fibers |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 distinguishable waves of an ECG called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where in the heart are the purkinje fibers most complex and elaborate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the qrs complex result from? |
|
Definition
| Ventrical depolarization (The AV node firing) |
|
|
Term
| What do you call an artificial product or features on the ecg? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| any deviation from the normal electrical activity in the heart |
|
|
Term
| When applying limb leads on the fleshy portion of an extremity, where must you ensure the electrodes do not lie? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| I what positions should the pt be ppaced while takin orthostatic vital signs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two possible treatments for postural/orthostatic hypotension? |
|
Definition
| IV therapy, blood transfusion |
|
|
Term
| What does a pulse ox measure? |
|
Definition
| arterial hemoglobin saturation |
|
|
Term
| When should you report a pulze ox reading immediately? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Peak expiratory flow maesurement is referred to as what? |
|
Definition
| Expiratory reserve volume |
|
|
Term
| A neurologic check is performed at regular intervals on pt's who may have what condition? |
|
Definition
| A head injury or other neurological problem |
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 steps taken before performing any procedure? |
|
Definition
| Verify phycisicians orders, identify pt, explain procedure, get necessary supplies, use BSI, provide privacy |
|
|
Term
| What are the pre-procedures of a med tech? |
|
Definition
| don gown, take vitals, clean site, prepare equipment, position pt |
|
|
Term
| What kind of knife is the most common in minor surgeries? |
|
Definition
| knives with detachable blades |
|
|
Term
| What are the resepective purposes of hemostats and rake retractors? |
|
Definition
| hemostats clamp and occlude, retractors expose and retract tissues |
|
|
Term
| What are med tech duties when a tissue sample is taken and must be processed by pathology? |
|
Definition
| Properly label the specimens, document in ahlta and take to lab |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if ther is foreign material in a wound you are cleaning? |
|
Definition
| Flush out all material possible but do not pick out embedded debri |
|
|
Term
| When and why would adhesive skin closures be used? |
|
Definition
| when skin is easily approximated with little tension, to support sutures in deeper tissue, to support skin tissue after suture removal, to support skin grafts, or for cosmetic reasons |
|
|
Term
| What are the general categories of suture material |
|
Definition
| Natural vs synthetic, absorbable vs non-absorbable |
|
|
Term
| How is suture size determined? |
|
Definition
| the smaller the number (0-7) the larger the suture's diameter |
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 types of anesthetic agents? |
|
Definition
| topical anesthetics, local infiltration, digital blocks |
|
|
Term
| On what areas of the body would you refrain from using Lidocaine with Epi? |
|
Definition
| digits, nose, penis, ears, most skin flaps |
|
|
Term
| What can happen if staples or sutures are left in place too long? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A proctoscopy is an inspection of what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What position should a patient be placed in for a sigmoidoscopy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you advise against for a pt with PFB, in regards to shaving technique? |
|
Definition
| shaving in the opposite direction of hair growth, with the facial skin stretched, with slow strokes |
|
|
Term
| How do you determine visual field? |
|
Definition
| measure degrees away from center focus |
|
|
Term
| When asking the pt if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or if he or she has ever had eye problems, the pt's responses will determine what? |
|
Definition
| Sequence of test performance |
|
|
Term
| How far from the test plate must a pt be setting for the pseudoisochromatic plate set test? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When peforming a pulmonary test on a pt, according to AF standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forec expiratyr volume at 1 second or forced vital capacity percentage is less than? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you are performing an ECG an any rated personel, a copy of that ECG must be sent to whom? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the correct sequence of positions and intervals for orthostatic vital signs? |
|
Definition
| lying sitting standing, 3 min intervals |
|
|
Term
| When can a minor surgery procedure begin? |
|
Definition
| When the consent form has been signed |
|
|
Term
| As a minimum , how often should the crash ambulance be checked? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hwy should ventilation masks be transparent? |
|
Definition
| to assist in assessing respirations and easily see vomitting if it occurs |
|
|
Term
| What types of litter should be carried in an ambulance? |
|
Definition
| Wheeled, folding, and collapsable device litters |
|
|
Term
| Why should equipment and supplies be checked out daily? |
|
Definition
| to ensure you are providing the best possible care |
|
|
Term
| What equipment or areas commonly have a daily checklist? |
|
Definition
| Treatment rooms, crash carts, and iv trays |
|
|
Term
| What items in IV trays or carts require expiration date checks? |
|
Definition
| fluids, needles, blood tubing, bandages, and antiseptic wipes |
|
|
Term
| Where should fluids always be stored in a treatment room? |
|
Definition
| on the lowest possible shelf to protect other items in case of leaking |
|
|
Term
| How should equipment and supplies be stored in the ambulance? |
|
Definition
| according to relative importance and frequency of use. |
|
|
Term
| What is the responsibility of the dispatcher? |
|
Definition
| Recieve and process calls, give instruction to pt's/first responders, and dispatch ems teams |
|
|
Term
| What is a code 3 response |
|
Definition
| response with lights and sirens....HOT |
|
|
Term
| What type of info is considered inappropriate for transmission over the radio? |
