1)Why is it important to mark underground facilities, when the earth's surface is moved, removed, or displaced?

a) To minimize damage

b) To have a uniform color code

c) To maximize conservation of resources

d) To enforce American Public Works Association guidelines

a) To minimize damage

2)What guideline is encouraged by APWA to adopt to mark underground facilities?

a) Transient Electromagnetic Pulse Emanation Standard

b) Utility and Public Right-ot-Way

c) Underwriters Laboratories

d) To enforce American Public Works Association guidelines

b) Utility and Public Right-of-Way

3)What color is used to mark sewer and drain lines?

a) Blue

b) White

c) Green

d) Purple

c) Green

4)What are three main functions of grounding?

a) Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction.

b) Signal amplification, personnel safety, and emissions securtiy

c) Equipment protection, signal amplification, and capacitance reaction

d) Corrosion prevention, emissions securtiy, and over-voltage protection

a) Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction

5)What facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors?

a) The earth electrode subsystem

b) The fault protection subsystem

c) The signal reference subsystem

d) The lightning protection subsystem

d) The lightning protection subsystem

6)What facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground?

a) The earth electrode subsystem

b) The fault protection subsystem

c) The signal reference subsystem

d) The lightning protection subsystem

b) The fault protection subsystem

7)Grounding resistance should be no higher than what value for a military C-E facility?

a) 10 ohms

b) 15 ohms

c) 20 ohms

d) 25 ohms

a) 10 ohms

8)What should you ensure before disconnecting an equipment ground?

a) Equipment power is off

b) Electrical charges are neutralized

c) Ground connection is complete and tightly fastened.

d) Lockout tagout procedures are implemented

a) Equipment power is off

9)At what distance should the rods be spaced in a multi-rod grounding configuration?

a) 0.5 to 2 times the length of the longest rod in the system

b) 1.5 to 3 times the length of the longest rod in the system

c) 2.5 to 4 times the length of the longest rod in the system

d) 3.5 to 5 times the length of the longest rod in the system

b) 1.5 to 3 times the length of the longest rod in the system

10)What is the samllest gauge that can be used for interconnecting wires in a grounding grid?

a) #2 AWG

b) #4 AWG

c) #6 AWG

d) #8 AWG

c) #6 AWG

11)For transportable equipment, how deep should a grounding rod be driven when attaching a splice connection for lightning protction?

a) 1 foot

b) 3 feet

c) 5 feet

d) 7 feet

b) 3 feet

12)What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces?

a) Bonding

b) Shielding

c) Annealing

d) Grounding

a) Bonding

13)What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds?

a) None

b) Brazing

c) Welding

d) Mechanical

d) Mechanical

14)What security discipline is used to deny access to classified and, in some instances, unclassified information and contain compromising emanations within an inspectable space?

a) COMPUSEC

b) TEMPEST

c) COMSEC

d) EMSEC

d) EMSEC

15)What is known as a set of standards for limiting electric or electromagnetic radiation?

a) COMPUSEC

b) TEMPEST

c) COMSEC

d) EMSEC

b) TEMPEST

16)Within what area are you required to maintain compromising emanations?

a) Within the profile

b) Within the equipment

c) Within the inspectable space

d) Within the classified transmission

c) Within the inspectable space

17)What equipment should be designated as RED?

a) Equipment processing encrypted, classified information

b) Equipment processing clear-text, classified information

c) Equipment processing unencrypted, unclassified information

d) Equipment processing clear-text, unclassified information

b) Equipment processing clear-text, classified information

18)What form is frequently used to initiate the need for a new communications service?

a) AF IMT 9, Request for Purchase

b) AF IMT 2005, Issue/Turn-In Request

c) AF IMT 3064, Contract Progress Schedule

d) AF IMT 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document

d) AF IMT 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document

19)What identifies maintenance, software, hardware, security requirements, technical data, ciruits, supplies, and requred follow on support (i.e., maintenance)?

a) Site survey

b) Technical Solution

c) Certificate to Operate

d) Project support Agreement

b) Technical Solution

20)For wireless communications requirements, who must be consulted when assessing impact?

a) Base frequency manager

b) Land mobile radio manager

c) MAJCOM program manager

d) Systems control facility manager

a) Base frequency manager

21)What is the threshold dollar value of equipment that is placed on CA/CRL?

