Shared Flashcard Set

Details

CDC 3A051
Volume 2
100
Education
Professional
05/07/2008

Additional Education Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

Commanders and staff agency chiefs take what type of program to protect the rights of the government and persons directly affected by Air Force actions?

 

A. Strong senior leaders

B. Monthly destruction efforts

C. Records management program

D. Efficient information management procedures

Definition
C. Records management program
Term

How often must the command records manager review each base records management program?

 

A. Every 12 months

B. Every 18 months

C. Every 24 months

D. Every 36 months

Definition
C. Every 24 months
Term

Once they are assigned, active duty personnel whose duties include filing, maintaining, and disposing of official reccords must be trained within...

 

A. 1 month

B. 3 months

C. 4 months

D. 6 months

Definition
B. 3 Months
Term

Who maintains the office files plan and accountability for active and inactive records?

 

A. Records custodian

B. Base records manager

C. Chief of office of record

D. Functional area records manager

Definition
A. Records custodian
Term

What should agencies develop to respond to emergencies or disaster that may damage records?

 

A. Plan of action

B. Memo for record

C. Air Force instruction

D. Headquarters operating instructions

Definition
A. Plan of action
Term

Where should copies of vital records be stored?

 

A. Federal records center that services your area

B. At the MAJCOM headquarters or parent organization

C. Another office in the same facility that is not accessible to the general public

D. Facility not subject to the same emergency or disaster but still reasonably accessible

Definition
D. Faciility not subject to the same emergency or disaster but still reasonably accessible
Term

What is specifically responsible for automating the preparation and maintenance of the files maintenance and disposition plan?

 

A. Electronic transaction system

B. Air Force records disposition schedule

C. Air Force records management program

D. Air Force records information management system

Definition
D. Air Force recods information management system
Term

The records information management system's files maintenance and disposition plan lists all of the following except...

 

A. the record's cutoff period

B. the disposition authorities

C. the location of each record series

D. all record series for the office of record

Definition
A. the record's cutoff period
Term

What type of labels does the records information management system print?

 

A. File drawer

B. Subdivision

C. Locator guide card

D. Decision logic table

Definition

B. Subdivision

Term

What is the first step in preparing the file plan for your office?

 

A. Finding the table and rule for each recordseries

B. Getting your office in the records information management system

C. Determining what type of records your office is responsible for maintaining

D. Organizing the records with the files referenced most towards the front of the cabinet

Definition
C.Determining what type of records your office is responsible for maintaining
Term

What identifies file records and provides the cutoff for the records?

 

A. File folders

B. Subdivision labels

C. Locator guide card

D. Disposition guide card

Definition
D. Disposition guide cards
Term

 When more than one item number is kept in the same file, disposition control labels are placed on...

 

A. the same guide card

B. separate guide cards

C. the first record in the file

D. the interior of the file folder

Definition

A. the same guide card

Term

Where are labels placed on the file folders?

 

A. On the left

B. On the right

C. Consistently

D. In the corner

Definition
C. Consistently
Term

Why is the file plan filed as the first item in a filing system?

 

A. The file plan falls under table 1-1, rule 01

B. To help retrieve filed documents efficiently

C. It's the table of contents for the filing system

D. The filing system doesn't identify the file plan

Definition
B. To help retrieve filed documents efficiently
Term

What gives the reader a reference trail to follow when a document is located somewhere else?

 

A. File plan

B. Directory

C. Memo for record

D. Cross-reference sheet

Definition
D. Cross-reference sheet
Term

What must you use to control the loan of records?

 

A. Air Force Form 614, Charge Out Record

B. Air Force Form 845, Cross-Connection Information

C. Department of Defense Form 2861, Cross-Reference

D. Air Force Form 388, Communication Control Record

Definition
A. Air Force Form 614, Charge Out Record
Term

What determination must be made before a record can be loaned to an authorized person?

 

A. Period of time the record is needed

B. Number of copies the individual will make

C. Determine how many people will have access to the records

D. Frequency of reference to teh requested material

Definition
A. Period of time the record is needed
Term

Each of the following is a description of files cutoff except...

 

A. physically stop adding records to a series

B. separating active records from inactive records

C. transfer of eligible records to the records staging area

D. point in time when records are no longer placed in the active file

Definition
C. transfer of eligible records to the records staging area
Term

On what is disposition based?

 

A. Time period or event

B. Specific action or disposition

C. Disposal method or time period

D. Retention period or specific action

Definition
A. Time period or event
Term

How does the records disposition program play a key role in the  management of Air Force records?

