1. In what colors is the localizer shelter generally painted?

a.    international orange and white

b.    olive drab and black

c.    brown and tan

d.    red and white

Answer:

a.    international orange and white

2. How many assemblies support each localizer antenna?

a.    1

b.    2

c.    3

d.    4

Answer:

b.    2

3. For what type of operation is the localizer station designed?

a.    local control

b.    remote control

c.    continuous unmanned operation

d.    intermittent unmanned operation

Answer:

c.    continuous unmanned operation

4. What is the frequency range of the transmitters in the localizer station?

a.    108 to 112 MHz

b.    324 to 336 MHz

c.    962 to 1213 MHz

d.    2250 to 2259 MHz

Answer:

a.    108 to 112 MHz

5. How many RF outputs are connected to the localizer antenna system for the course transmitter?

a.    1

b.    2

c.    3

d.    4

Answer:

b.    2

6. What are the modulation frequencies in the localizer course transmitter?

a.    90, 150 and 2250 Hz

b.    150 and 2259 Hz

c.    90 and 2259 Hz

d.    90, 150, and 1020 Hz

Answer:

d.    90, 150, and 1020 Hz

7. What is the nominal carrier plus sideband output power of the course transmitter in the localizer?

a.    10 W

b.    15 W

c.    20 W

d.    25 W

Answer:

b.    15 W

8. What are the coverage limits of the localizer within +/- 10 degrees if the runway centerline?

a.    14 miles

b.    16 miles

c.    18 miles

d.    20 miles

Answer:

c.    18 miles

9. Inside the control unit, which switch prevents the monitors from shutting down or changing transmitters?

a.    ON/OFF

b.    EXEC Control

c.    Bypass/Normal

d.    LOCAL/REMOTE

Answer:

c.    Bypass/Normal

10. During initial turn on of the localizer station, what is the proper setting for the course transmitter keyer switch?

a.    Bypass

b.    Normal

c.    OFF

d.    ON

Answer:

b.    Normal

11. In a perfectly aligned localizer system, what would be the condition of the 90 and 150 predominant lamps?

a.    90 ON

b.    150 ON

c.    alternating ON/OFF

d.    Both would be OFF

Answer:

c.    alternating ON/OFF

12. What is the first basic operation of the localizer station?

a.    monitoring the radiated pattern

b.    controlling the transmitter

c.    radiating the pattern

d.    updating the status

Answer:

c.    radiating the pattern

13. What navigational grid radiates an electronic pattern representing an extension of runway centerline?

a.    glideslope

b.    localizer

c.    TACAN

d.    VOR

Answer:

b.    localizer

14. In the localizer, at what frequency is the CRS (Course) carrier transmitted?

a.    SAF

b.    SAF +4.75 KHz

c.    SAF -4.75 KHz

d.    SAF -4.00 KHz

Answer:

b.    SAF +4.75 KHz

15. What is the frequency of the tone coded to provide station ID (Identification)?

a.    770 Hz

b.    1020 Hz

c.    1410 Hz

d.    2250 Hz

Answer:

b.    1020 Hz

16. Which assembly monitors the integrity of the antenna cables?

a.    course monitor

b.    antenna monitor

c.    far field monitor

d.    clearance monitor

Answer:

a.    course monitor

17. Which parameter is not checked by the localizer clearance transmitters?

a.    Identification percent modulation

b.    Radio frequency level

c.    frequency difference

d.    course width

Answer:

c.    frequency difference

18. Which unit controls the localizer clearance transmitters?

a.    control unit

b.    changeover unit

c.    clearance monitors

d.    course transmitters

Answer:

d.    course transmitters

19. The output frequency of the synthesized frequency source in the localizer course tranmitter is

a.    55 kHz

b.    460.8 kHz

c.    4.75 kHz above the SAF

d.    4.75 kHz below the SAF

Answer:

c.    4.75 kHz above the SAF

20. The modulation required to produce the localizer signals originates from what assembly in the course transmitter?

a.    Exciter assembly

b.    modulator assembly

c.    diode switching network

d.    90/150 Hz generator assembly

Answer:

d.    90/150 Hz generator assembly

21. how does the output frequency of the localizer clearance transmitter compare to the assigned localizer station frequency?

