What actions can the health care team provide to alleviate some of the concerns Mr. Jones has concerning how he will ever recover in order to return to work to meet the families' financial needs?

a. Expect the family to care for Mr. Jones during his recovery.

b. Cancel Mr. Jones' surgery until he feels financially prepared.

c. Perform all the test Mr. Jones requests untill he feels confident.

d. Provide a structured recovery plan that involves Mr. Jones and his family.

d. Provide a structured recovery plan that involves Mr. Jones and his family

Based on the previous answer, what is the most effective treatment for the individual?

a. Provide 100% oxygen.

b. No assistance required.

c. Have him breathe in a brown paper bag.

d. Perform basic life support measure to include CPR.

b. No assistance required

Above what altitude level is supplemental oxygen or positive cabin pressure necessary?

a. 4,000 feet.

b. 6,000 feet.

c. 10,000 feet.

d. 12,000 feet.

d. 12,000 feet

Which of the gas laws demonstrates molecular concentration?

a. Boyle's.

b. Charles's

c. Dalton's.

d. Henry's.

c. Dalton's

Plasma lipids include what three substances?

a. Vitamins, mineral, and herbs.

b. Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats.

c. Nitrogen, carbon dioxice and glucosaccaride.

d. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol.

d. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol

What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?

a. Pain free and rest.

b. Rest and activity.

c. Activity and pain free.

d. Pain free and exercise.

a. Pain free and rest

Self-esteem is interrlated with which attribute?

a. Love.

b. Safety.

c. Security.

d. Self-actualization.

a. Love

Jessica is born five weeks premature and is admitted to the NICU. Jessica's health care team has taught both TSgt and Mrs. Adams many of the daily basic care skill necessary for Jessica. Which of the following physiological needs is the health care team providing for Jessica?

a. Love.

b. Belonging.

c. Self esteem.

d. Oxygen.

b. Belonging

What systematic method is used to identify a patient's problem and methodically organize interventions needed to assist the patient to the expected outcome of recover?

a. Love.

b. Belonging.

c. Self esteem.

d. Oxygenation.

a. Love.

What are the three different ways assessment information is gathered?

a. Verbal, identifiable, and social.

b. Attainable, non-verbal, and social.

c. Identifiable, physiological, and social.

d. Physiological, non-verbal, and verbal.

d. Physiological, non-verbal, and verbal

Choosing specific intervention during the planning step of the nursing process involves collaboration among the

a. nurse and the patient.

b. AMSC and the patient.

c. nurse, AMSC, and the patient.

d. health care provider and the patient.

c. nurse, AMSC, and the patient

What is the next step when the expected outcomes of the nursing care plan are not met?

a. Health care provider will decide whther the patient is to receive home health care.

b. Process starts all over again, beginning with the assessment of the current problems.

c. Patient will look for a new health care team to offer a second opinion to the problems.

d. Nurse will collaboragte with the family to determine if they can continue the care plan at home.

b. Process starts all over again, beginning with the assessment of the current problems

When a mistake is made when determining a patient's need what acino should be taken?

a. Leave a note for the nurse to follow-up with the patient.

b. Ask a co-workder to call the patinet and correct the problem.

c. Do nothing, because the patient will return for follow-up care.

d. Apologize and take action to make things right for the patient.

d. Apologize and take action to make things right for the patient

What attitude or personality is projected when you are not facing a patient when you are spaking to them?

a. Apathetic.

b. Empathetic.

c. Sysmpathetic.

d. Compassionate.

a. Apathetic

Which of the followng non-verbal body language does not portray a pleasing, helpful and approachabel attitude?

a. Smiles.

b. Wide eyes.

c. Open body stance.

d. Flude body movement.

b. Wide eyes

The rule of thumb to keep an individual on hold is how long?

a. 10 seconds.

b. 30 seconds.

c. 1 minute.

d. 3 minutes.

b. 30 seconds

Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of

a. muscle.

b. protein.

c. glucose.

d. enzymes.

d. enzymes

What universal measurement is used to represent the true hydrogen ion concentration?

a. Ph scale.

b. Apothecary system.

c. Chemical catalyst reactions.

d. Organic molecular structure.

a. Ph scale

The term basic when referred to chemical compounds is also known as

a. dense.

b. bonded.

c. alkaline.

d. synthesized.

c. alkaline

Organic compounds contain both hydrogen and

a. carbon.

b. oxygen.

c. nitrogen.

d. dextrose.

a. carbon.

