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CDC 4N051B
n/a
250
Medical
Professional
09/17/2008
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Term
A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best defined as a
 Definition
clinical pharmacist
Term
Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?
 Definition
Technicians are permittedt to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician.
Term
The two essential patient history facts that must be obtained and documented before a medication is administered are
 Definition
allergies and current medications
Term
Each medication can be referred to by several names. Which of these names is is used primarily by chemists?
 Definition
chemical name
Term
Patients have legal and ethical rights. Which statement is not considered one of those "rights" when medications are administered?
 Definition
Choose the method of administration.
Term
Which is not included in the "Five Rights" of medication administration?
 Definition
Right documentation.
Term
What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once?
 Definition
Stat.
Term
A provider can initiate a drug order in
 Definition
two ways (AF Form 3066 & Verbal).
Term
What do many medical treatment facilities use to avoid errors when a drug order is copied?
 Definition
Computer-generated product.
Term
Drug administration is controlled primarily by
 Definition
federal law.
Term
What classification of drugs are not acceptable for medical use?
 Definition
Schedule I (LSD, Heroin, & Marijuana).
Term
Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as
 Definition
Schedule II drugs (Opium, Morphine, Meperidine, Codeine, Cocaine, Amphetamines, & Secobarbital).
Term
What law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?
 Definition
Controlled Substances Act.
Term
Penicillian admnistered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?
 Definition
Curative.
Term
When a patient has an unusually low response to a drug, the condition is called
 Definition
drug tolerance.
Term
A patient's weight is a factor in drug action due to
 Definition
body fat absorbtion.
Term
Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?
 Definition
Lower digestive system content.
Term
Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?
 Definition
Warmer temperatures increase circulation.
Term
Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?
 Definition
PDR (Physician's Desk Reference).
Term
What publication contains a list of locally available medications, recommended dispensing instructions, and administrative guidelines?
 Definition
Local facility formulary.
Term
An oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medication preperation called a
 Definition
liniment.
Term
A finely ground drug that can be used internally or externally describes a type of medication preperation called a
 Definition
powder.
Term
What type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregular heart action?
 Definition
Antiarrhythmics.
Term
What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content?
 Definition
Cathartics.
Term
What is the first step to perform when a medication is being prepared for administration to a patient?
 Definition
Verify the order.
Term
Which element is not required on a medical order?
 Definition
Patient's age.
Term
Why is the route of administration part of a required medical order?
 Definition
Some medications are available in more than one form.
Term
Which one of these statements is true regarding subcutaneouse injections?
 Definition
Only small amounts of a drug may be administered.
Term
The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is
 Definition
IM (Intramuscular)
Term
The parts of a syringe are the
 Definition
barrel, plunger, and tip.
Term
The parts of a needle are the
 Definition
hub, shaft, and bevel.
Term
Subcutaneous injections are commonly administered in the
 Definition
upper arm.
Term
What administration method delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system?
 Definition
oral.
Term
To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured
 Definition
at the patient's bedside.
Term
You are administering a tablet or lozenge buccally to a patient. To do this properly, you would place the medication
 Definition
between the upper molars and the cheek of the patient.
Term
The proper procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract of a patient is to
 Definition
assess patient's vital signs before, during, and after therepy.
Term
When administerin eye medications, you should ensure the patient's treated eye is lower than the other. This will aid in
 Definition
preventing the solution from running into the patient's unaffected eye.
Term
Into what body cavity are otic medications adminsitered?
 Definition
External auditory canal.
Term
To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you would gently pull the earlobe
 Definition
downward to straighten the canal.
Term
Vaginal suppositories are
 Definition
administered to combat infection.
Term
You are administering a vaginal douche to a female patient. To do this properly, you would hang the bag
 Definition
12 to 18 inches above the patient's vagina.
Term
Which event is characterized by dry mucous membranes, weak and rapid pulse, orthostatic hypotention, and lower central venous pressure?
 Definition
Hypovolemia (Fluid Volume Deficit).
Term
Fatigue, weakness, anorexia, nausia, vomiting, and dysrhythmias are signs and symptoms associated with which electrolyte imbalances?
 Definition
Hypokalemia (Potassium Deficit).
Term
What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhymias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?
