1. The Air Force Portal provides essential online resources for the Air Force at a single location, and it also does the following except??

A. The AF vision of how we eliminate duplication

B. Intergrate AF systems

C. Provide easy access to information

D. Provide Faster, reliable service.

D. Provide Faster, reliable service.

2. Who is the approval authority for the public Web pages?

A. Web Master

B. Unit Commander

C. Information Provider

D. Web page maintainer

B. Unit Commander

3. What information is required for all top-level private Web pages?

A. Commanders organization, commericial and DSN Phone Number, and email

B. Information provider's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and email

C. Web Page Maintainer's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and email

D. Emergency contact information to include commericial DSN, Home telephone numbers.

C. Web Page Maintainer's organization, commercial and DSN phone number, and email

4. Who is the approval authority for the private Web pages?

A.Web Master

B.Unit Commander

C.Information Provider

D. Web Page Maintainer

B.Unit Commander

What is the primary purpose of managing AF Information?

A. Document past actions of historical value.

B. Provide effective control of Privacy Act (PA) material.

C. Comply with Air Force Horizon Vision documents.

D.Effectively and efficiently enhance the Air Force mission.

6. Which of the following are ways we manage information in support of information resources management?

A. Storage and Privacy

B. Security and Privacy

C. Storage and Dispostion

D. Security and Dispostion

B. Security and Privacy

7. What stage of the life cycle management provides preservation?

A. Use

B. Storage

C. Disposition

D. Dissemination

B. Storage

8. What is the objective of the electronic communications program?

A. Create clear, efficient, and effective communications

B. Keep formats up to date with changing technologies.

C. Use standard Air Force formats for all communication

D. Prepare correspondence consistent with day to day requirements.

A. Create clear, efficient, and effective communications

9. Which plain language element emphasizes the need to put your main message up front?

A. Pronouns

B. Short sentences

C. Common words

D. Logical organizations

D. Logical organizations

Which plain language element reinforces the message that the document is intended for the reader?

A. Pronouns

B. Active voice

C. Short sentences

D. Common words

A. Pronouns

On the average, about what percentage of communication do you write in the active voice to communicate effectively?

A. 15

B. 25

C. 50

D. 75

D. 75

12. Which is not a Form Memorandum?

A. Fill-in

B. Fill-out

C. Prewritten

D. Optional statement

B. Fill-out

13. What type of Air Force correspondence recieves the most indorsements?

A. Messages

B. Memorandums

C. Personal letters

D. Staff summaries

B. Memorandums

14. What type of memorandum for record is an in-house document to record information that would otherwise not be recorded in writing?

A. Brief

B. Official

C. Explanatory

D. Separate page

D. Separate page

15.Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interest, or summarize problems are

A. briefings

B. position papers

C. bullet background papers

D. memorandums for record

C. bullet background papers

Who has the responsibility to ensure the intended receiver recives the taskings?

A. Sender

B. Receiver

C. Supervisor

D. Commander

A. Sender

17. When an AutoArchive storage process is used what type of folder is created?

A. Public

B. Private

C. Shared

D. Personal

D. Personal

18. Once an item is archived how is it deleted?

A. Manually

B. Automatically

C. Deleted permanently

D. Moved to another archived location

A. Manually

19. What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed"DO NOT FORWARD" the remain in action offices at the close of business?

A. Place in an opaque container and have the highest-ranking individual take it home.

B. Inspect to determine classifiction of contents and then return to sender.

C. Return to the base information transfer center for safeguarding.

D. Store in a classified storage container.

D. Store in a classified storage container.

20. Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered news agents?

A. Priority

B. First Class

C. Periodicals

D. Standard Mail.

C. Periodicals

21. When should you use certified mail?

A. When using consolidated mail.

B. When required by law or DOD or AF directives

C. When the contents are valuable and a receipt is needed.

D. When you need to trace communications sent between AF Activities.

B. When required by law or DOD or AF directives

22. What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container from the sender through the base information transfer system into the US Postal Service, and on the receiver?