The three primary inorganic molecules are

a. Hydrogen, iron, sulfate.

b. Nitrogen, carbon, and hydrogen.

c. Oxygen, nitrogen, and aluminum.

d. Water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide.

d. Water, oxygen, and carbon dioxide

Which inorganic ion n is necessary for the ploarization of cell membranes?

a. Sodium ions (Na⁺).

b. Chloride ions (Cl^-).

c. Potassium ions (K⁺).

d. Magnesium ions (Mg⁺²).

c. Potassium ions (K⁺)

When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by

a. excessive thirst and nocturia.

b. acetone in the breath and urine.

c. constant hunger despite calorie intake.

d. severe vomiting resulting in weight loss.

b. acetone in the breath and urine

Through the deamination process, the liver removes what protein molecule resulting in urea?

a. Carbon.

b. Oxygen.

c. Nitrogen.

d. Amino acids.

c. Nitrogen.

The body's response to shivering is to

a. produce more heat.

b. reduce muscle tension

c. produce a drop in temperature.

d. reduce the heart rate and lower blood pressure.

a. produce more heat

How does high humidity affect body temperature?

a. Humid air is saturated with water making it very difficult for sweat to evaporate and cool the body.

b. The dense humid air causes the muscles in the body to relax thus lowering the body temperature.

c. The humidity makes the air thinner allowing the peripheral blood vessels to dilate causing shivering to increase the body temperature.

d. Humidity causes the peripheral blood vessels constrict and the body is not able to produce enough sweat to decrease body temperature.

a. Humid air is saturated with water making it very difficult for sweat to evaporate and cool the body

Folic acid deficiency during pregnancy can result in

a. cause abruption during labor.

b. downs syndrome in newborns.

c. severe eclampsia in the mother.

d. neural tube defects in newborns.

d. neural tube defects in newborns

Vitamin C does not include which of th followin functions?

a. Preventing liver disease.

b. Healing of wounds.

c. Preventing scurvy.

d. Absorption of iron.

a. Preventing liver disease

Large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except

a. heartburn.

b. GI distress.

c. constipation.

d. kidney stones.

c. constipation

A vitamin D deficiency causes

a. anemia.

b. rickettsia.

c. scurvy.

d. rickets.

d. rickets

Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except

a. digitalis.

b. calciumm.

c. mineral oil.

d. thiazide diuretics (HCTZ).

b. calciumm

Vitamin E is not necessary for which of the followng functions?

a. Absorption of calcium.

b. Normal metabolism.

c. Protection of tissues in the eye.

d. Prevention of liver diseases.

a. Absorption of calcium

A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease proess of

a. rickets.

b. night blindness.

c. pernicous anemia.

d. prolonged clotting times.

d. prolonged clotting times

Vitamin K will not treat which of the flollowing ailments?

a. Heparin overdose.

b. Ulcerative colitis.

c. Malabsorption syndromes.

d. Prolonged use of salicylates.

a. Heparin overdose

Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble?

a. Vitamin A.

b. Vitamin C.

c. Vitamin E.

d. Vitmain K.

b. Vitamin C

What organs regulate the blood concentration of sodium?

a. kidneys.

b. lungs.

c. heart.

d. thymus.

a. kidneys

Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen

a. during a blood transfusion.

b. as a result of not using table salt.

c. when a individual is unable to sink in water.