 Definition
Hyperkalemia (Potassium Excess).
Term
Which imbalance may be caused by starvation and diabetic acidosis?
 Definition
Metabolic acidosis
Term
The most direct approach for administering medications is
 Definition
infusion.
Term
The basic purpose of infusion therepy is to
 Definition
administer fluids into the circulatory system.
Term
What is used to prevent the mixing of primary and secondary infusions in a piggyback setup?
 Definition
Back-check valve.
Term
A scalp vein needle (commonly used in pediatric patients) is an example of a
 Definition
wing-tipped neede.
Term
Intraveneous (IV) solution bags normally range in size from
 Definition
100 to 2000 cc.
Term
To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily. In addition, you should not allow the container to hang longer than
 Definition
8 hours.
Term
To reduce the possibility of infection and vessel damage on a patient scheduled for long-term therepy, you must change the intraveneous (IV) site every
 Definition
48 to 72 hours.
Term
If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intraveneous (IV) solution, you would
 Definition
slow the flow rate.
Term
Phlebitis is
 Definition
an inflammation of a vein.
Term
The slowest possible flow rate per hour you may set for an intraveneous (IV) solution is
 Definition
10 to 50 cc.
Term
You have removed an IV catheter. You should maintain pressure over the injection site for about
 Definition
20 to 30 seconds.
Term
With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilites is to document a patient's transfusion on
 Definition
a Standard Form 518 (Blood or Blood Component Transfusion).
Term
What type of reaction is caused by a transfusion of contaminated blood or blood product?
 Definition
Septic.
Term
What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive system?
 Definition
Liquid.
Term
The diet that is inadiquate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than 3 days is the
 Definition
clear liquid.
Term
Which precaution should be taken just prior to performing a procedure that uses the patient's NG tube?
 Definition
Check for tube placement.
Term
Which procedure is performed to cleanse the stomach of harmful substances?
 Definition
Lavage.
Term
To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the maximum amount of urine to remove during catherization is between
 Definition
750 to 1000 cc.
Term
During catheterization of a male patient, at what angle is the penis held, and how many inches is the catheter inserted?
 Definition
90 degrees; 6 to 10 inches.
Term
When administering an enema, the patient is preferably positioned
 Definition
on their left side.
Term
The patient should retain the solution of a cleansing enema for a time period of
 Definition
5 minutes.
Term
The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is
 Definition
one-third full.
Term
The purpose of a colostomy irrigation is to
 Definition
establish fecal control.
Term
The normal arterial oxygen saturation range is
 Definition
95 to 98%
Term
What condition occurs if CO2 builds up and mixes with water in the blood stream?
 Definition
Respiratory acidosis.
Term
Which lung sound (heard upon inspiration or expiration)is a whistling sound caused by narrow airways?
 Definition
Wheezing.
Term
For patients using a nonrebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is
 Definition
60 to 90 percent.
Term
Which mask is suggested for patients with chronic obstructive pulmanory disease (COPD)?
 Definition
Venturi.
Term
For patients under 12 years of age, you would avoid using a
 Definition
flow restricted oxygen powered ventilation device (FROPVD).
Term
To prevent hypoxia, suction should be limited to
 Definition
15 seconds.
Term
Closed-chest drainage is a system used to
 Definition
reexpand a collapsed lung.
Term
A patient describes a jumping, pounding, or stopping of the heart within of his or her chest. This condition is called heart
 Definition
palpitation.
Term
What cardiac related condition may be caused by a fall in cardiac output resulting in cerebral ischemia.
 Definition
Syncope.
Term
To initiate defibrillation procedures due to ventricular fibrillation, you would first set the difibrillator at
 Definition
200 to 300 joules.
Term
Prior to insertion of a central veneous pressure line to decrease the change of an air embolism, the patient is taught the
 Definition
Valsalva maneuver.
Term
The best time to schedule patient activities is
 Definition
when the patient is energetic.
Term
You are planning activities for a patient with psychological problems. In this situation, your primary goal would be to
 Definition
develop a good rapport.
Term
What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile?
 Definition
Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression.
Term
What grade of a decubitus ulcer has penetrated down to the muscle causing distortion and loss of body fluids?