A. DD Form 2825, Internal Receipt; and AF Form 310, Document Receipt and Destruction certificate.

B. AF Form 74, Communication Status Notice/ Request; and DD Form 2825, Internal Receipt.

C. Container numbers and AF Form 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate

D. Container numbers and DD Forms 2825, Internal Receipt.

D. Container numbers and DD Forms 2825, Internal Receipt.

23. Which is an accurate example of an accountable container number?

A. 2008-UUB-058

B.UUB-2008-58

C. UUB-08-058

D. 58-008-UUB

D. UUB-08-058

24. The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled enviroment is to mail them.

A. insured.

B. express

C. certified

D. registered

D. registered

25. What level of damage to national security could reasonably be expected if unauthorized disclosure of Top Secret information occured?

A. Grave

B. Serious

C. Extremely serious

D. Exceptionally grave

D. Exceptionally grave

26.What type of classification decision involves information that is paraphrased or restated?

A. Original

B. Compiled

C. Derivative

D. Consolidated

C. Derivative

27. What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action contrary to the requirements of Executive Order 12958 that is not a security violation

A. Sanction

B. Violation

C. Infraction

D. Compromise

C. Infraction

28.What must you do when you find classified material out of proper control?

A. Inventroy material and destroy

B. Take custody of the material and safeguard it.

C. Leave where it is and contact security forces to investigate

D. Determine who has responsibility for the material and return it

B. Take custody of the material and safeguard it.

29. What is not a factor in releasing classified information?

A. Rank

B. Need to Know

C. Security clearance

D. Nondisclosure agreement

A. Rank

30. Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?

A. Possessor

B. Commander

C. Security manager

D. Original classifier

A. Possessor

31. Top Secret material should never be sent

A. Between appropriately cleared and designated persons

B. Through the base information transfer system

C. over a cryptographic system

D. by defense courier service

B. Through the base information transfer system

32. When is an outer container not required for the transfer of classified information?

A. Secret and below being entered into the base information transfer system.

B. Confidential material being sent to or from Army Post Office addressees

C. Transmitting to DOD contractors or Non-DOD agencies

D. Secret material sent overseas by the US Postal Service

A. Secret and below being entered into the base information transfer system.

33. What must you do when you mail materials of different classifications in one package?

A. Separate each classification with a receipt

B. Place all material in a single inner container

C. Place each classification in a separate inner container

D. Do not mail different classifications of material in one package

B. Place all material in a single inner container

34. When you mail classified material, address containers to the

A. unit Top Secret control officer

B. office that is to take action on it

C. Base information security program manager

D. specific person identified as the point of contact

B. office that is to take action on it

35.Air Force units at what level must document their organization, function, and activities and preserve their records by implementing effective lifecycle management procedures within their areas of responsibility?

A. Every

B. Group

C. Wing

D. Major Command (MAJCOM)

A. Every

36. Which of the following is not an example of an Air Force record?

A. Magnetic tapes

B. Motion pictures

C. Museum material

D.Machine readable material

C. Museum material

37. What type of record is created when the Air National Guard is creating the records and the federal emergency management agency gets involved and federal dollars are put towards emergency?

A. State only

B. Federal only

C. Personal only

D. State and Federal only

B. Federal only

38. Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of official records must be trained within

A. 1 month

B. 3 months

C. 4 months

D. 6 months

B. 3 months

39. Who appoints a records custodian?

A. Base records manager (BRM)

B. Command records manager(CRM)

C. Chief of the Office of Record (COR)

D. Functional area records manager (FARM)

C. Chief of the Office of Record (COR)

40. Who should know and implement the records maintenance, use, and dispostiton policies and procedures for records maintained?

A. Records custodian (RC)

B. Base records manager (BRM)

C. Chief of the Office of Record (COR)

D. Functional area records manager (FARM)

A. Records custodian (RC)

41. By filling out summary information for documents you create, your final records will be

A. easier to manage and retrieve

B. harder to manage and retrieve

C. somewhat complex and hard to retrieve

D. somewhat complex and easier to retrieve

A. easier to manage and retrieve

42. How does the Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) ensure standardization and accuracy of every records series?