|
Definition
| Names and privacy act information |
|
|
Term
| If you are driving your ambulance and you notice that you are hydroplaning, what should you do? |
|
Definition
| gradually slow down. Don't slam on the brakes |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum speed limity on the flight line away from the aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum flight line speed limit near the aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Durin what phase of an ambulance call do you accomplish an initial scene size-up? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum number of straps useed to secure a pt to a litter or stretcher? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whe should the CISD occur? |
|
Definition
| as soon as possible following the incident |
|
|
Term
| WHo is responsible for completing the info in the ambulance log? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of info do you gather on scene sizeup? |
|
Definition
| Mechanism of injury, number of pts, need for additional help/recources |
|
|
Term
| How far out from the accident scene does the danger zone extend whe there are no apparent hazards? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How far out form the accident scene does the danger zone extend when there is a vehicle fire? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 6 parts to an innitial assessment? |
|
Definition
| general impression, LOC, airway, breathing, circulation |
|
|
Term
| What do you do if a pt is unconcious and his breathing is absent or under 8 per minute? |
|
Definition
| administer high flow oxygen via bvm |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of airway obstructions in a CONCIOUS pt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some situations in which immediat transport is needed? |
|
Definition
| Poor general impression, dyspnea, shock, complicated child birth, severe pain, chest pain w/ systolic bp less then 100 |
|
|
Term
| What is your first consideration with a trauma pt? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some indications of internal bleeding? |
|
Definition
| Distended and rigid abdomen |
|
|
Term
| If you determine that your pt is a medical pt what should your next considerations be? |
|
Definition
| if the pt is concious or uncocious |
|
|
Term
| If your concious medical pt is complaining of pain, what would you need to ask them when gathering a history? |
|
Definition
| Onset, provocation, quality, radiation, severity, time, interventions |
|
|
Term
| What is considered a safe zone when dealing with hazardous material? |
|
Definition
| on the same level and upwind of the substance |
|
|
Term
| What are the three steps used to disentangle pt's from a wrecked car? |
|
Definition
| remove roof, remove door, remove front of car |
|
|
Term
| What is done by the first EMT to reach the pt? |
|
Definition
| inline cervical stabilization |
|
|
Term
| When using the KED, when is the head secured? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a disadvantage of the scoop stretcher? |
|
Definition
| IT pinches the pt's sides together compromising spinal stabilization |
|
|
Term
| What cautions should the EMT take when loading or unloading a pt? |
|
Definition
| provede as much safety as possible. Use two people to load. |
|
|
Term
| When exposing the pt's pupels to light, what could it indicate if the pupils remain dilated? |
|
Definition
| brain injury, stroke, hypoxia |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 simple papillary tests? |
|
Definition
| Direct, consensual, accomodative |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| injury to ligaments and joints |
|
|
Term
| Because you cannot diagnose a fracture, who do you refier to the possibility of one in the field? |
|
Definition
| PSD, painful swollen deformity |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Swelling, pain, eccymosis, crepitus, exposed bone, false motion |
|
|
Term
| Under what circumstances would you remove a pt's contact lenses in the field? |
|
Definition
| if the pt has a chemical in the eye remove the contacts |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for chemical burns to the eyes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is normally the purpose for performing an ear irrigation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What types of cardiac pacemakers will you be most likely to assist with? |
|
Definition
| temporary external pulse generator, transcutaneous |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between anterior/anterior and anterior/posterior placement? |
|
Definition
ante/ante= for av node problems. V6 and under right clavicle
Ante/poste= for sa node problems, v1-v3 and left of spine |
|
|
Term
| What should you used to lubricate a ptL or ETC? |
|
Definition
| water soluble or pt's spit. Do not used pertroleum or cilicone based (poss. lung damage) |
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Term
| What are three methods to treat a subungual hematoma? |
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Definition
| Cauterize, paperclip, needle |
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Term
| What special precaution must be take after using the cautery method to treat a subungual hematoma and why? |
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Definition
| take the batteries out before discarding the cauerizer....it's a fire hazard |
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Term
| In the air force you can use lights and sirens when....? |
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Definition
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Term
| When is a rapid trauma assesment performed? |
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Definition
| when a pt has a significat mechanism of inury |
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Term
| In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system? |
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Definition
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Term
| WHen setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay particular attention to is what? |
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Definition
| the electrocardiogram tracing date and time |
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