d. through an excessive amount of fluid loss.

d. through an excessive amount of fluid loss

Where would you find a concentration of potassium is concentrated?

a. Intrcellular.

b. Peripherally.

c. Extrcellular.

d. Centrally.

a. Intrcellular

The primary route of treatment for potassium deficiency due to severe dehydration is

a. oral.

b. topical.

c. intravenous.

d. transdermal.

c. intravenous

Oral iron supplements should not be taken with

a. tea, milk or coffee.

b. soda, water, or milk.

c. orange or grapefruit juice.

d. coffee, cranberry juice or water.

a. tea, milk or coffee

Which route is injectable iron administered?

a. Intra muscular.

b. Intra venous.

c. Transdermal.

d. Z-track.

a. Intra muscular

Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?

a. Protect against disease at the cellular level.

b. Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body.

c. Leukocytes are the body's only defense against infection.

d. Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion.

a. Protect against disease at the cellular level

Which protein is necessary for proper cell reproduction and division?

a. Amino acids.

b. Bundle.

c. Cytokine.

d. Proline.

c. Cytokine

What type of fluid is found in lymphatic capillaries?

a. Blood.

b. Plasma.

c. Leukocytes.

d. Tissue fluid.

d. Tissue fluid

Lymph nodes contain what cells in large number in order to fight invading microorganisms?

a. Lymphocytes and macrophages.

b. Monocytes and phagocytes.

c. Neutrophils and leukocytes.

d. Polyleukocytes and monocytes.

a. Lymphocytes and macrophages

Which region of lymph nodes receives lymph from the lower limbs, external genitalia, and the lower abdominal wall?

a. Abdominal.

b. Inguinal.

c. Pelvic cavity.

d. Supratrochlear.

b. Inguinal

The thymus gland functions in association with which body system?

a. Skelatal.

b. Endocrine.

c. Respiratory.

d. Cardiovascular.

b. Endocrine

The endocrine activity of the thymus is dependant on which hormone?

a. Adrenosterone.

b. Estrogen.

c. Thyrotropin.

d. Thymosin.

d. Thymosin

Which organ is the largest lymphatic organ?

a. Brain.

b. Liver.

c. Spleen.

d. Skin.

c. Spleen

Nathan has broken  out with the chickenpox for the first time. His body's response is called

a. primary immune response.

b. partial immune response.

c. secondary immune response.

d. single immune response.

a. primary immune response

How many days from first exposure to chicken pox will it take for an individual's antibody concentration be high enough to detect the susceptibly to develop chickenpox?

a. Immediately.

b. 24-72 hours.

c. 5-10 days.

d. one month.

Children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected by

a. artificially acquired active immunity.

b. naturally acquired passive imunity.

c. artificially acquired passive immunity.

d. naturally acquired active immunity.

When an individual has reveived an injection of antiserum, they are protected by

a. artificially acquired active immunity.

b. naturally acquired passive imunity.

c. artificially acquired passive immunity.

d. naturally acquired active immunity.

The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage of healing?

a. Bruising.

b. Maturation.

c. Inflammation.

d. Reconstruction.

The bright red color and the pain associated with a cyst is due to

a. bruising.

b. inflammantion.

c. maturation.

d. reconstruction.

How long could the reconstruction healing stage for a secondary intention closure take?

a. 24 hours.

b. 3-4 days.

c. 2-3 weeks.

d. 1-2 years.

For many patients who suffer from sever injuries or medical conditinos, their first psychological reaction is

a. guilt.

b. acceptance.

c. fear and anxiety.

d. shock and disorientation.

All of the following are principles of asepsis except

a. break the infection cycle.

b. achieved on inanimate objects.

c. the absence of microorganisms.

d. promoting a septic environment.

Using barriers as necessary for all patients is the definition of

a. medical precautions.

b. standard precautins.

c. primary precautions.

d. sterile precautions.