A. Using a standard format for all AF file plans.

B. Centralizing all records management functions AF wide.

C. Controlling the life cycle of all records series used throughout the AF.

D. Ensuring offices AF wide use the same disposition instructions for records.

D. Ensuring offices AF wide use the same disposition instructions for records.

43. What type of labels does the Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) print?

A. file drawer

B. subdivision

C. locator guide card

D. Decision logic table

44. The Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) generates a file disposition control label for

A. each item listed on the file plan.

B. each subdivision identified on the file plan.

C. Only the local record series on the file plan.

D. Only the permanent record series on the file plan.

A. each item listed on the file plan.

45. How many disposition authorities (table and rule) are allowed per records series?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. Four

A. One

46. What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?

A. File folders

B. Subdivision labels

C. Locator guide cards

D. Disposition guide cards

47.Where are the labels placed on the file folders?

A. on the left

B. on the right

C. in the center

D. placement is based on the needs of the office and is consistent.

D. placement is based on the needs of the office and is consistent.

48. What information does not appear on a subdivision label?

A. Title

B. Cutoff

C. Item Number

D. Office of record

49. What is reviewed when files expand to more than one drawer or files are filed in other locations determine the inclusive series number to be placed on the drawer label?

A. File plan

B. Decision logic table

C. Disposition control label

D.records disposition schedule (RDS)

A. File plan

50. What should you remove from a document prior to filing?

A. Envelopes.

B. Attachments.

C. Staples and fasteners.

D. Destruction certificate.

A. Envelopes.

51. Why is the file plan filed as the first term in a filing system?

A. the file plan falls under table 1-1, rule 01.

B. To help retrieve filed documents efficiently.

C.  It's the table of contents for the filing system.

D. The Filing system doesn't identify the file plan.

B. To help retrieve filed documents efficiently.

52. What gives the reader a reference trail to follow when a document is located somewhere else?

A. File Plan

B. Directory

C. Memo for record

D. Cross-reference sheet

D. Cross-reference sheet

53. When using additional copies of a record for cross-referencing, how is the cross-reference location identified?

A. Attach a cross-reference sheet to each copy of the record

B. Write "cross-referenced" across the top of each copy of the record.

C. Mark each copy by circling the appropriate file code showing where the duplicate copies are filed.

D Annotate each copy with a list of each location where the record is filed and a justification for the additional copies