a.    4.0 kHz above

b.    4.0 kHz below

c.    4.75 kHz above

d.    4.75 kHz below

Answer:

d.    4.75 kHz below

22. In the localizer, when carrier no. 1 is routed to the transmitter, carrier no. 2 is routed to the

a.    contrl unit

b.    dummy loads

c.    changeover unit

d.    distribution unit

Answer:

b.    dummy loads

23. Localizer clearance carrier-plus sideband and sideband only is fed to

a.    the inner four antenna pairs

b.    antenna pairs 1-5

c.    antenna pairs 3-6

d.    all antennas

Answer:

d.    all antennas

24. The localizer clearance signals are applied simultaneously to the

a.    entire antenna array

b.    middle antennas

c.    outer antennas

d.    inner antennas

Answer:

d.    inner antennas

25. Samples of the localizer radiated signals are provided to the radio frequency (RF) combining network by

a.    sampling loops in each log periodic dipole

b.    the clearance frequency distribution unit

c.    the course frequency distribution unit

d.    integral detectors

Answer:

a.    sampling loops in each log periodic dipole

26. When might a single frequency localizer be installed?

a.    when the localizer is installed on a category I airfield

b.    when the localizer is installed on a category III airfield

c.    when a dual-frequency localizer would cause interference

d.    when forward terrain is free of major obstructions and terrain problems

Answer:

d.    when forward terrain is free of major obstructions and terrain problems

27. In a single-frequency localizer using eight antennas, what is the side band only (SBO) and carrier plus sideband (CSB) phase relationship between the two antennas of each pair?

a.    SBO in phase; CSB in phase

b.    SBO in phase; CSB 180 degrees out of phase

c.    SBO 180 degrees out of phase, CSB in phase

d.    SBO 180 degrees out of phase, CSB 180 degrees out of phase

Answer:

c.    SBO 180 degrees out of phase, CSB in phase

28. In a single-frequency localizer, how is the course width maintained between 4.5 - 5.0 degrees?

a.    By increasing the transmitter sideband only (SBO) power output to the antennas

b.    By increasing the transmitter carrier plus sideband (CSB) power output to the antennas

c.    By de-phasing the SBO and increasing the CSB modulation percentage

d.    By tailoring the antenna power levels, a-spacing, and

pair-to-pair phasing

Answer:

d.    By tailoring the antenna power levels, a-spacing, and

pair-to-pair phasing

29. What is the minimum ddm value that will be indicated outside the course width points in a single-frequency localizer using 14 antennas?

a.    0.155 ddm

b.    0.175 ddm

c.    0.200 ddm

d.    0.240 ddm

Answer:

c.    0.200 ddm

30. If an antenna of the localizer antenna array is moved slightly, it will most likely cause

a.    a transmitter changeover

b.    an abnormal condition

c.    a cable fault alarm

d.    a station shutdown

Answer:

b.    an abnormal condition

31. Which parameter is not checked by the localizer course monitors?

a.    frequency separation

b.    radio frequency (RF) level

c.    identification (ID) percent modulation

d.    Width differency in depth of modulation (DDM)

Answer:

a.    frequency separation

32. what is the frequency of the clock pulse generated by the timing assembly in a localizer course monitor?

a.    460.8 kHz

b.    500.8 kHz

c.    512.4 kHz

d.    602.5 kHz

Answer:

a.    460.8 kHz

33. What is one purpose of the control unit in the glide slope station?

a.    generates radio frequency signals

b.    provides operating voltage

c.    automatic control

d.    monitoring

Answer:

c.    automatic control

34. In a glideslope, which situation causes a fault condition and initiates equipment transfer?

a.    abnormal shelter temperature

b.    abnormal primary power

c.    single monitor alarms

d.    dual monitor alarms

Answer:

c.    single monitor alarms

35. Which reference is not a monitored parameter in the glide slope?

a.    path difference in depth of modulation

b.    width difference in depth of modulation

c.    path radio frequency level

d.    ident percent of modulation

Answer:

d.    ident percent of modulation

36. Which signal is not an output status tone of the control unit?

a.    705 Hz

b.    1,410 Hz

c.    2,350 Hz

d.    2,820 Hz

Answer:

c.    2,350 Hz

37. At turn-on of a glide slope station, what actions do you take to prevent the monitors from shutting down the transmitters before they stabilize?

a.    keep the monitors off for an extra 10 seconds

b.    place the executive bypass switch into the bypass position

c.    place the monitor bypass/normal switch in the bypass position

d.    turn only one monitor on, wait 10 seconds then turn the other on

Answer:

c.    place the monitor bypass/normal switch in the bypass position

38. Which glide slope control unit lamp indicates an abnormal condition?

a.    red

b.    green

c.    white

d.    yellow

Answer:

d.    yellow

39. What two radio frequency (RF) signals are generated by the null-reference glide slope transmitter?

a.    CSB and SBO

b.    CSB and SBC

c.    SBC and OSB

d.    SBO and SBC

Answer:

a.    CSB and SBO

40. In the null-reference glide slope, what signal or signals are applied to the lower antenna?

a.    carrier-plus sideband and clearance

b.    clearance and sideband only

c.    carrier-plus sideband only

d.    sideband only

Answer:

c.    carrier-plus sideband only

41. Which glide slope unit provides manual and automatic control for the station?

a.    monitor

b.    transmitter?