To be sure instruments used during a minor porcedure are sterile, you must check all of the following except

a. ensure there are no tears.

b. look for water marks on the package.

c. to see who sterilized the instruments.

d. inspect the package for complete seal.

When cutting through thick muscular skin of the back, a provider would most likely use a

a. pair of iris scissors.

b. disposable scalpel only.

c. a pair of bandage scissors.

d. knife with a detachable blade.

What information should not be documented on the labels of any pathology specimens?

a. Name of the provider.

b. Name of the hospital.

c. Name of the technician.

d. Anatomical location of the specimen.

Fifteen milliliters are equal to how many tablespoons?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Five.

Before administering any medication you are responsible for all of the followin except

a. being knowledgeable of the side effects of the Phenergan.

b. performing all steps in the modified six medication rights.

c. verifying any possible interactions against current medications.

d. for ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day.

Lt Col McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscular to A1C Jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50mg/2cc pre-filled syringes. How many ccs would you administer?

a. 0.25.

b. 0.50.

c. 2.5.

d. 5.

Modified six medications rights include which of the following?

a. Patient, amount, medication, time,route and documentation.

b. Route, amount, time, supplier, medication, and documentation.

c. Time, medication, color, route, amount and documentation.

d. Medication, cleanser, route, amount, time documentation.

The largest amount of a drug does that will produce a therapeutic effect without symptoms of toxicity is know as what kind of dose?

a. Legal.

b. Loading.

c. Therapeutic.

d. Maximum.

All of the following are sources of medication except

a. animals.

b. humans.

c. plants.

d. synthetic.

Ibuprofen can be administered to achieve which of the following drug actions?

a. Curative and substitutive.

b. Restorative and curative.

c. Palliative and supportive.

d. Substitutive and chemotherapeutic.

Palpitations, nervousness and tachycardia are all side effects of

a. cholinergics.

b. adrenergics.

c. cholinergic blockers.

d. adrenergic blockers.

Adrenergic blockers are contraindicated with patients having the following except

a. diabetes.

b. hypotenstion.

c. migraine headaches.

d. congestive heart failure.

Increased gastrointestinal peristalsis, bladder contraction and increased sweat secretions are the action of

a. adrenergics.

b. cholinergics.

c. adrenergic blockers.

d. cholinergic blockers.

The medications that block the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system are

a. adrenergics.

b. cholinergics.

c. adrenergic blockers.

d. cholinergic blockers.

The drug action 3D, is commonly seen with

a. adrenergics.

b. cholinergics.

c. adrenergic blockers.

d. cholinergic blockers.

Which of the medications' primary action is pain relief?

a. Analgesics, sedatives and hypnotics.

b. Endorphins, hypnotics and sedatives.

c. Placebo, tricyclics, and analgesics.

d. Stimulant, sedatives, and placebo.

Anti inflammatory actions are associated with

a. curing joint dysfunctions.

b. increased kidney functions.

c. the recovery of alcohol abuse.

d. preventing the formation of prostaglandins.

Contrindications of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs include all of the following except

a. when taken with dairy.

b. for patients with asthma.

c. for patients taking anticoagulants.

d. when undergoing elective surgery.

Which of the following central nervous system stimulants obtained over the counter, is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?

a. Caffeine.

b. Dexadrine.

c. Concerta.

d. Ritalin.

Selective serotonin requptake inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the reabsorption of which chemical neurotransmitter?

a. Adrenaline.

b. Dopamine.

c. Serotonin.

d. Norepinephrine.

Antianxiety medications are also referred to as

a. uppers.

b. stimulant.

c. sedatives.

d. minor tranquilizers.

Before administering digitalis, it is important to check which of the following pulse point?

a. Apical.

b. Brachial.

c. Pedal.

d. Radial.

Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except

a. bradycardia.

b. diplopia.

c. tachycardia.

d. vertigo.

Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with

a. diabetes militeus.

b. renal and hepatic impairment.

c. heart block and congestive heart failure.

d. lung conditions that cause bronchospasm.

Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to

a. treat anemia.

b. produce bradycardia.

c. increase myocardial excitability.

d. maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion.

When angiotensin-converting enzym (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjuction with diurtics or vasodilators what affect is produced?

a. Synergism.

b. Potentiate depression.

c. Potentiate hypotension.

d. Antagonize hypokalemia.

Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment. Mr. Johnson is receiving heparin post surgically to prevent

a. deep vein thrombosis.

b. peripheral vein collapse.

c. gastrointestinal bleeding.

d. headaches post spinal anesthesia.

While undergoing heparin treatment Mr. Johnson's diet should be monitored closely for which type of food?

a. legumes.

b. whole milk.

c. fish oils and salmon.

d. green leafy vegetables.

The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is

a. arrhythmia.

b. bleeding.

c. tachycardia.

d. vasoconstriction.

Aminoglycosides are used for

a. long term treatment.

b. short term treatment.

c. the treatment of tinnitis.

d. the treatment of renal dysfunction.

After five days of the penicillin treatment TSgt Adams develops diarrhea. What advice would be appropriate?

a. Stop taking the medication.

b. Crush the penicillin before taking the dose.

c. Add yogurt or buttemilk to her diet and monitor the number of episodes.

d. Bring the medication in to exchange for a different lot to begin treatment over.

Which of the following vaccines should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products?

a. Anthrax.

b. Hepatitis B

c. Influenza.

d. Small Pox.

How many doses are given in a series of hepatitis B vaccine regiment?

a. One.

b. Two.

c. Three.

d. Four.

Upon entry to the military, all Air Force recruits receive a booster of which vaccine?

a. Anthrax.

b. Influenza.

c. Small Pox.

d. Tetanus.

What is the most likely reason a provider prescribes sorbital as a pre flexible sigmoidoscopy procedure medication?

a. Produce a calming effect before the procedure.

b. Increase fecal production to use for sampling.

c. Produce constipation and stop any feces expulsion.

d. Clear the bowels of excess water and feces.

Emetics are used to

a. alter stool consistency.

b. produce constipation.

c. induce vomiting.

d. slow intestinal motility.

How should Dramamine be take when orally administered?

a. 30 minutes before expected motion.

b. 2 hours before expected sleep.

c. When in large crowd for longer than 30 minutes.

d. When activity will raise heart rate over 80 beats per minute.

Endocrine medication therapy is which therapeutic drug action category?

a. Curative.

b. Palliative.

c. Restorative.

d. Supportive.

Some of the symptoms associated with type II diabetes are all of the following exept

a. polydispia.

b. slow healing.

c. vision problems.

d. excessive weight loss.

What are the four types of diabetic neuropathy?

a. Autonomic, peripheral, focal, and proximal.

b. Generalized, partial, proximal, and automonomic.

c. Partial, focal, generalized and peripheral.

d. Focal, progressive, automatic, generalized.

Autonomic neuropathy affects the body system that

a. restores blood glucose leves to normal after a hypoglycemic episode.

b. provides the chemical trigger to rest the body after a hyperglycemic event.

c. increases urination to excret blood glucose faster after a hyperglycemic event.

d. decreases the respirations, and increases the heart rate after a hypoglycemic episode.

When is a seizre considered a life-threatening emergency?

a. As soon as it begins.

b. If the individual has not taken any medication.

c. When the seizre occurs in a public place.

d. After five minutes of sezure activity.

Individuals in a persistent vegetative state retain

a. all normal body functions.

b. responsiveness to the environment.

c. communication through blinking.

d. noncognitive function and normal sleep patterns.

For patients who are immobile,a primary nursing care is to

a. assist the patient in the absence of the family.

b. schedule physical therapy appointments.

c. prevent pneumonia and bed sores.

d. teach the family how to care the patient.