C. Mark each copy by circling the appropriate file code showing where the duplicate copies are filed.

54. Cross-referencing provides more reliable files service as long as

A. excessive cross-referencing is avoided.

B. Written instructions are filed with each record.

C. All records are given a cross-reference location.

D. Cross-reference are detailed and very descriptive.

55. What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?

A. Period of time the record is needed.

B. Number of copies the individual will make.

C. Frequency of reference to the requested material.

D. How many people will have access to the records.

56. What is "disposition," when dealing with Air Force records?

A. Destruction of active records.

B. Actions taken with inactive records.

C. Time when you stop filing in the active records.

D. Eradication process used from the records staging area

B. Actions taken with inactive records.

57. What is disposition based on when dealing with Air Force records?

A. Time period or event

B. Specific action or disposition

C. Disposal method or time period.

D. Retention period or specific action.

A. Time period or event

58. How does the records dispostion program play a key role in the management of Air Force records?

A. Preservation of classified Records.

B. Economic and efficient management.

C. Enduring value for temporary records

D. Reference tools for commander's decisions.

B. Economic and efficient management.

59. How are long-term paper records 10 years or older handled?

A. Kept in the active file until destroyed.

B. Placed in the inactive file until destroyed.

C. Retired to authorized federal records centers

D. Disposed through the functional area records manager.

C. Retired to authorized federal records centers

60. Who is authorized to approve the permanent retention of records?

A. Air Force records manager

B. Archivist of the United States.

C. United States records manager.

D. National archives and records administration.

B. Archivist of the United States.

61. When units change status but do not change function or mission, files are

A. sent to the records staging area for the rest of their retention period.

B. cutt off the day before the effective date and kept as a separate entity.

C. cut off the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual.

D. Continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occured.

D. Continued and cut off the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occured.

62. The emergency disposal of records, without regard to tables and rules, is applied when the records

A. destruction by hostile or potentially hostile action is ever-present danger.

B. do not protet the legal or financial rights of individuals or the Air Force.

C. are considered valuable enough to warrant preservation.

D. are a menace to health, life, or property.

D. are a menace to health, life, or property.

63. What is the first part of the plan when developing a vital records plan?

A. Identy the records.

B. Description of the records.

C. Specific measures for storing copies.

D. Determine the most critical function.

B. Description of the records.

64. Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except

A. Physically stop adding records to a series.

B. Separating active records from inactive records.

C. Transfer of eligable  records to the records staging area.

D. point in time when records are no longer placed in the active file.

A. Physically stop adding records to a series.

65. Which of the following is not a cutoff period?

A. Monthly.

B. Quarterly.

C. Fiscal year (FY)

D. Calendar year (CY)

B. Quarterly.

66. At least how many years remaining retention must records have to be shipped to a federal records center?

A. Two

B. Three

C. Eight

D. Nine

B. Three

67. What type of records does the SF 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt, identify?

A. records for transfer to another organization only.

B. Retirement to a federal records center or staging center only.

C. Transfer to another organization or retirement to a staging center only.

D. Retirement to a federal records center. staging center, or transfer to another organization.

68.What type of records does the staging area store?

A. Perpetual and temporary.

B. Perpetual and transitory.

C. Permanent and temporary.

D. Permanent and transitory.

69.Who approves a waiver to keep small volumes of 2- to 8 year retention records in the current files area?

A. Records Manager (RM)

B. Command records manager (CRM)

C. Chief or the Office of Record (COR)

D. Functional area records manager (FARM)

A. Records Manager (RM)

71. To recycle Privacy Act (PA) material, what must recycling contracts include?

A. Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction.

B. Specific contract employees anuthorized to handle for offical use only (FOUO)

C. Guidelines for transferring materials to contract destination.

D. Fee schedules for protecting and processing FOUO materials

A. Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction.

72.Who does the office of primary responsibility (OPR) submit an AF IMT 525, Records Disposition Recommendation, to?

A. Records manager (RM)

B. Records custodian (RC)

C. Command records manager (CRM)

D. Functinal area records manager (FARM)

A. Records manager (RM)

73. Which of the following is an objective for determining retention?

A. Whether the retention period can be increased.

B. How much Air Force documentation is really essential.

C. How many records designated as "temporary" are of real enduring value.

D. Whether the records efficiently document individual

B. How much Air Force documentation is really essential.

74. What is the official daily publication for rules, proposed rules, and notices of federal agencies and organizations, and other presidential documents?

A. the Federal Register.

B. The Federal Requirements.

C. The Product Announcement.

D. The Information Collection Report.

75. What is one of the duties of the Air Force Federal Register Liaison Office (AFFRLO)?

A. Act as the multiple point of contact with all offices of the federal registrar.

B. Provide advice/guidance to Air Force personnel on publishing rules and notices.

C. Describe procedures by which to conduct business with the public.

D. Maintain copies of certificates of determination.

B. Provide advice/guidance to Air Force personnel on publishing rules and notices.

76. The Department of Defense's (DOD) policyon providing information on its activities in an open manner to the general public is to provide

A. all information concerning its activities.

B. only unclassified information concerning its activities.

C. Accurate and timely information on a need-to-know basis.

D. a maximum amount of accurate and timely information concerning its activities

77. Who is responsible for preparing and coordinating on all proposed replies to a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requestor?

A. Office of primary responsibility (OPR)

B. Initial denial authority.

C. Disclosure authority.

D. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) manager.

D. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) manager.

78. Who is the focal point for the Freedom of Information  Act (FOIA) portion of the installation web site?

A. FOIA Manager.

B. System manager.

C. Installation.

D. Director, communication and information.

A. FOIA Manager.

79. Who finds and provides the requested records and helps to determine whether to release the records?

A. Office of primary responsibility (OPR)

B. Disclosure authority

C. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) manager

D. Requestor

A. Office of primary responsibility

80. Who acts as the declassification authority when such action is appropriate and coordinates the release or denial of records?

A. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) manager.

B. Office of primary responsibility (OPR).

C. Information security program manager.

D. Disclosure authority.

B. Office of primary responsibility (OPR).

81. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requests categorized as simple involve records that are

A. privileged.

B. easy to read.

C. small in volume.

D. highly accessible.

82. Who does a requester submit an appeal to, when a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) office withholds a record from release because they determined the record is exempt under one or more of the exemptions?

