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CardioMedSurgFinalReview
CardioMedSurgFinalReview
194
Other
Graduate
12/10/2009

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Term
Chest pain characterized by pressure, squeezing, tightness, heaviness, burning or indigestions?
Definition
Angina or MI
Term
Chest pain characterized by sharp, stabbing knifelike pain?
Definition
Pericarditis
Term
Chest pain characterized by excruciating, tearing or knifelike pain?
Definition
Aortic dissection
Term
What are the big 6 cardiac risk factors?
Definition
Smoking, HTN, DM, Age, Fam Hx, Dyslipidemia
Term
JNC VII HTN classifications. (Normal, PreHTN, HTN1 and HTN2).
Definition
Normal = Less than 120-80 (both).
PreHTN = 120-139/80-89 (either).
HTN1 = 140-159/90-99 (either).
HTN2 = Over 160/100 (either).
Term
Define orthopnea.
Definition
Dyspnea upon assuming the supine posture
Term
Define Trepopnea.
Definition
dyspnea occurs only in a lateral decubitus position, most often in patients with heart disease
Term
Define Platypnea.
Definition
dyspnea that occurs only in the upright position
Term
What is pulsus differens? What condition is it seen with?
Definition
Diminished pulses unilaterally or bilaterally. Seen with Coarctation of the Aorta.
Term
Describe Class I-IV of the NTHA classification criteria for heart disease.
Definition
I - Pts have no limitations of activities and suffer no symptoms of ordinary activities.
II - Pts have slight limitation of activity.
III - Pts have marked limitation of activity and are only comfortable at rest.
IV - Cannot do any activity, confined to bed or chair and symptoms occur at rest.
Term
What is hypo and hyper kinetic Pulsus Parvus?
Definition
Pulsus parvus just means a small, weak pulse. Hypokinetic refers to a decrease in SV and an increase in PVR. Hyperkinetic refers to an increase in SV and a decrease in PVR.
Term
What is Bisferiens pulse? What does it commonly occur in association with?
Definition
It is a double beat pulse and is common with combo aortic regurgitation/aortic stenosis.
Term
What is Pulsus Alternans and what condition is it commonly associated with?
Definition
Alternating strong and weak pulses. Associated with LV failure and Aortic Regurgitation.
Term
What is Pulsus Parvus et Tardus? What condition is it commonly seen with?
Definition
A pulse that is weak and late. Seen with Aortic stenosis.
Term
What is Pulsus Paradoxus? What condition is it commonly seen with?
Definition
Pulse that has an exaggerated inspiratory drop in BP. Seen with cardiac tamponade, pericarditis and COPD/asthma.
Term
What does an S3 and S4 heart sound correspond to?
Definition
S3 = Ventricular gallop.
S4 = Atrial gallop.
Term
Which common (aortic, pulmonic, mitral and tricuspid) murmurs are diastolic?
Definition
Diastolic: Aortic regurgitation, Pulmonic regurgitation, Mitral valve stenosis and Tricuspid valve stenosis.
Term
What are the purposes of Amyl Nitrate and Phenylephrine when it comes to murmurs?
Definition
Amyl Nitrate (Nitroglycerine) will vasodilate and reduce the resistance that the heart pumps against. Phenylephrine is a smooth muscle constrictor and will increase resistance that the heart pumps against.
Term
What does kind of murmurs are accentuated by Inspiration?
Definition
Right sided murmurs
Term
What kind of murmurs are accentuated by Standing?
Definition
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and MVP.
Term
What kind of murmurs are accentuated by Squatting?
Definition
Most murmurs except Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and MVP.
Term
What is Valsalva's affect on most murmurs? Why?
Definition
It diminished most murmurs (except hypertrophic cardiomyopathy and MVP) because it diminished ventricular filling.
Term
What murmurs will be accentuated by Handgrip exercises (Increases BP and HR)?
Definition
AR, MR and MS.
Term
Most cardiospecific cardiac enzyme?
Definition
Troponin I
Term
When does CK-MB first appear within serum? Peak? Return to normal?
Definition
CK-MB appears within serum 6-12 hours, peaks around 24 hours, and returns to normal in 3-4 days
Term
When is Troponin I and T detectable within the serum? How long does it remain? What is this enzyme especially good at detecting?
Definition
Detectable in serum within 1-3 hours and remains for 14-15 days. It is very good at detecting small infarcts and MI's that are later in their course.