a) Over $1,000

b) Over $1,500

c) Over $2,000

d) Over $2,500

d) Over $2,500

22)What prescribes items and quantities of equipment authorized to perform the assigned systems control peacetime and wartime missions?

a) Table of Allowance 417

b) Document Register D04

c) Test, Measurement, and diagnostic Equipment listings

d) Communications-Computer Systems Installation Records

a) Table of allowance 417

23)At what frequency does PMEL provide the TMDE Master ID Listing?

a) Every month

b) Every three months

c) Every six months

d) Every year

b) Every three months

24)Who maintains a central repository of CSIR information for the Air Force?

a) Air Force Communications Agency

b) Air Force Institute of Technology

c) Engineering Data Service Center

d) Technology Repair Center

c) Engineering Data Service Center

25)How are cables labeled?

a) The first lavel is placed within 6 inches and marked "TO"; the second label is placed within one inch of the first label and marked "FROM"

b) The first lavel is placed within 6 inches and marked "TO"; the second label is placed within two inches of the first label and marked "FROM"

c) The first lavel is placed within 12 inches and marked "TO"; the second label is placed within one inch of the first label and marked "FROM"

d) The first lavel is placed within 12 inches and marked "TO"; the second label is placed within two inches of the first label and marked "FROM"

d) The first lavel is placed within 12 inches and marked "TO"; the second label is placed within two inches of the first label and marked "FROM"

26)Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation?

a) Prevent eavesdropping

b) To aid in troubleshooting

c) Reduce transmission loss

d) Minimize potential damage

c) Reduce transmission loss

27)What gauge wire is the minimum un-skinned sized used for punch-down?

a) 20 AWG

b) 22 AWG

c) 24 AWG

d) 26 AWG

d) 26 AWG

28)Who primarily used AFMQCCs?

a) Quality Assurance

b) Chief of Maintenance

c) Information Assurance

d) Inspector General team

a) Quality Assurance

29)Who authorizes the use of local MQCCs?

a) Quality Assurance

b) Chief of Maintenance

c) Information Assurance

d) Inspector General team

b) Chief of Maintenance

30)What is used to provide the means to issue optional or temporary modifications on C-E equipment?

a) Preventitive Maintenance Inspection

b) Local Maintenance Quality Control Checksheets

c) Air Force Maintenance Quality Control Checksheets

d) Air Force Communications-Electronics Maintenance Instructions

d) Air Force Communications-Electronics Maintenance Instructions

31)What secondary cell is prone to the "memory effect?"

a) Lithium

b) Alkaline

c) Lead-acid

d) Nickel cadmium

d) Nickel cadmium

32)What power line fault category is symptomatic of short term decrease in voltage levels?

a) Sag

b) Spike

c) Noise

d) Blackout

a) Sag

33)What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power?

a) Sag

b) Spike

c) Noise

d) Blackout

d) Blackout

34)What power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous of dramatic increase in voltage?

a) Sag

b) Spike

c) Noise

d) Blackout

b) Spike

35)What type of UPS utilizes a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power?

a) Passive Standby

b) Line Interactive

c) Double Conversion

d) Ferro resonant Standby

b) Line Interactive

36)What type of UPS offers the hightest level of protection?

a) Passive Standby

b) Line Interactive

c) Double Conversion

d) Ferro resonant Standby

c) Double Conversion

37)How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications?

a) Single-phase power

b) Double-phase power

c) Three-phase power

d) Four-phase power

c) Three-phase power

38)What part of the power generation process allows a smooth transition of electrical current between multiple sources and the load?

a) Filter

b) Battery Bank

c) Voltage Sensor

d) Automatic Transfer Switch

d) Automatic Transfer Switch

39)In the first phase of the bare electrical system installation, what provides electric power to critical functions?

a) Mobile electric power

b) Facility distribution panel

c) primary distribuiton center

d) uninterruptible power supply

a) mobile electric power

40)How much clearance is needed in front of the radiator end of a MEP-012A?

a) 12.5 feet

b) 25 feet

c) 50 feet

d) 100 feet

c) 50 feet

41)What model of the MEP-PU-810 is designed for road use and meets Department of Transportation requirements?