 

A. Preservation of classified records

B. Economic and efficient management

C. Eduring value for temporary records

D. Reference tools for commander's decisions

Definition

B. Economic and efficient management

Term

Who is authorized ot approve the permanent retention of records?

 

A. Air Force records manager

B. Airchivist of the United States

C.  United States records manager

D. National archives and records administration

Definition
B. Archivist of the United States
Term

When units change status but do not change function or mission, files are...

 

A. sent to the records staging area for the rest of their retention period

B. cut off the day before the effective date and kept as a separate entity

C. cut off the day after the effective date and kept by the current office as usual

D. continued and cutoff the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occured

Definition
D. continued and cutoff the same way and at the same time as if no change of status had occurred
Term

Who does the OPR submit and AF IMT 525, Records Disposition Recommendation to?

 

A. Records manager

B. Records custodian

C. Command records manager

D. Functional area records manager

Definition
A. Records manager
Term

What type of records does the staging area store?

 

A. Perpetual and temporary

B. Perpetual and transitory

C. Permanent and temporary

D. Permanent and transitory

Definition
C. Permanent and temporary
Term

How much remaining retention must records have to be shipped to a federal records center?

 

A. 2 years or more

B. 3 years or more

C. 8 years or more

D. 9 years or more

Definition
B. 3 years or more
Term

What type of records does the SF 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt, identify?

 

A. Records for transfer to another organization only

B. Retirement to a federal records center or staging center only

C. Transfer to another organization or retirement to a staging center only

D. Retirement to a federal records center, staging center, or transfer to another organization

Definition
D. Retirement to a federal records center, staging center, or transfer to another organization
Term

What should be done when shipping classified nad unclassified records?

 

A. Seperate the records before shipping

B. Combine the records to save on shipping cost

C. Classified records cannot be ship from a deployed location

D. Combine the records and annotate the records transmittal and receipt form

Definition
A. Seperate the records before shipping
Term

How are electronic records maintained in a deployed location?

 

A. According to each individual computer user

B. According to the records disposition schedule

C. As described in the vital records operating plan

D. In accordance with the DOD electronic records disposition tables

Definition
B. According to the records disposition schedule
Term

What does the staging area reviews to determine what records are eligible for disposal?

 

A.Disposition control label

B. Records disposition schedule

C. SF Form 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt

D. AF IMT 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate

Definition
C. SF Form 135, Records Transmittal and Receipt
Term

How are magnetic medium and tapes disposed of?

 

A. Degauss or overwrite

B. Through the base recycling program

C. Return to the communications squadron for destruction

D. Through the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office

Definition
A. Degauss or overwrite
Term

To recycle Privacy Act material, what must recycling contracts include?

 

A. Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction

B. Specific contract employees authorized to handle FOUO materials

C. Guidelines for transferring materials to the contract destination

D. Fee schedules for protecting and processing FOUO materials

Definition
A.  Specific contract clause on safeguarding privacy material until its destruction
Term

Data in a form that can be read and processed by a computer and satisfies the legal definitino of a record is a/an...

 

A. analog record

B. computer record

C. electronic record

D. controlled record

Definition
C. electronic record
Term

Who places official records in electronic file areas?

 

A. Users

B. Records Custodian

C. Base records manager

D. Functional area records manager

Definition
A. Users
Term

Who should read-only records access rights be given to?

 

A. Only records custodians

B. Official electronic records managers

C. Personnel who have a need to know

D. No one, records cannot be marked as read only in electronic records management

Definition
C. Personnel who have a need to know
Term

How must your electronic and paper filing systems function?

 

A. Jointly

B. Independent

C. Electronic systems must be sand-alone computer systems

D. Paper systems may not duplicate any portion of the electronic system

Definition
A. Jointly
Term

What is the fine that may be imposed for maintaining a Privacy Act record system that has not been published in the federal register or for making an unauthorized disclosure?

 

A. $5,000

B. $10,000

C. $15,000

D. $20,000

 

Definition
A. $5,000
Term

To reduce costly, ineffective, and redundant information collections and reporting requirements is the information collections and reports management programs'...

 

A. goal

B. mission

C. purpose

D. objective

Definition
C. purpose
Term

What is the fundamental policy for information collections and reports?

 

A. Establish procedures for all collection actions

B. Collect information through formal reports

C. Assign internal reprots control symbol

D. Control and minimize the burden

Definition
D. Control and minimize the burden
Term

What do the letters and numbers of a reports control symbol indicate?