 Definition
Grade III
Term
To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every
 Definition
2 hours.
Term
Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing?
 Definition
Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain.
Term
Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your
 Definition
base of support.
Term
To use the internal girdle of support, you must
 Definition
simultaneously contract abdominal and buttocks muscles.
Term
Which factors determine the technique you will use to move the patient up in bed?
 Definition
Size and capabilities of the patient.
Term
Which technique for moving the patient up in bed is contraindicated for a patient who has back or chest injuries?
 Definition
Shoulder-lift.
Term
When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient?
 Definition
Raise the far side rail.
Term
When transferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injury to yourself by
 Definition
using good teamwork and proper body mechanics.
Term
The person in charge of a bed to a strecher transfer should be positioned
 Definition
at the head of a the bed on the stretcher side.
Term
A patient's feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool during "dangling" to prevent
 Definition
pressure on the back of the legs.
Term
Which devices can be used to slide a patient from a bed to a stretcher?
 Definition
Drawsheet and roller board.
Term
The crutch most commonly used for fractures and other short-term disabilities is the
 Definition
axillary.
Term
Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other?
 Definition
Three point.
Term
Which type of exercise would you provide for a patient who is unable or not allowed to exercise?
 Definition
Passive.
Term
Isometric exercises are activities that involve muscle
 Definition
contraction without body movement.
Term
Which statement would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?
 Definition
Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight.
Term
How many pounds of baggage are allowed for the patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility?
 Definition
66
Term
A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered
 Definition
subsisting out.
Term
Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?
 Definition
Planning.
Term
When planning nursing activities, what is the main goal?
 Definition
Help the patient reach the highest possible level of health.
Term
Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?
 Definition
A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior.
Term
What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?
 Definition
Preoperative teaching.
Term
What action would you take when recovering a postoperative patient who is hypoxic due to respiratory depression from the anesthetic agent?
 Definition
Administer oxygen.
Term
Which position is the bed placed in preperation ro recieve a postoperative surgical patient?
 Definition
High.
Term
The postoperative patient is required to turn, cough, and deep breathe every
 Definition
two hours.
Term
What dressing is applied to a wound when debridement is needed?
 Definition
Wet to damp.
Term
What size suture material is used to close an incision on the bottom of the foot?
 Definition
2-0.
Term
A prolonged heat treatment can cause what reflex action in the human body?
 Definition
Reflex vasoconstriction.
Term
A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called
 Definition
pathologic.
Term
Which type of traumatic fracture does a whiplash cause?
 Definition
Compression.
Term
Avoid the semi-recumbant position for long periods of time for the orthopaedic patient because it
 Definition
promotes flexion deformities of the hip.
Term
Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?
 Definition
Crepitus.
Term
Which procedure or treatment is used to prevent or alleviate irritation around the edge of a cast?
 Definition
Petaling.
Term
The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a
 Definition
phantom limb pain.
Term
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?
 Definition
Tourniquet.
Term
During the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal is to
 Definition
sustain life.
Term
Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control?
 Definition
Established daily rituals and routines.
Term
The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when the lose their sense of control is
 Definition
regression.
Term
When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be
 Definition
dehydration.
Term
The amount of sleep required at nightly by elderly patients is generally
 Definition
less because of frequent daytime naps.
Term
Which is a sign of uremia (urine in the blood)?
 Definition
Oliguria (urine output less than 400mL).
Term
Moodiness, bad temper, and extreme neatness are influenced by what factor?
 Definition
Environment.
Term
Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?
 Definition
Compulsion.
Term
Which psychatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and well being, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity?
 Definition
Mania.
Term
A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of
 Definition
withdrawl.
Term
When does the rehabilitation process begin?
 Definition
As soon as the patient is admitted.
Term
Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except
 Definition
electroconvulsive therapy.
Term
What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse?
 Definition
Spouse states it will never happen again.
Term
Which classification of a harmful substance causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing?
 Definition
Stimulant.
Term
If a patient is being restrained, what position should he or she be in if the patient is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extremely agitated?
 Definition
Prone.
Term
After questioning a patient, what should be done if the patient is still not sure whether or not he or she is allergic to an immunization?
 Definition
A skin test.