Term
When is Myoglobin first detected within the serum? When does it peak? When does it return to normal?
Definition
Detectable 2 hours after MI, Peaks in 6-8 hours and Returns to normal in 20-36 hours.
Term
When is LDH first detectable within the serum? When does it peak? When does it return to normal?
Definition
Detectable in 24 hours, Peaks in 3 days and Returns to normal in 8-9 days.
Term
What is Ambulatory Cardiac Monitoring used for?
Definition
It is used to document suspected arrythmias and to monitor treatment effectiveness, patient is connected to EKG for 24 hours and sent home with machine.
Term
What is the #1 test to rule out endocarditis and to access for LAE?
Definition
Transesophageal Echocardiogram (TEE)
Term
What is Tilt Testing used for? What does it mean if the patient exhibits symptoms during the test?
Definition
Used to identify if cause of syncope is cardiogenic. If the patient exhibits syncope during the test then it is considered to be neural and not cardiogenic.
Term
What is the indication and procedure for Electrophysiologic Studies?
Definition
Indication = To detect and analyze arrhythmias and their origins.
Procedure = Catheter with electrode is placed in the right atrium and ventricle and it can record and stimulate arrhythmias.
Term
What involves invasive testing to assess patient hemodynamics and perform coronary angiography with suspected myocardial ischemia and/or valvular abnormalities?
Definition
Cardiac Catheterization
Term
What is the best test to obtain information on patients with peripheral vascular disease?
Definition
Contrast Angiography
Term
What instrument is a hemodynamic monitoring device that is used in shock situations and to monitor hemodynamics in critically ill patients?
Definition
Swann-Ganz Catheter
Term
What are some characteristics of pathologic murmurs?
Definition
Diastolic, pansystolic, late systolic, very loud or continuous.
Term
Describe grade 1-6 murmurs.
Definition
1. A very soft murmur only detected after very careful auscultation.
2. A soft murmur that is readily evident.
3. A moderate murmurs but there is no thrill.
4. Loud murmur with an intermittent or without a thrill.
5. Loud murmur with a palpable thrill only heard when stethoscope is on body.
6. Loud murmur with thrill that is audible even when stethoscope is lifted from body.
Term
Which murmurs are continuous?
Definition
PDA, Arteriovenous Malformation (AVM) and Venous Hum
Term
Describe Aortic Stenosis murmur. Most common cause?
Definition
Midsystolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur ejection murmur.
Most common cause is a calcification of the valve.
Term
What kind of heart failure is seen with Aortic Stenosis?
Definition
Systolic and Diastolic
Term
What are the treatments for Aortic Stenosis?
Definition
Valve replacement is the only provent treatment. They also need antibiotic prophylaxis to prevent bacterial endocarditis though.
Term
Most common cause of Aortic Regurgitation?
Definition
Infective endocarditis
Term
What congenital abnormality is seen with both AS and AR?
Definition
bicuspid aortic valves
Term
What kind of murmur is heard with Aortic Regurgitation?
Definition
Austin Flint murmur (blood entering simultaneously from both the aorta and left atrium) and a diastolic blowing murmur.
Term
Most important test for assessing severity of aortic insufficiency?
Definition
Echocardiography
Term
What is the treatment for AR in an asymptomatic patient? Symptomatic?
Definition
Asymptomatic = give vasodilators to reduce the afterload (Nifidipine, Hydralazine, ACEi's, etc).
Symptomatic = Valve replacement/repair.
Term
Most common cause of Mitral Stenosis?
Definition
Rheumatic Fever
Term
Describe the murmur heard with Mitral Stenosis.
Definition
Opening snap followed by an early diastolic rumble.
Term
What is a common CXR finding with Mitral Stenosis?
Definition
LAE
Term
What is used to diagnose Mitral Stenosis?
Definition
Echocardiogram (TTE or TEE)
Term
What are the treatment options for Mitral Stenosis?
Definition
Balloon valvotomy or valve replacement
Term
Most common cause of Mitral Regurgitation?
Definition
Mitral Valve Prolapse
Term
Describe the murmur heard with Mitral Regurgitation.
Definition
Holosystolic apical murmur that radiates to the axilla.
Term
Treatment of Mitral Regurgitation?
Definition
Surgical repair or replacement of the valve.
Term
Describe the murmur heard with mitral valve prolapse.
Definition
A mid systolic click and late systolic murmur.
Term
Treatment of Mitral Valve Prolapse?