 

A. The report has been reviewed and approved

B. The validity of the report and expiration date

C. The category of the report and its submission timeline

D. The frequency of submission and the approval authority

Definition
A. The report has been reviewed and approved
Term

What is the most effective and economical way to state policies and procedures?

 

A. E-mail

B. Publications

C. Intern messages

D. Official memorandums

Definition
B. Publications
Term

As technology advances, to what type of publishing system is the Air Force migrating?

 

A. DOD-wide

B. Air Force wide

C. Joint publications

D. Electronic publications

Definition
A. DOD-wide
Term

Who evaluates and approves request to establish special publication systems?

 

A. Local commander

B. Publications manager

C. Office of primary responsibility

D. Functional are records manager

Definition
B. Publications manager
Term

As a rule, how many days is the maximum a temporary visual aid should be displayed?

 

A. 30

B. 60

C. 90

D. 120

Definition
C. 90
Term

When should you establish a formal paper version requirement for publications?

 

A. Mission-related need and access to an official electronic source of publications

B. Mission-related need only

C. Defense automated printing serive approval and access to an official electronic source of publications

D. Access to an official electronic source of publications

Definition
B. Mission-related need only
Term

In which section of Part I of the Air Force publishing product announcement would you find general information?

 

A. Section A

B. Section B

C. Section C

D. Section D

Definition
D. Section D
Term

Which distribution symbol is for classified publications and stocked and issued by the OPR?

 

A. F

B. L

C. X

D. None, classified publications have no distribution symbol

Definition
C. X
Term

What type of distribution will not be placed on the Air Force publishing web site?

 

A. F and L

B. L and X

C. F and X

D. F, X, and L

Definition
B. L and X
Term

Which distribution symbol is the most widely used?

 

A. F

B. L

C. X

D. F, X

Definition
A. F
Term

When a basic directive is superseded, its supplement...

 

A. is destroyed

B. is superseded also

C. automatically stays in affect

D. is posted to the new pulication

Definition
C. automatically stays in affect
Term

When would a biennial review not be required?

 

A. Never, biennial reviews are always required

B. If a special review was performed within the last 90 days

C. If the publication has been identified to be revised

D. If the publication has been identified to be rescinded

Definition
B. If a special review was performed within the last 90 days
Term

What does the Air Force forms management program provide to help management capture information?

 

A. Data collection tools

B. Standard data elemets

C. Analytical data formats

 D. Most efficient way possible

Definition
A. Data collection tools
Term

In which section of  Part II of the product announcement would you information on salvage, disposa, or replacement?

 

A. Section A

B. Section B

C. Section C

D. Section D

Definition

B. Section B

Term

Who establishes standards and methods for analyzing, categorizing, designing, controlling, producing, and maintaining all departmental forms?

 

A. Air Force forms manager

B. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office

C. Air Force Departmental Publishing Center

D. Director of communications and information

Definition
B. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office
Term

Who has the responsibility to conduct a forms review every 2 years based on the creation date of a form?

 

A. Major command

B. Base forms manager

C. Office of primary responsibility (OPR)

D. Air Force Departmental Publishing Office

Definition
C. Office of primary responsibility (OPR)
Term

What type of form is used in two or more staff offices of a headquarters?

 

A. Field

B. Office

C. Headquarters

D. Departmental

Definition
C. Headquarters
Term

Which of the following is not a basis for a form's biennial review?

 

A. Date of creation

B. Revision of form

C. Date electronically released

D. Revision of prescribing directives

Definition
 C. Date electronically released
Term

Who initiates special and reprint forms reviews on an "as needed" basic?

 

A. OPR

B. Forms manager

C. Records manager

D. Publishing distribution office

Definition
B. Forms manager
Term

What type of IMT change affect the visual and physical image?

 

A. Master

B. Routine

C. Version

D. Revision

Definition
D. Revision
Term

How should responses to requests for information from news media representatives be handled?

 

A. Discouraged to eliminate privacy act violations

B. Discouraged so they can then follow the proper FOIA channel

C. Encouraged to invoke the information collection reports control system

D. Encouraged to eliminate the need for requestors to invoke the provision of the FOIA

Definition
D. Encouraged to eliminate the need for requestors to invoke the provision of the FOIA
Term

Who makes initial determinations on the type of request and processing provided a FOIA request?

 

A. Office of primary responsibility

B. Disclosure authority

C. FOIA manager

D. Requestor

Definition
C. FOIA manager
Term

Who is the focal point for the FOIA portion of the installation web site?

 

A. FOIA manager

B. System manager

C. Installation commander

D. Director, communication and information

Definition
A. FOIA manager
Term

When are fees for FOIA request automatically waived?