a) A Model

b) B Model

c) C Model

d) D Model

b) B Model

42)What is the key point about AEF?

a) Air Force capability to meet COCOM requirements while simultaneously reconstituting the rest of the force so that the capability can be provided on a sustained basis

b) Management of the personnel force by bringing predictability and stability to our Airmen durin steady state

c) It is how we organize, train, and equip our Air Force to deploy and employ Airmen to meet today's challenges

d) a methodology to reduce the number of TDYs or deployments

a) Air Force capability to meet COCOM requirements while simultaneously reconstituting the rest of the force so that the capability can be provided on a sustained basis

43)How long is a standard deployment rotation within the 20 month AEF cycle?

a) Two months

b) Three months

c) Four months

d) Five months

c) Four months

44)Within the AEF battle rythm, what environment is operaional when all combatant commander requirements are accommodated with the AEF pair scheduled by the "on call" pair?

a) Steady State

b) Surge/Crisis

c) Transition

d) Redeployment

a) Steady State

45)Within the AEF battle rythm, what environment is operational when the AIR Force reaches forward and pulls capability from the next AEF pair not currently scheduled?

a) Steady State

b) Surge/Crisis

c) Transition

d) Redeployment

b) Surge/Crisis

46)What is the process of UTC posturing?

a) Outlines each measured unit's capabilities

b) a methodology to reduce the number of TDYs or deployments

c) identifying and makin availble a unit's trained and ready capable UTCs

d) Enable commanders to report the ability of a standard UTC to perform its MISCAP

c) Identifying and making available a unit's trained and ready capable UTCs

47)What type of UTC is identified as a standard UTC?

a) Associate

b) Deployable

c) War/Crisis

d) Steady State

b) Deployable

48)Who registers and approves UTC postured in the AEF Library and AFWUS?

a) The appropriate MAJCOM aurthority

b) The appropriate NAF authority

c) The appropriate Wing authority

d) The appropriate Group authority

a) The appropriate MAJCOM authority

49)What deployment phase involves the actual movement of troops, cargo, weapons systems, or a combination of these elements?

a) Readiness

b) Predeployment

c) Deployment

d) Employment

c) Deployment

50)What system initially handles Air and Space Operations Center duties?

a) Rivet Joint

b) Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

c) Airborne Warning and Control System

d) Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System

c) Airborne Warning and Control System

51)What deployment phase involves communications equipment being put in-place and commissioned into service?

a) Readiness

b) Predeployment

c) Deployment

d) Employment

d) Employment

52)What deployable communications system is a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infractructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications via line of sight, satellite, or hard wired resources?

a) Battlefiel Control System-Mobile

b) Theater Deployable Communications

c) Deployable Air Traffic Control Systems

d) Theater Battle Management Core System

b) Theater Deployable Communications

53)What ICAP module can connect up to eight of its kind to form a large voice switch and segment a local are network?

a) Crypto Module

b) Red Data Module

c) Basic Access Module

d) Raio Frequency Module

c) Basic Access Module

54)What ICAP module provides data secrity for Internet Protocol backbone and local network devices using the IP to exchange data from nodes of a larger network and external military facilities?

a) Crypto Module

b) Crypto Interface Module

c) Radio Frequency Module

d) Promina Multiplexer Module

b) Crypto Interface Module

55)What ICAP module provides encryption/decryption capability for aggregate data channels that interface to legacy communications terminals and the FTSAT?

a) Crypto Module

b) Crypto Interface Module

c) Radio Frequency Module

d) Promina Multiplexer Module

a) Crypto Module

56)What ICAP module provides a wireless line-of-site microwave for extending modules more than 10 kilometers from the main node?

a) Red Data Module

b) Basic Acces Module

c) Radio Frequency Module

d) Promina Multiplexer Module

c) Radio Frequency Module

57)What ICAP module provides a secure interface for computer workstations and local network devices using IP to exchange classified data between nodes of the network?

a) Red Data Module

b) Basic Access Module

c) Radio Frequency Module

d) Promina Multiplexer Module

a) Red Data Module

58)What major system of DATCALS has a TPN-24 Airport surveillance Tadar system?