Definition
Antibiotic endocarditis prophylaxis, BBs to relieve palpitations and aspirin to reduce risk of stroke in patients with redundant leaflets.
Term
What is the etiology of Pulmonic Stenosis?
Definition
Fusion of the pulmonic valve cusps.
Term
What is the treatment for Pulmonic Stenosis?
Definition
If pressure gradient is less than 25mmHg then none is needed, if it is greater than 50mmHg then valve balloon commissurotomy is effective.
Term
Most are the most common causes of Tricuspid Regurgitation?
Definition
Hemodynamic load on the right ventricle from pulmonary backup and infective endocarditis are most common.
Term
What is the treatment for Tricuspid Regurgitation?
Definition
Usually aimed at whatever the cause of right ventricular overload is, (LV failure or Pulmonary disease).
Term
Describe Acute bacterial endocarditis. Most common cause?
Definition
Affects patient with normal hearts and damaged hearts. MCC = Staph aureus
Term
Describe Subacute bacterial endocarditis. Most common cause?
Definition
Usually affects an already damaged heart. MCC = Strep viridans
Term
Characteristic Signs seen on physical exam with bacterial endocarditis?
Definition
Osler’s nodes ( small tender nodules on the finger and toes), Janeway lesions ( small hemorrhages on the palms and soles) and splenomegaly.
Term
Explain the Duke Criteria for endocarditis.
Definition
Major - 2 positive blood cultures and evidence on echocardiogram of vegetation.
Minor - predisposing condition, fever, PE signs, 1 positive blood culture, and a positive echocardiogram that does not meet major criteria.
*Need 2 major, 1 major and 3 minor, or 5 minor to diagnose.
Term
How do you treat endocarditis?
Definition
4 weeks of antibiotics (PCN, Cephalosporin or Macrolide)
Term
What are the functions of anticoagulants, antithrombotics and thrombolytics?
Definition
Anticoagulant: inhibit blood coagulation.
Antithrombotic: inhibit platelet aggregation.
Thrombolytic agent: degrade clots that have already formed.
Term
What are the indications for Heparin?
Definition
Prevent DVT and PE and immediate anticoagulation.
Term
How is Heparin monitored?
Definition
Monitored by PTT every 4-6 hours
Term
What is used to reverse a Heparin OD?
Definition
Protamine Sulfate
Term
Which anticoagulant is used in long term anticoagulation and DVT?
Definition
Warfarin (Coumadin)
Term
What test is used to monitor Warfarin (Coumadin) levels?
Definition
PT/INR
Term
What can be given to reverse a Warfarin (Coumadin) OD?
Definition
Vitamin K
Term
What class of drug is Aspirin? What are its indications?
Definition
It is an antithrombotic. Used in those with a history or risk of Stroke, MI or TIA.
Term
What class of drug is Ticlopidine (Ticlid)? Indications?
Definition
It is an antithrombotic. It is used prescribed as a post cardiac intervention in those with a history of Stroke or MI.
Term
What class of drug is Clopidogrel (Plavix)? Indications?
Definition
It is an antithrombotic. It is prescribed as a post cardiac intervention in those that have a history of Stroke or MI.
Term
What class of drug is Tirofiban (Aggrastat)? Indications? How is it administered?
Definition
It is an antithrombotic. Its indications are in unstable angina and MI. It is only given IV.
Term
What is Eisenmenger's Syndrome?
Definition
Reversal of a left to right shunt to a right to left shunt.
Term
What is released during birth that causes the PDA to close?
Definition
Bradykinin
Term
When are the fetal foramen functionally closed? Anatomically?
Definition
Functional closure in 72 hours post-partum.
Anatomic closure in 4-8 weeks.
Term
What is Ebstein's Anomaly?
Definition
It is a small right ventricle due to a large right atria.
Term
Describe Coarctation of the aorta. What is a common congenital defect associated with coarctation of the aorta? Most common extracardiac abnormality seen with coarctation of the aorta?
Definition
It is a fibrotic narrowing of the aortic lumen. 25% of them have a biscuspid valve. Most common extracardiac abnormality is aneurysm of the circle of Willis.
Term
What kind of pulses are seen with coarctation of the aorta?
Definition
Strong UE pulses with weak LE pulses.
Term
What are the preferred diagnostic methods for coarctation of the aorta in adults?
Definition
MRI or cardiac catheterization
Term
Treatment of Coarctation of the aorta?
Definition
Surgical repair and bacterial endocarditis prophylaxis.