 

A. All assessable costs are $15.00 or less

B. A new record is compiled for the requestor

C. Only a portion of the requested records are released

D. The requestor has applied for a fee waiver/reduction

Definition
A. All assessable costs are $15.00 or less
Term

When must components provide a final response to a FOIA reques that complies with the requesting requirements?

 

A. 10 working days

B. 20 working days

C. 10 calendar days

D. 20 calendar days

Definition
B. 20 working days
Term

Which of the following is not a FOIA exemption?

 

A. Financial institutions

B. Investigative records

C. Administrative rules and practices

D. Internal personnel rules and practices

Definition
C. Administrative rules and practices
Term

Who, on base, completes the DD Form 2564, Annual Report Freedom of Information Act?

 

A. Records OPR

B. Base FOIA manager

C. Organizational commanders

D. Director, communication and information

Definition
B. Base FOIA manager
Term

Privacy Act officers are responsible for...

 

A. deciding the need for and content of systems

B. preparing system notices and reports

C. answering the privacy act requests

D. investigating complaints

Definition
D. investigating complaints
Term

Who is the focal point in a functional area for general privacy act questions?

 

A. System manager

B. Privacy act officer

C. Privacy act monitor

D. Air Force employees

Definition
C. Privacy act monitor
Term

What type of request allows other Air Force directives to give individuals access to Privacy Act records?

 

A. Official

B. Directed

C. Functional

D. Informationall

Definition
C. Functional
Term

Which element of a Privacy Act statement provides a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD?

 

A. Purpose

B. Authority

C. Disclosure

D. Routine Uses

Definition
D. Routine Uses
Term

What penalty can be imposed on an individual for making an unauthorized disclosure of Privacy Act information?

 

A. $5,000

B. $10,000

C. $5,000 fine plus up to 5 years imprisonment

D. $10,000 fine plus up to 5 years imprisonment

Definition
A. $5,000 fine
Term

Which type of personal information can be given to the third parties without the individuals consent?

 

A. Marital status

B. Home of record

C. Past duty assignments

D. Gross salary of military personnel

Definition
C. Past duty assignments
Term

What must the system manager do to avoid unauthorized disclosure of Privacy Act information?

 

A. Release information only to senior NCOs and officers

B. Question all requestors on the purpose of the request

C. Use additional security measures, regardless of cost

D. Verify the identity of all requestors

Definition
D. Verify the identity of all requestors
Term

What is used to determine the disposal of Privacy Act records?

 

A. For Official Use Only register

B. Squadron policy

C. Records retention schedule

D. Privacy act disposition list

Definition
C. Records retention schedule
Term

Why is a transfer of large quantities of Privacy Act records in bulk to the defense reutilization and marketing office not considered a release of personal information?

 

A. The contract covers transfer of Privacy Act information

B. Defense reutilization and marketing office is a government agency

C. Sheer volume makes it difficult to readily identify specific indiviual records

D. All defense reutilization and marketing office personnel are designated representatives

Definition
C. Sheer volume makes it difficult to readily identify specific individual records
Term

When are For Official Use Only records marked?

 

A. When they are created

B. In review for release

C. Ony when they are sent off base

D. When someone asks to see the markings

Definition
A. When they are created
Term

What exemptions must information marked FOUO meets under the freedom of information act or it cannot be withheld?

 

A. 1 and 9

B. 1 through 9

C. 2 and 9

D. 2 through 9

Definition
D. 2 through 9
Term

What protection is applied to FOUO documents during normal duty hours?

 

A. Place them in an out-of-sight location

B. Cover them with a classified cover sheet

C. Lock them in a classified storage container

D. Personnel shoudl keep them in their possession at all times

Definition
A. Place them in an out-of-sight location
Term

What actions are appropriate when unauthorized disclosure of FOUO records occur?

 

A. Corrective administrative actions, criminal investigation, and notify originating organization

B. Apppropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, discilinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization

C. Process paperwork for criminal or civil sanctions, brief all personnel of occurrence, and notify the originating organization

D. Notify originatin organization, follow guidance provided by that organiztion, and investigate all events that led to the occurrence

Definition
B. Appropriate administrative actions to fix the cause, disciplinary actions as needed, and notify the originating organization
Term

On the average, about what percentage of a communication do you write in the active voice to communicate effective?

 

A. 15

B. 25

C. 50

D. 75

Definition

D. 75

Term

In order to deliver a clear message, you should use sentences that are no longer than...

 

A. 15 words

B. 20 words

C. 30 words

D. 40 words

Definition
D. 40 words
Term

What is the main difference between an official memorandum and a personal folder?