Term
After receiving a vaccine, how long may it take for immunity to develop?
 Definition
Days of weeks.
Term
A proctoscopy is an inspection of the
 Definition
rectum.
Term
The person who assumes the responsibility of patient education in the "shaving clinic" is the
 Definition
aerospace medical service technician.
Term
What phase in the treatment of pseudofolliculitis barbae begins when inflammation has subsided and ends with complete control of the problem?
 Definition
II.
Term
How many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the PIP?
 Definition
30.
Term
How many inches is the Amsler's grid chart held away from the patient?
 Definition
12.
Term
What is the unit of measurement for the near point of accomodation test?
 Definition
Diopters.
Term
What is that part of space that can be seen when the head and eyes are motionless?
 Definition
Visual field.
Term
What is a common visual field defect?
 Definition
Depression.
Term
Noise assessment is conducted by
 Definition
BEF.
Term
How many years is the certification for hearing conservation valid?
 Definition
5.
Term
The measurement expressed in Hz refers to what principle of sound?
 Definition
Frequency.
Term
When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the vehicle?
 Definition
100.
Term
For accidents involving hazardous materials, where should you park the ambulance and how far away should you remain?
 Definition
Upwind; 2000 feet away.
Term
The "A" in AVPU stands for
 Definition
Alert.
Term
If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide
 Definition
ventilations with a BVM and high-flow oxygen.
Term
For what type of patient is a rapid trauma assessment performed and what is looked at?
 Definition
Patient with a significant mechanism of injury & the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are.
Term
When you ask the medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, you are questioning about
 Definition
time.
Term
When you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, you are questioning about
 Definition
time.
Term
When you ask a medical patient what has triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about
 Definition
provocation.
Term
A bruise behind the ears called
 Definition
Battle's sign.
Term
Within how many minutes is the recommended interval for reassessment of a stable patient?
 Definition
15 minutes.
Term
Patients breathing adequately are placed in what position?
 Definition
Comfort.
Term
Patients suffering from a flail chest will most likely exhibit
 Definition
paradoxical motion of chest wall.
Term
The all encompassing term used by EMT's to indicate any kind of problem with the heart is cardiac
 Definition
compromise.
Term
How many shocks are recommended to be delivered after analysis of a shockable rhythm by the operation of an auto or SAED?
 Definition
A set of three stacked shocks.
Term
After a set of shocks, if the patient's pulse does not return, your next step is to
 Definition
resume CPR and repeat cycle of shocks.
Term
Oral glucose is administered to the diabetic with an altered mental status who is able to swallow, because it
 Definition
counteracts the effects of low blood sugar on the brain.
Term
Activated charcoal should not be given when the patient has ingested
 Definition
drain cleaner.
Term
How is the contact poison phosphorus removed from the skin?
 Definition
Dust off.
Term
Within how many hours does a Black Widow spider bite victim usually develop systemic reactions?
 Definition
24 hours.
Term
Passive rewarming involves
 Definition
simply covering the patient.
Term
A condition in which the placenta is formed low in the uterus and close the cervical opening preventing the normal delivery of the fetus is called
 Definition
placenta previa.
Term
A patient's usual first emotional reaction to rape is
 Definition
anger and hostility.
Term
Who is responsible for questioning and examining a rape patient or for notifying legal authorities?
 Definition
Physician.
Term
To open the airway of a child, you must never
 Definition
hyperextend the child's neck.
Term
A detailed physical exam on a child is completed from
 Definition
toes to head.
Term
Bulging fontanelles on an infant could indicate
 Definition
head trauma.
Term
Your responsiblilites of suspected child abuse include
 Definition
notifying the phyician.
Term
A situation in which a patient exhibits abnormal behavior within a given situation either due to extremes of emotion leading to violence or a psychological or physical condition is called
 Definition
behavioral emergency.
Term
What is the key to helping defuse a suicide attempt?
 Definition
Personal interaction.
Term
For an adult, how much sudden blood loss is considered serious?
 Definition
1000 cc.
Term
How many cc of blood loss is considered serious for an infant?
 Definition
100.
Term
The time within which surgery must take place for a successful resuscitation from shock called the
 Definition
golden hour.
Term
Which type of shock is caused by a loss of blood or other body fluids?