Term
Descrieb the murmur heard with pulmonic valve stenosis.
Definition
Opening click and systolic.
Term
Most common cyanotic congenital heart lesion in adults?
Definition
Tetralogy of Fallot
Term
What are the 4 components of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Definition
Pulmonic stenosis, RVH, VSD, Overriding aorta across the VSD
Term
Most common site of ASD?
Definition
Foramen Ovale
Term
What arrhythmia is most common with ASD?
Definition
A fib
Term
Describe the murmur heard with a VSD.
Definition
Holosystolic with thrill
Term
How are ASDs, VSDs and PDAs diagnosed?
Definition
2D and Doppler echo
Term
What is the treatment for VSD if Eisenmenger's has already taken place?
Definition
Heart-Lung transplant
Term
Describe Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).
Definition
Arterial duct that connects the aorta and pulmonary artery during fetal life fails to close within 24 to 48 hrs.
Term
Describe the murmur heard with PDA.
Definition
Continuous machinery-like murmur.
Term
What does Acute Rheumatic Fever follow?
Definition
Follows Group A Streptococcal pharyngitis infection.
Term
What are the major Jones criteria for Acute Rheumatic fever?
Definition
Carditis, Polyarthritis, Chorea, Erythema marginatum and SQ nodules.
Term
What are the minor Jones Criteria for Acute Rheumatic fever?
Definition
Arthralgias, Fever, Elevated ESR or CRP, Prolonged PR interval and Prior Hx of ARF.
Term
What is required of the Jones Criteria to make an Acute Rheumatic Fever diagnosis?
Definition
2 major or 1 major and 2 minor criteria PLUS evidence of a recent streptococcal infection.
Term
Treatment for Acute Rheumatic Fever?
Definition
Antibiotics and Anti-inflammatories
Term
What is Malignant Hypertension?
Definition
Sudden development of extremely Elevated BP (diastolic is often above 130) associated with papilledema (optic disc swelling that is caused by increased intracranial pressure).
Term
What are some causes of secondary HTN?
Definition
Renal artery stenosis, Pheochromocytoma, Cushing's Syndrome and Conn's disease (Hyperaldosteronism).
Term
What is the drug class of choice for initial treatment of HTN per JNC VII?
Definition
Thiazide Diuretics
Term
Describe a positive Orthostatic Hypotension result.
Definition
Drop in systolic pressure of more than 10-20 mm HG, Increase in pulse more than 15, or If symptomatic in any of the three positions.
Term
What is cardiogenic shock?
Definition
Pump failure related to cardiac dysfunction.
Term
What do statins do?
Definition
They inhibit synthesis of cholesterol by cells and promote LDL clearance to lower LDL levels.
Term
What is the MOA for Cholesterol absorption inhibitors (Ezetimibe)?
Definition
They prevent the formation of LDL.
Term
What LDL level needs Drug and TLC? LDL goal?
Definition
Over 130 mg/dL. Goal is under 100 mg/dL.
Term
What is defined as a low HDL level for men and women?
Definition
Less than 40 mg/dL for men and less than 50 mg/dL for women.
Term
What is Prinzmetal's (Variant) angina?
Definition
Angina that is unpredictable and is due to coronary vasospasm.
Term
How is angina pain relieved?
Definition
Nitroglycerine
Term
Gold standard diagnostic exam for Angina?
Definition
Coronary Angiogram
Term
What is the MOA for Nitroglycerine?
Definition
Dilates myocardial arteries and venodilates.
Term
What are the treatments for unstable angina?
Definition
Heparin, IV Nitroglycerine and Plavix (Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor).
Term
What class of drug has been shown to prolong life in patients with CAD post-MI?
Definition
Beta Blockers
Term
What drug has been shown to be effective at preventing future attacks of ischemic heart disease?
Definition
Aspirin
Term
What are the treatments for Prinzmetal's angina (Acute and Chronic)?
Definition
Acute = Nitrates.
Chronic = CCBs.
Term
What is the most common cause of MI?
Definition
Ruptured Atherosclerotic stenosis
Term
What is the time frame goal for getting an MI patient in for angioplasty?
Definition
90 minutes
Term
What are the indications for Thrombolytics in an MI?
Definition
CP longer than 30 min and less than 6 hours with ST elevation in at least 2 leads.
Term
What is the treatment of choice for an MI that is more than 6 hours old?
Definition
CABG
Term
Most common location of MIs? Next?