A. Privacy Act (PA) officer.

B. Defense privacy office.

C. Secretary of the Air Force.

D. Director, communications and information.

83. An official system of records must be

A. authorized by law or executive order.

B. used to retrieve information on individuals

C. controlled by a Department of Defense directive.

D. organized in accordance with the Federal Register.

A. authorized by law or executive order.

84. Who is the focal point in a functional area for general Privacy Act (PA) questions?

A. System manager.

B. PA officer.

C. PA monitor.

D. Air Force employees.

C. PA monitor.

85. What type of request allows other Air Force directives to give individuals access to Privacy Act (PA) records?

A. Official.

B. Directed.

C. Functional.

D. Informational.

C. Functional.

86. To avoid conflicts or discrepancies, the best possible source for collecting personal data is

A. personnel roster

B. the subject of the record.

C. close friends of the member.

D. other data systems holding the information.

B. the subject of the record.

87. When working with Privacy Act (PA) information, if more protection is needed for a system of records, be sure to balance the

A. acceptable losses with the system expenses.

B. additional protection measures against risk cost.

C. quanity of information stored against the security measures required.

D. organizational mission with the time restraints imposed by security policies.

B. additional protection measures against risk cost.

88. What is used to determine the disposal of Privacy Act (PA) records?

A. For Official Use Only (FOUO) register.

B. Squadron policy.

C. Records retention schedule.

D. Privacy Act (PA) disposition list.

89. Which element of a Privacy Act (PA) statement shows the reason you are collecting the information?

A. Authority

B. Purpose

C. Routine uses

D. Disclosure

B. Purpose

90. What type of information should be considered and protected as For Official Use Only (FOUO)?

A. Information that has been given a security classification.

B. Unclassified information that is being processed in a foreign country.

C. Classified information that contains FOUO information.

D. Information that may be withheld because disclosure would cause a foreseeable harm to an interest protected by the freedom of info act.

D. Information that may be withheld because disclosure would cause a foreseeable harm to an interest protected by the freedom of info act.

*91. What actions are appropriate when unauthorized disclosure of For Official Use Only (FOUO) records occurs?

A. Corrective administrative actions, criminal investigation, and notify originating organization.

B. Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization.

C. Process paperwork for criminal or civil sanctions, brief all personnel of occurrence, and notify the originating organization.

D. Notify originating organization, follow guidance provided by that organization, and investigate all events that led to the occurence.

B. Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization.

92. When should For Official Use Only (FOUO) markings on a file or document be terminated?

A. When placed in theinactive file.

B. Only when documents have been marked for destruction.

C. When a request for the records has been made under the freedom of information act.

D. When the circumstances indicate the information no longer requires protection from public disclosure.

D. When the circumstances indicate the information no longer requires protection from public disclosure.

93. Which of these processes is not a step in the publishing process of electronic products?

A. Producing.

B. Formatting.

C. Posting.

D. Storing.

A. Producing.

94. Who is authorized to serve as the point of contact for, provide coordination on, certify, and/or approve official Air Force publications and forms?

A. Any civilian employee.

B. Any contractor employee.

C. Any foreign national employee.

D. Only civilian employees or military members of the Air Force

*95. A special review of a publication or form is conducted when the

A. point of contact (POC) decides a publication needs to be changed before its one-year review.

B. POC decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review.

C. office of primary responsibility (OPR) decides a publication needs to be changed before its one-year review.

D. OPR decides a publication needs to be changed before its two-year review.

96. When should you establish a formal paper version requirement for publications?

A. Mission-related need only

B. Access to an official electronic source of publications.

C.Mission-related need and access to an official electronic source of publications.

D. Defense automated printing service approval and access to an official electronic source of publications.

*97. Administrative changes to publications do not affect subject matter.

A. content only.

B. authority only.

C. purpose only.

D. content, authority, purpose, and application.

D. content, authority, purpose, and application.

98. Up to what amount is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act (PA) record system that has not been published in the Federal Register or for making an unauthorized disclosure?

A. $5,000.00.

B. $10,000.00.

C. $15,000.00.

D. $20,000.00.

99. To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collection and reports management programs'.

A. goal

B. mission

C. purpose

D. objective

100. What is the management tool used to monitor and control internal reporting requirements?

A. Reports control symbol.

B. Unit reporting document.

C. Information collection and reports

D. Records information management system.

A. Reports control symbol.