 Definition
Hypovolemic.
Term
The PASG can compensate for up to what percentage of lost blood?
 Definition
30%
Term
Which type of shock is an internal failure of the body to control the diameter of the blood vessels?
 Definition
Neurogenic.
Term
Which acronym is used by EMT in the field to describe a possible fracture?
 Definition
PSD (Painful, Swollen, Deformity).
Term
Which classifications of fracture are considered more serious because a greater blood loss is possible?
 Definition
Open.
Term
With injuries in and around a joint, make sure that the splint immobilizes the
 Definition
bone above and below the injury
Term
There is a high rate of success for tooth replacement if a dentist carries out the procedure with in how many minutes of the accident?
 Definition
30 minutes.
Term
A burn is classified as moderate if it involves
 Definition
full-thickness burns that involve 2 to 10 percent of the body surface.
Term
When caring for a patient with electrical burns, your first priority is
 Definition
to protect yourself from the electricity.
Term
What regulations govern the number, type, colors, and locations of the rotating beacons and warning lights on the ambulance?
 Definition
State and local.
Term
Which emergency response refers to an emergency with lights and sirens?
 Definition
Code 3; hot
Term
How much vacuum must suctions units provide when the tube is clamped?
 Definition
300 mm Hg.
Term
At what speed (mph) does hydroplaning occur?
 Definition
30 mph
Term
Which is the correct order for applying a short spine immobilization device? 1. Secure the device to the patient's torso. 2. Secure the patient's head to the device. 3. Position device behind the paitient. 4. Evaluate torso fixation and pad behind neck as
 Definition
3, 1, 2, 4.
Term
Which device is commonly used for patient transfers in wartime and disaster situations?
 Definition
Army field litter.
Term
Mass casualty victims are categorized according to
 Definition
priority for treatment and transportation.
Term
Using the civilian four-level triage system, a patient with complicated burns is classified as priority
 Definition
1
Term
How are patients classified under the military triage system?
 Definition
Minimal, Immediate, Delayed, and Expectant.
Term
Under the military triage system a patient with extensive burns is classified as
 Definition
Expectant.
Term
What is used to document patient evaluation and treatment in wartime situation?
 Definition
US Field Medical Card.
Term
One reason the flight surgeon conducts mishap investigations is to
 Definition
prevent future mishaps.
Term
One reason the flight surgeon conducts mishap investigations is to
 Definition
prevent future mishaps.
Term
Specifically, who makes the finals determination on return to flying status when aircrew members are treated in other clinics or medical specialties?
 Definition
The flight surgeon.
Term
Flight surgeons review all mishap reports and summaries to
 Definition
identify human factor elements pertinent to the flying mission.
Term
What major command is responsible for intercontinental ballistic missle (ICBM) operations?
 Definition
Space Command.
Term
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of the solid propellant used in most missle systems?
 Definition
Once ignited, it cannot be extinguished.
Term
Record mishaps as aircraft flight mishaps when
 Definition
there is an intent for flight.
Term
What class of mishap results in reportable damage of $1,000,000 or more?
 Definition
A
Term
The four triage categories are
 Definition
minimal, immediate, delayed, and expectant.
Term
What is the triage category for a patient with partial thickness burns of less than 15 percent of the body?
 Definition
Minimal.
Term
Who must give permission to remove the fatalities following an off-base accident that involves a military aircraft?
 Definition
Local civilian officials.
Term
At a crash site, if there is a possible hazard from life suport equipment, what agency should be notified?
 Definition
Explosive Ordinance Disposal.
Term
You must report any episode that produces abnormal physical, mental or behavioral symptoms that are noticed by individual crewmembers or by others during or after the flight, as what type of physiological event?
 Definition
Class E.
Term
Class E Physiological events are reported by message using the format found in
 Definition
AFI 91-204, Safety Investigations and Reports.
Term
The overall purpose of flightline visits from the flight surgeon is to
 Definition
promote flying safety.
Term
In addition to providing flyers' with medical care, which of the following sevices is also provided by the flight surgeon and 4N0X1 in support of the flying mission?
 Definition
Medical indoctrination.
Term
Which of the following lists include rated officers only?
 Definition
Navigators, pilots, and flight surgeons.