Definition
Anterior, then Inferior/Posterior and Lateral is least likely.
Term
Is an MI relieved with Nitro?
Definition
Nope
Term
Which diagnostic exam is best for assessment of where the infarct is occuring and can help determine whether PTCA or CABG is needed?
Definition
Angiography
Term
What is the standard treatment regimen for an MI?
Definition
MONA (Morphine, Oxygen, Nitrates and Aspirin). Also use BBs and Thrombolytics if necessary.
Term
What are some examples of Thrombolytics? Which is the best one?
Definition
t-PA, streptokinase, Retaplase, Antistreplase and Urokinase. Best is t-PA.
Term
What is the treatment regimen for a Non-Q-Wave MI?
Definition
Aspirin, BBs, CCBs and cardiac cath to determine need for PTCA vs. CABG. Thrombolytics are not recommended.
Term
What is Dressler's Syndrome?
Definition
Pericarditis that is a results from an MI.
Term
What treatment do you NOT want to give a Right Ventricular MI?
Definition
Nitroglycerine bc it will venodilate and further decrease cardiac output.
Term
When are ACEi/ARBs indicated for post MI management?
Definition
In patients with decreased LV function to prevent LV dilation.
Term
What drug is recommended post MI to patients with large anterior wall MIs?
Definition
Warfarin (Coumadin)
Term
What kind of patients is silent ischemia/infarction common in?
Definition
diabetics
Term
What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death?
Definition
V fib
Term
2 most common causes of CHF?
Definition
CAD and HTN
Term
What kind of dysfunction is most common with CHF?
Definition
Systolic (2/3)
Term
What LVEF corresponds to systolic vs. diastolic CHF?
Definition
LVEF over 40% = Diastolic. LVEF under 40% = Systolic.
Term
Etiologies of Diastolic dysfunction?
Definition
HTN, Hypertrophic and Restrictive cardiomyopathies, Amyloid, Sarcoidosis, Hemochromatosis and Radiation Fibrosis.
Term
What kind of cardiac remodeling occurs with pressure overload? Volume overload?
Definition
Pressure = Hypertrophy.
Volume = Dilation.
Term
What is the most common cardiomyopathy?
Definition
Dilated
Term
What kind of dysfunction is seen with dilated cardiomyopathy?
Definition
systolic dysfunction
Term
What kind of dysfunction is seen with Restrictive cardiomyopathy?
Definition
Diastolic dysfunction
Term
What kind of dysfunction is seen with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Definition
Diastolic dysfunction
Term
Treatment for Hypertrophic cardiomyopathies?
Definition
BBs and CCBs to decrease myocardial contractility.
Term
What do Kerley lines on CXR represent?
Definition
CHF
Term
What is the acute treatment regimen for CHF?
Definition
LMNOP - Lasix, Morphine, Nitrates, Oxygen and Patient Position.
Term
What is the role of diuretics in CHF?
Definition
used as initial therapy to achieve euvolemia only.
Term
If you had one drug to use for CHF what should it be?
Definition
ACEi/ARBs
Term
What are beta blockers role in CHF treatment?
Definition
Chronic CHF causes a decreased baroreflex leading to increased sympathetic activity. BBs block the increased sympathetic activity.
Term
Do BBs reduce mortality in CHF?
Definition
Yes
Term
What is the only diuretic shown to reduce mortality with CHF?
Definition
Spironolactone due to its aldosterone blocking affects
Term
Which drugs can be given to CHF patients that improve their subjective feeling but may actually decrease survival?
Definition
Intermittent Inotropic Infusions
Term
What is the most common arrhythmia?
Definition
A Fib
Term
What is the name of the bypass tract seen with WPW?
Definition
Bundle of Kent
Term
What are the treatment options for WPW?
Definition
IV procainamide, electrical cardioversion (if unstable) and ablation is curative.
Term
What class of drugs can be used to treat PVCs?
Definition
BBs
Term
What are the treatment options for ventricular tachycardia?
Definition
Implantable Cardioverter-Defibrillator, BBs and Amiodarone.
Term
How is Sick Sinus Syndrome treated?
Definition
Pacemaker
Term
Describe the difference between 2nd degree Type 1 and Type 2 AV blocks.
Definition
Type 1 - Wenckebach - Progressive lengthening of the PR interval.
Type 2 - Mobitz - Set ratio of P waves to QRS complexes.
Term
Describe the main function of the 4 classes of anti-arrythmic agents.
Definition
I - Sodium channel blockers.