a) TRN-26 TACAN

b) MSN-7 Mobile Tower

c) TPN-19 Air Traffic Control

d) TPN-25 Precision Approach Radar

c) TPN-19 Air Traffic Control

59)What major system of DATCALS provide radio navigation information (bearing, identification, and distance)?

a) TRN-26 TACAN

b) MSN-7 Mobile Tower

c) TPN-19 Air Traffic Control

d) TPN-25 Precision Approach Radar

a) TRN-26 TACAN

60)What is the deployment response time of 85 EIS of personnel and resources when tasked?

a) 24 hrs

b) 48 hrs

c) 72 hrs

d) 96 hrs

b) 48 hrs

61)What is the senior element of the Theater Air Control System?

a) Air & Space Operations Center

b) Air Support Operations Center

c) Control andRreporting Center

d) Tactical Air Control Party

a) Air & Space Operations Center

62)What lead palnning document provides specific instructions to include call signs, targets, sorties, controlling agencies, etc., as well as general instructions?

a) Operaional Plan

b) Air Tasking Order

c) Air Order of Battle

d) AEF Reporting Tool

b) Air Tasking Order

63)What AOC communications support team contains personnel with specific working knowledge of the AOC mission, oversee site operations, and provide direct C4I system and communications support to the AOC?

a) C2 Systems

b) AOC Networks

c) Communications Focal Point

d) AOC Weapon Systems Help Desk

c) Communications Focal Point

64)What AOC communications support team ensures servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and sofware is on-line and available to the user?

a) C2 Systems

b) AOC Networks

c) Communications Focal Point

d) AOC Weapon Systems Help Desk 

a) C2 Systems

65)What AOC communications support team support may include: Transmission Systems; Power Production; Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning; Transportation?

a) AOC Weapon Systems Help Desk 

b) Communications Focal Point

c) AOC Area Support

d) Data Links

c) AOC Area Support

66)What agencies does each BCS-F site communicate with utilizing Forward Tell?

a) Cheyenne Mountain Operaions Center and Continental United States North American Aerospace Defense Command Region

b) 85th Engineering & Installation Squadron and Air Combat Command Communications Group

c) 552nd Air Control Wing and Air Force Communications Agency

d) 55th Wing and Air Force Pentagon Communications Agency

a) Cheyenne Mountain Operaions Center and Continental United States North American Aerospace Defense Command Region

67)The AOC normally passes scramble and control authority to whom for allocated sorties and establishes coordinated procedures to facilitate authrorized diversion of preplanned missions?

a) Communications Focal Point

b) Air Support Operaions Center

c) Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center

d) Frequency Manager in Combat Plans Division

b) Air Support Operaions Center

68)What aircraft provides all-weather surveillance, command, control and communications needed by commanders of US, NATO and other allied air defense force?

a) Rivet Joint

b) Airborne Warning and Control System

c) Global Hawk Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

d) Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System

b) Airborne Warning and Control System

69)What aircraft supports theater and national level consumers with near real time on-scene intelligence collection, analysis and dissemination capabilities?

a) Rivet Joint

b) Airborne Warning and Control System

c) Global Hawk Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

d) Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System

a) Rivet Joint

70)What ground station is the primary system that provides mission preparation and rapid post-mission data anlysis for Rivet Joint?

a) Ground Data Processing Station

b) Intermediate Collection Module

c) Ground Theater Air Control System

d) Data Exploitation, Mission Planning and Communications

a) Ground Data Processing Station

71)What aircraft has a primary mission to provide theater ground and air commanders with ground serveillance?

a) Rivet Joint

b) Airborne Warning and Control System

c) Global Hawk Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

d) Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System

d) Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System

72)What associated sensor system allows the Predator UAV to image targets through clouds, camouflage netting, and other non-metallic coverings?

a) Infrared

b) Electro-Optical

c) Rotating radar dome

d) Synthetic aperture radar

b) Electro-Optical

73)The HAE CGS is able to control up to

a) two HAE UAV systems at a time

b) three HAE UAV systems at a time

c) four HAE UAV systems at a time

d) five HAE UAV systems at a time

b) three HAE UAV systems at a time

74)What SATCOM system does sensor imagery disseminated from the Predator ground control station?

a) Trojan Spirit II

b) Milstar Terminal

c) Dark Star Tier III Minus

d) Flyaway Triband Satellite Terminal

a) Trojan Spirit II