 

A. Audience

B. Content

C. Format

D. Style

Definition
C. Format
Term

What type of memorandum for record is an in-house document to record information that would otherwise not be recorded in writing?

 

A. Brief

B. Official

C. Explanatory

D. Separate page

Definition
D. Separate page
Term

Multipurpose written briefs that provide information, forward items of interest, or summarize problems are...

 

A. briefings

B. position papers

C. background papers

D. memorandums for record

Definition
C. background papers
Term

Who is responsible for safeguarding his or her common access care and the personnel identification number?

 

A. User

B. Commander

C. Security Officer

D. System administrator

Definition
A. User
Term

Who ensures that action offices package and address communications correctly and that essential mailing elements stand out?

 

A. Base information transfer center

B. Activity distribution office

C. Official mail manager

D. Activity action office

Definition
B. Activity distribution office
Term

What must you do with unsealed containers endorsed "DO NOT FORWARD' that remain in action offices at the close of business?

 

A. Place in an opaque container and have the highest-rank individual take it home

B. Inspect to determine classification of contents and protect them accordinly

C. Return to the base information transfer center for safeguarding

D. Seal container and store in a classified storage container

Definition
B. Inspect to determine classification of contents and protect them accordingly
Term

Which mail class is for use only by authorized publishers and registered newsagents?

 

A. Priorit

B. First class

C. Periodicals

D. Standard mail

Definition
C. Periodicals
Term

What type of security classification involves information that is extracted or paraphrased?

 

A. Original

B. Compiled

C. Derivative

D. Consolidated

Definition
C. Derivative
Term

Who determines whether the recipient has a legitimate need for access to the classified information?

 

A. Processor

B. Commander

C. Security manager

D. Original classifier

Definition
A. Processor
Term

Who is responsible for protecting and accounting for classified material at all times?

 

A. Custodians

B. Commanders

C. Information managers

D. Top Secret control officers

Definition
A. Custodians
Term

What are the appropriate procedures for handling classified information that you remove from an approved storage container?

 

A. Place in a manila folder and keep it with the person with the highest rank

B. Notify security forces upon removal of information from the container

C. Keep under constant watch and turn it face down or cover it with a cover sheet

D. Classified information should not be removed from an approved storage container

Definition
C. Keep under constant watch and turn it face down or cover it with a cover sheet
Term

The purpose of conducting end-of-day security checks in units that process classified information is to ensure...

 

A. the facility is locked

B. classified accounts are inventoried

C. all checklists are properly initialed

D. classified information is stored appropriately

Definition
D. classified information is stored appropriately
Term

What is any knowing, willful, or negligent action that could reasonably be expected to result in an unauthorized disclosure of classified information?

 

A. Sanction

B. Violation

C. Infraction

D. Compromise

Definition
B. Violation
Term

Which is not a purpose of classified markings and designations?

 

A. Give information on the source

B. Provide guidance on disposition of records

C.  Alert holders to the presence of classified information

D. Show special access, control, or safeguarding requirements

Definition
B. Provide guidance on disposition of records
Term

Where is the overall classification placed on slides and transparencies?

 

A. Image area of the item only

B. Border, holder, or frame only

C. Image area of the item and border, holder, or frame

D. Image area of the item and on the accompanying documentation

Definition
C. Image area of the item and border, holder, or frame
Term

To help control accountable communications while in the Air Force channels, the Air Force uses...

 

A. container numbers

B. consolidated shipments

C. AF Form 74, Communication Status Notice/Request

D. AF F 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate

Definition
A. container numbers
Term

What two items, used together, enable us to trace a container from the sender through the base information transfer system into the US Postal Service, and on the the receiver?

 

A. AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt, and AF Form 310, Accountable Container Receipt

B. AF Form 74, Communication Status Notice/Request, and AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt

C. Container numbers and AF Form 310, Document Receipt and Destruction Certificate

D. Container numbers and AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt

Definition
D. Container numbers and AF Form 12, Accountable Container Receipt
Term

The best choice for ensuring accountable containers stay in a controlled environment is to mail them...

 

A. insured

B. express

C. certified

D. registered

Definition

D. registered

Term

When you mail classified material, address containers to the...

 

A. Unit Top Secret control office

B.  office that is to take action on it

C. base information security program manager

 D. specific person identified as the point of contact

Definition
B. office that is to take action on it
Term

Who is responsible for ensuring an adequate local destruction facility exists?

 

A. Installation commander

B. Central destruction activity

C. Support group commander

D. Base information management

Definition
A. Installation commander
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