c.    control unit

d.    changeover unit

Answer:

c.    control unit

42. In the glide slope, what signals do the integral detectors provide to the monitors?

a.    path and width

b.    ident and width

c.    course and width

d.    percent modulation and path

Answer:

a.    path and width

43. In the glide slope, what happens if the main transmitter is on and both monitors detect a radiated fault?

a.    Main transmitter is turned off and standby transmitter is turned on

b.    Main transmitter and standby transmitter are turned off

c.    Main transmitter is turned off and back on

d.    Main transmitter is turned off only

Answer:

a.    Main transmitter is turned off and standby transmitter is turned on

44. When operating an instrument landing system as category II, the pilot must be able to fly inbound to a point

a.    above the inner marker

b.    above the middle marker

c.    above the runway threshold

d.    where the aircraft makes its touchdown on the runway

Answer:

c.    above the runway threshold

45. Instrument landing system points A, B, C, D, and E, are used to define the limits of

a.    coverage

b.    touchdown areas

c.    approach zone limits

d.    category I, II, and III systems

Answer:

c.    approach zone limits

46. Instrument landing system point A is located

a.    above the runway threshold

b.    2 nautical miles from the runway threshold

c.    4 nautical miles from the runway threshold

d.    5 to 7 nautical miles from the runway threshold

Answer:

c.    4 nautical miles from the runway threshold

47. The localizer clearance sectors are identified as

a.    90, 90 + 150, and 150

b.    front and back

c.    A, B, and C

d.    1, 2, and 3

Answer:

d.    1, 2, and 3

48. which type of flight check is designed to obtain complete information as to facility performance and to establish that the facility can support its operational requirements

a.    commissioning

b.    site evaluation

c.    periodic

d.    special

Answer:

a.    commissioning

49. Which Air Force manual (AFMAN) contains tolerances and definitions used during a flight inspection?

a.    11-222

b.    11-225

c.    11-252

d.    11-558

Answer:

b.    11-225

50. the responsibility of providing two-way communication from the navigational aid site to the aircraft belongs to the

a.    work center supervisor

b.    flight check crew

c.    flight inspector

d.    commander

Answer:

a.    work center supervisor

51. all possible ground calibration and checking must be done

a.    during flight check

b.    before flight check arrival

c.    after flight check departure

d.    as directed by flight check personel

Answer:

b.    before flight check arrival

52. Of the flight check personnel, who is often referred to as the panel operator?

a.    pilot

b.    theodolite operator

c.    flight inspection pilot

d.    flight inspection technician

Answer:

d.    flight inspection technician

53. Of the flight check personnel, who do you usually talk to over the radio during a flight inspection?

a.    Pilot

b.    theodolite operator

c.    flight inspection pilot

d.    flight inspection technician

Answer:

d.    flight inspection technician

54. Which piece of equipment is calibrated by the theo to transmit a signal to the aircraft?

a.    theodolite

b.    collins signal generator?

c.    radio telemetering theodolite

d.    automatic flight inspection system

Answer:

c.    radio telemetering theodolite

55. The angular or linear displacement of a positional or directional element from its normal reference describes

a.    course scalloping

b.    an alignment error

c.    the course width

d.    roughness

Answer:

b.    an alignment error

56. In flight check terminology, rhythmic excursions of the electromagnetic course or path are called

a.    course scalloping

b.    alignment error

c.    roughness

d.    bends

Answer:

a.    course scalloping

57. the angular deviation required to produce a full-scale course deviation indication of the airborne navigational instrument describes

a.    course scalloping

b.    alignment error

c.    course width

d.    structure

Answer:

c.    course width

58. The flight check tolerance for the localizer width check is

a.    ± 17 percent of the engineered width

b.    ± 7.5 percent of the engineered width

c.    ± 17 percent of the commissioned width

d.    ± 7.5 percent of the commissioned width

Answer:

c.    ± 17 percent of the commissioned width 

59. What glide slope flight inspection procedure checks phasing of the sideband only (SBO) signal in relationship to the carrier-plus sideband (CSB) signal?