An endotrachael tube is used

a. for short term treatment.

b. on adults only.

c. for long term treatment.

d. for children only.

Ensuring the proper placement of an endotrachael tube is accomplished by what means?

a. Aspirating fluid from the lungs.

b. Auscultation or ches x-ray.

c. By irrigating the tube to check for bubbling.

d. To mark the tube where the patients lips rest.

High priority patient conditions include all the following except

a. shock.

b. responsive but not able to follow commands.

c. chest pain with systolic flood pressure less than 150.

d. difficulty breathing with respirationsof 30 per minute.

All of the following are recognized civilian triage colors except

a. red.

b. green.

c. yellow.

d. blue.

What arrhythmia is represented by no electrical activity in the heart?

a. Asystole.

b. Ventricular fibrillation.

c. Pulseless electrical activity (PEA).

d. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia.

During combat situations military fightning forces are expected to be affected by combat stress when

a. they have killed the enemy.

b. fighting on the front lines.

c. they witness death of another soldier.

d. exposed to continous combat for more than 100 days.

Individuals suffering from combat stress should be

a. considered ill.

b. isolated from all others.

c. allowed to carry out normal activities.

d. allowed to provide simple care for other patients.

When using the Principles of BICEPS, what is the "E"?

a. Evacuation.

b. Expectancy.

c. Evaluation.

d. Extreme.

Most combat stress patients are returned to their unit

a. between 24-48 hours.

b. after 72 hours.

c. before they become combative.

d. after receiving 12 hours of sleep.

The need for water intake is

a. necessary when soldiers are thirsty.

b. the medical officers responsibility.

c. the Security Sergeants responsibility.

d. necessary even when soldiers are not thirsty.

Fluid intake should not exceed

a. 5 quarts per day.

b. ¹/₂ quart per hour.

c. 20 quars per day.

d. 1¹/₂ quarts per hour.

What is the principle component of the wet bulb globe temperature?

a. Humidity.

b. Wind.

c. Cloud cover.

d. Time of day.

The activity level of claning a rifle is considered

a. light.

b. heavy.

c. very light.

d. moderate.

When using the physical examination processing program (PEPP) the Standard Form (SF) 88will be printed as

a. SF 2808.

b. Department of Defense (DD) Form 3808.

c. SF 3808.

d. DD Form 2808.

What reference will provide the guidelines for DD Form 2766?

a. AFPAM 48-133, attach 10.

b. APAM 44-155.

c. AFI 48-123.

d. AFI 48-133, attachment 6.

Who is responsible to determine the dispositions for every flyer or special operator after every health care visit?

a. Aerospace Medical Service Craftsman.

b. flight nurse.

c. flight Surgeon.

d. Hospital Commander.

Which limitation code would be assigned for an individual who has normal vision of 20/400 in the right eye and 20/70 in the left eye, corrected to 20/20.

a. E-1.

b. E-2.

c. E-3.

d. E-4.

The term waiver applies to

a. all Air Force personnel.

b. Air National Guard called to active duty.

c. flying or special operation duty personnel.

d. department of defense and civilian personnel.

Guidance for the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) can be found in

a. AFI-36-3212.

b. AFPAM 36-3212.

c. AFPAM 36-2104.

d. AFI 36-2104.

When a unit with a Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) does not have a competent medical authority (CMA) assigned, how is documentation of medical care documented.

a.  The Aerospace Medical Service Craftsman will make a narrative note for review by the Flight Surgeon when the individual returns CONUS.

b. The Independent Duty Medical Technician will consult with a preceptor to review all findings and report them to the certifying official.

c. Any medical provider assigned to the unit can treat and document all care for Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) Personnel.

d. This is not an issue; there are no Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) without a competent medical authority.

What preparation is used when performing specimen collection from aircrew members involved in a mishap?

a. Plain water.

b. Alcohol preparation.

c. Salicylic acid preparation.

d. Soap and water.