Term
Who is responsible for completeing an AF Form 1042?
 Definition
The flight surgeon only.
Term
What do you do with the original AF Form 1042 after it is completeded?
 Definition
File it in the individual's health record.
Term
For transient personnel, how many copies of the AF Form 1042 are sent with the original to an individual's home bse flight surgeon's office?
 Definition
2.
Term
What must you start a new AF Form 1041?
 Definition
First day of every month.
Term
Administration of the soft contact lenses (SCL) programs is the responsibility of the
 Definition
Flight Surgeons Office.
Term
Who is responsible for training aircrew members on the emergency removal of soft contact lenses (SCL)?
 Definition
Optometry Clinic.
Term
The primary refrence of everyday Air Force writing is
 Definition
AFH 37-137, The Tongue and Quill.
Term
What type of paper is used for intra-departmental memos and letters?
 Definition
Plain bond paper.
Term
What do you do if you make a mistake while documenting information on a patient record?
 Definition
Draw a single line through the error, make the correction, and initial the error.
Term
What is the primary device used to store information on a computer?
 Definition
Hard disk drive.
Term
What program emphasizes information protection precepts and promotes consistent application of security principles in the use of Air Force information systems?
 Definition
IAAP.
Term
What administration tool identifies each and every record series maintained for an office record, regardless of the record's location?
 Definition
File Plan.
Term
The medical standards, the frequency, scope and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly are specified in
 Definition
AFI 48-123.
Term
The format and procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination are found in
 Definition
AFAM 48-133, Physical Examination Techniques.
Term
Whenever a member's qualifications for continued service are questionable, the member's case is processed under the provisions provided in all of the following except
 Definition
AFPAM 48-133, Physical Examination Techniques.
Term
The purpose of the AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial Report is to
 Definition
communicate information to nonmedical authorities in layman terms.
Term
For members possessing 4T profiles, the AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial Report, must be reviewed every
 Definition
30 days.
Term
Including the "X" factor, how many human function factors are considered in the physical profile serial?
 Definition
Seven.
Term
What is the main consideration (function of the body part) under the physical profile factor "E"?
 Definition
Distant visual acuity only.
Term
A strength aptitude test (SAT) is rated in profile factor
 Definition
X
Term
Which organization authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial Report?
 Definition
HQ AFPC.
Term
When you use the Department of the Army (DA) Form 3349, Physical Profile Seria, in lieu of the AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial, what must be done (if anything) to the Army 3 profile grade to identify an Air Force member as not compatible with worldwi
 Definition
Change it to a 4.
Term
Which of the following is the first step in the Air Force disability evaluation process to determine members who are not worldwide qualified?
 Definition
Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)
Term
Record review in lieu of board processing is accomplished when
 Definition
a defect is discovered as an incidental finding and the evaluee seems qualified for continued military service.
Term
The body responsible for determining if a member's physical defect or condition renders the memer unfit for duty is the
 Definition
Physical Evaluation Board (PEB)
Term
Who has the authority to retire or seperate members who are found physically unfit to perform the duties of their office or grade?
 Definition
The Secretary of the Air Force or a designated special assistant only.
Term
Which of the following is not a Physical Evaluation Board (PEB) recommended disposition?
 Definition
Forward to Medical Evaluation Board.
Term
Members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list (TDRL) for not more than
 Definition
6 years.
Term
The phyiscal, psychological, and educational qualifications all members must meet for each AFSC can be found in
 Definition
AFM 36-2108.
Term
Individuals applying for Personnel Reliability Program status must meet the medical requirements specified in
 Definition
AFI 36-2104, Nuclear Weapons Personal Reliability Program.
Term
Potentially disqualifying information (PDI) is any information regarding, but not limited to, a person's
 Definition
physical, mental, and emotional status.
Term
Who is responsible for reporting potentially disqualifying information to the commander of a TDY individual on PRP?
 Definition
The TDY commander.
Term
What action is taken when a disqualifying defect is found during a flying class I physical examination?
 Definition
Complete the exam regardless of the defect and send it to the appropriate certifying authority.
Term
The ultimate waiver authority for all medical waivers is
 Definition
HQ USAF/SG.
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