a.    structure

b.    modulation level

c.    advance and retard

d.    normal width/angle/symmetry

Answer:

c.    advance and retard

60. The tolerances for the glide angle is what percent of the commissioned angle?

a.    7.5 percent

b.    9.0 percent

c.    9.5 percent

d.    17.0 percent

Answer:

a.    7.5 percent

61. What does 3R mean in the alignment block under localizer (field 8) on the instrument landing system flight inspection report form?

a.    that the front course displacement is 3 µA right of centerline

b.    that the back course displacement is 3 µA right of centerline

c.    that the front course displacement is 3 inches right of the centerline

d.    that the back course displacement is 3 inches right of the centerline

Answer:

a.    that the front course displacement is 3 µA right of centerline

62. When do we use the instrument landing system flight inspection report supplemental sheet?

a.    when a monitor check is done

b.    when an alignment check is done

c.    before the symmetry check has started

d.    after the course width wide/narrow check is completed

Answer:

a.    when a monitor check is done

63. The unit that measures and checks VOR signals against established parameters is called the

a.    Local/remote pc
b.    Radio transmitter
c.    Radio transponder
d.    Radio frequency monitors

Answer:

d.    Radio frequency monitors

64. what is the output power level of the TACAN radio frequency amplifiers?

a.    100 watts

b.    400 watts

c.    1000 watts

d.    3000 watts

Answer:

d.    3000 watts

65. Which unit absorbs the transmitter output power if the antenna has an open or a short circuit?

a.    The 4-port circulator
b.    The directional coupler
c.    A low power RF termination load
d.    A high power RF termination load

Answer:

d.    A high power RF termination load

66. the TACAN coded reply signals are used by aircraft to determine their

a.    direction to the runway
b.    distance from the runway
c.    direction to the ground station
d.    distance from the ground station

Answer:

d.    distance from the ground station

67.what is one purpose of the squitter pulses transmitted from the TACAN?

a.    maintain constant transmitter duty cycle
b.    maintain constant aircraft contact
c.    generater reference pulse groups
d.    generate identification pulses

Answer:

a.    maintain constant transmitter duty cycle

68. when utilizing either of the PC’s, which operation can the operator perform?

a.    turn-on
b.    power–up
c.    feedback limit set
d.    bypassing monitors

Answer:

d.    bypassing monitors

69. Into how many main windows is the PC display divided?

a.    4
b.    3
c.    2
d.    1

Answer:

c.    2

70. the monitor status code BYP means

a.    system fault  has occurred
b.    alarms have occurred
c.    monitor in bypass
d.    TX in bypass

Answer:

c.    monitor in bypass

71. The PC displays data from how many monitors?

a.    4

b.    3

c.    2

d.    1

Answer:

c.    2

72. What is connected to the local PC to interface it with the remote PC?

a.    MODEM

b.    RF monitor

c.    Optical interface

d.    Control indicator

Answer:

a.    MODEM

73. One function of the control indicator is to

a.    monitor status signals sent to the site

b.    convert signals into control panel inputs

c.    provide status indicator operating power

d.    control the VORTAC monitoring system

Answer:

c.    provide status indicator operating power

74. Which adjustments are ATC personnel allowed to make the the control indicator?

a.    operating power

b.    transmitter frequency

c.    volume control of audio

d.    transponder ID ON/OFF control

Answer:

c.    volume control of audio

75. Which signal does the oscillator in the CODEC transmit section provide?

a.    4 kHz clock

b.    400 kHz clock

c.    1 KHz alarm tone

d.    100 KHz alarm tone

Answer:

c.    1 KHz alarm tone

76. In the receive section of the CODEC, what circuits are responsible for dividing the incoming audio and carrier signals?

a.    D/A converters

b.    A/D converters

c.    Bandpass filters

d.    Two-way splitters

Answer:

c.    Bandpass filters

77. which frequency corresponds to a transmitter ON signal sent to the control indicator?

a.    39 hertz (Hz)

b.    47 Hz

c.    66 Hz

d.    74 Hz

Answer:

b.    47 Hz

78. The visual status lamps on the control indicator show

a.    the actual status of the remote site

b.    the actual status of the control indicator

c.    the position of the start/stop switch on the digital computer

d.    the position of the start/stop switch on the control indicator

Answer:

a.    the actual status of the remote site

79. For the VOR station, what is the output power range of the carrier signal?

a.    5 to 10 watts

b.    10 to 25 watts

c.    25 to 100 watts

d.    50 to 150 watts

Answer:

c.    25 to 100 watts

80. What is the operating frequency range of the VOR antenna?

a.    100 to 120 MHz

b.    108 to 118 MHz

c.    110 to 116 MHz

d.    112 to 114 MHz

Answer:

b.    108 to 118 MHz

81. During normal operation, what refernce voltage does the VOR power monitor sensor provide to the control indicator?

a.    5 VDC

b.    12 VDC

c.    20 VDC

d.    24 VDC

Answer:

c.    20 VDC

82. The VOR subcarrier is amplitude modulated with the

a.    9960 Hz FM subcarrier only

b.    1024 Hz ident and voice only

c.    9960 Hz FM subcarrier, and 1024 Hz ident only

d.    9960 Hz FM subcarrier, 1024 Hz ident, and voice

Answer:

d.    9960 Hz FM subcarrier, 1024 Hz ident, and voice

83. How many monitoring antennas does the VOR ground check system contain?

a.    4

b.    8

c.    12

d.    16

Answer:

d.    16

84. What controls the switch driver board in the VOR ground check system?

a.    the monitors

b.    the digital computer

c.    the monitor antennas

d.    the transmission line switch

Answer:

a.    the monitors

85. Which meter indicates whether or not sufficient RF signal is being received from the VOR facility to make the readings on the aircraft indicators reliable?

a.    crosspointer meter

b.    flad alarm meter

c.    30 Hz AM meter

d.    AGC meter

Answer:

d.    AGC meter

86. Which meter indicates reverse sensing from the VOR?

a.    crosspointer meter

b.    to-from meter

c.    AGC meter

d.    9960 meter

Answer:

b.    to-from meter

87. A VOR that meets all operating tolerances is classified as

a.    unusable

b.    restricted

c.    satisfactory

d.    unrestricted

Answer:

d.    unrestricted

88. The maximum deviation of the VOR course caused by polarization must not exceed

a.    1 degree

b.    2 degrees

c.    3 degrees

d.    3.5 degrees

Answer:

b.    2 degrees

89. Which TACAN power supply output is overcurrent and overvoltage protected?

a.    +10 VDC

b.    +17.5 VDC

c.    -17.5 VDC

d.    +65 VDC

Answer:

d.    +65 VDC

90. In the VORTAC configuration, the TACAN monitor generates station morse code identity when it receives

a.    400W RF DRIVE

b.    VOR KEY INPUT

c.    MORSE TRIG STRT

d.    SERIAL INPUT DATA

Answer:

b.    VOR KEY INPUT

91. Which is not provided by the TACAN SOLID STATE ANTENNA STATUS lines?

a.    soft fail

b.    hard fail

c.    clock fail

d.    modulator fail

Answer:

d.    modulator fail

92. What is one reason the TACAN uses pulse coding?

a.    to discriminate against interference

b.    to prevent intentional receiver jamming

c.    to maintain constant transmitter loading

d.    to increase antenna gain while transmitting

Answer:

a.    to discriminate against interference

93. what is the spacing between TACAN pulses in X mode?

a.    48 µs

b.    36 µs

c.    24 µs

d.    12 µs

Answer:

d.    12 µs

94. How many pulse pairs make up an auxiliary reference burst?

a.    3

b.    6

c.    12

d.    24

Answer:

b.    6

95. what is the total number of pulse pairs transmitted by the TACAN?

a.    7200

b.    5400

c.    3600

d.    1440

Answer:

c.    3600

96. What is one benefit derived from using pulse-pair coding in the TACAN airborne equipment?

a.    the airborne equipment can operate at a higher average power output

b.    aircraft interrogations are resistant to interception by enemy aircraft

c.    DME and azimuth can be displayed in the aircraft simultaneously

d.    DME information displayed to the pilot is more accurate

Answer:

a.    the airborne equipment can operate at a higher average power output

97. At what rate and direction does the TACAN antenna pattern appear to rotate?

a.    900 rpm, clockwise

b.    900 rpm, counter-clockwise

c.    1350 rpm, clockwise

d.    1350 rpm, counter-clockwise

Answer:

a.    900 rpm, clockwise

98. Which radial is not a TACAN terminal radial?

a.    missed approach

b.    holding pattern

c.    approach

d.    enroute

Answer:

d.    enroute

99. TACAN coverage is considered satisfactory when a facility maintains continous tracking, and course and distance information is in tolerance for a distance of

a.    25 miles

b.    30 miles

c.    35 miles

d.    40 miles

Answer:

d.    40 miles

100. When standby equipment is checked during a TACAN flight inspection, how is the system configured?

a.    the transmitter is powered by the backup generator

b.    only azimuth information is transmitted

c.    the controlling monitor is changed

d.    the local PC is shut off

Answer:

c.    the controlling monitor is changed