II - BBs.
III - Potassium channel blockers.
IV - Calcium channel blockers.
Term
Which classes of anti-arrythmic agents prolong the QT interval?
Definition
Class Ia and class III.
Term
Which drugs are class 1a anti-arrythmic agents?
Definition
Quinidine, Procainamide and Disopyramide
Term
Which anti-arrythmic drug has a toxicity that resembles a lupus like syndrome?
Definition
Procainamide
Term
Which anti-arrythmic agents primary use is prevention of recurrent ventricular tachyarrythmias?
Definition
Lidocaine
Term
Which anti-arrythmic drug is limited to the treatment of digitalis induced arrhythmia?
Definition
Diphenylhydantoin
Term
What are the indications for Amiodarone?
Definition
SVTs and VTs
Term
Which anti-arrhythmic drug is used for the acute conversion of A fib/flutter of recent onset?
Definition
Ibutilide
Term
What is the most effect drug for rapid termination of a PSVT?
Definition
Adenosine
Term
3 most common causes of dilated cardiomyopathy?
Definition
Alcohol, peripartum and post-viral
Term
How is dilated cardiomyopathy most commonly diagnosed?
Definition
Echocardiogram
Term
What values are indicative of pulmonary HTN at rest and at exercise?
Definition
Rest = over 25mmHg.
Exercise = over 30mmHg.
Term
Most common cause of Pulmonary HTN?
Definition
COPD
Term
Treatment regimen for pulmonary HTN?
Definition
Treat the underlying cause, oxygen, coumadin and CCBs
Term
What condition will get better if you have the patient lean forward and will be worse when they lay down?
Definition
Pericarditis
Term
Most common causes of acute pericarditis?
Definition
Viral, TB, bacterial and fungal
Term
Describe the pain seen with acute pericarditis.
Definition
Retrosternal chest pain that is pleuritic and sharp and may radiate to the back, neck or shoulder.
Term
What will you hear on auscultation with pericarditis?
Definition
Pericardial friction rub
Term
How does pericarditis appear on EKG?
Definition
ST elevation and a depressed PR interval.
Term
What is the treatment of acute pericarditis?
Definition
Most cases are self limiting so treatment is aimed at pain relief.
Term
How much fluid do you need for the cardiac silhouette to be enlarged on CXR with a pericardial effusion?
Definition
250 ml's
Term
How is a pericardial effusion usually diagnosed?
Definition
Echocardiogram
Term
If pericardial effusion becomes large enough and it causes hemodynamic compromise it is called?
Definition
Cardiac Tamponade
Term
How is a cardiac tamponade treated?
Definition
Immediate pericardiocentesis
Term
What condition will have a calcified ring on CXR?
Definition
Constrictive pericarditis
Term
What are the 2 most common causes of myocarditis?
Definition
Viral infections (Coxsackie and echovirus)
Term
What is the gold standard diagnosis of Myocarditis?
Definition
Biopsy of the myocardium
Term
Name and describe the two types of true aneurysms of the aorta.
Definition
Fusiform = Equal pressure on the walls.
Saccular = A lump sticking out of the side of one of the walls.
Term
Is an AAA or a TAA more common?
Definition
AAA
Term
When would you do surgery for an Ascending TAA, Descending TAA and AAA aneurysm?
Definition
ATAA = 5-6cm.
DTAA = 6-7cm.
AAA = 5.5cm.
Or growth rate of more than 1cm/year.
Term
Where is Aortic Dissection most common?
Definition
Ascending Thoracic Aorta
Term
Diagnostic test for an aneurysm?
Definition
CT with contrast is best.
Term
What drugs are given to help with aneurysms?
Definition
IV BB's and vasodilators
Term
In a pt with PAD where is the vessel occlusion with claudication in the (buttock, thigh, upper calf, lower calf and foot)?
Definition
Buttock = Aortoiliac.
Thigh = Common femoral or aortoiliac.
Upper Calf = Superficial femoral.
Lower Calf = Popliteal.
Foot = Tibial or Peroneal.
Term
What ABI corresponds to Mild, Moderate and Severe PAD?
Definition
Mild = (0.60-0.89).
Moderate = (0.40-0.59).
Severe = (Less than 0.40).
Term
What condition is seen most commonly with MAT (Multifocal Atrial Tachycardia)?
Definition
COPD
Term
What are the uses of Quinidine?
Definition
PACs, PVCs and conversion of AFib/AFlutter to NSR.
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