Term
| (True/False) Valve area is more accurate than valve gradient to determine the severity of valvular stenosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (True/False)Normal resting cardiac output is approximately5 liters/min |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ventricular ejection time is influenced by which of the following?
A. Left Bundle branch block
B. Heart rate
C. Afterload
D. Pre-ejection period |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The left and right bundle branches divide and sub divide into the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What cardiac structure lies superior to the ventricle and curves around the left side of the pulmonary trunk? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Turbulence or disturbed flow velocities denote the presence of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the common radiographic views of the left ventricle that are preformed during cardiac catheterization? |
|
Definition
| Right anterior oblique and left anterior oblique |
|
|
Term
| An increase in ventricular muscle mass (hypertophy) leads to changes in the eletrocardiogram, what are these changes? |
|
Definition
A. Increase in R wave amplitude
B. Changes in the ST segment
C. T wave inversion
D. Pronounced Q Wave |
|
|
Term
| What is the term that describes the normal relationship between the position of the heart, lobes of the lungs, and the abdominal organs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the major component of the circulating blood volume? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three things that can influence coronary blood flow. |
|
Definition
A. Diastolic blood pressure
B. Auto regulation
C. Coronary artery obstruction |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the velocity of blood flow in the arterioles due to peripheral resistance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During strenuous exercise, the metabolic rate (ml of O2/K/Min) can increase approximately? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In assuming an upright position, venous return, and ventricular filling will? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true regarding the normal end-diastolic pressure of the left ventricle?
A. LVED pressure is greater than RVED pressure
B. LVED pressures is lower than RVED pressure
C. There is no difference between the LVED pressure and the RVED pressure
D. LVED pressure is only greater when right heart disease is present |
|
Definition
| A. LVED pressure is greater than RVED pressure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Rate of change in left ventricular pressure during isovolumetric contraction |
|
|
Term
What law states that the cardiac output increases in proportion to the degree of diastolic fiber stretch?
A. Poiseuille's law
B. Frank Starling law
C. Edward's law
D. Bernoulli's law |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most congenital defects of the hart occur in a complex stage of cardiac development known as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What determines the dominance of either coronary artery? |
|
Definition
| The artery supplying the postero-inferior portion of the heart |
|
|
Term
| What portion of the aorta is the isthmus located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes the opening and closing of the cardiac valves? |
|
Definition
| Pressure differences between contiguous cardiac chambers |
|
|
Term
| In the developed fetal circulation what cardiac communications exist that close soon after birth? |
|
Definition
| Patent foramen ovale and patent ductus arteriosus |
|
|
Term
| The atrioventricular valves are formed in utero from the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| why is the right ventricular wall thickness normally less than left ventricular wall thickness? |
|
Definition
| Pulmonary vascular resistance is lower than systemic vascular resistance. |
|
|
Term
| What are the names of the leaflets that make up the tricuspid valve? |
|
Definition
| Anterior, posterior, septal leaflets |
|
|
Term
| List four common presenting symptoms of patents with myxomas |
|
Definition
A. Embolism
B. Chest pain
C. Syncope
D. Weakness or fatigue |
|
|
Term
| (True/False) The carotid pulse waveform is similar to the arterial pressure waveform. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the depth gain compensation or time gain compensation controls? |
|
Definition
| These controls help to compensate for attenuation of sound energy as the distance from the transducer to the target increases |
|
|
Term
| The temporal resolution of a real-time scanner is dependent upon what factor? |
|
Definition
Frame rate
Temporal resolution is the ability to determine the position of a moving structure at any particular moment in time. The higher the frame rate, the better the temporal resolution |
|
|
Term
| What type of display mode operation causes a brightening of the spot on the CRT rather than a deflection each time a reflection is received? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the ratio of the maximum amplitude to the minimum amplitude describe? |
|
Definition
Dynamic range
(Typically 110-120dB, some newer machines claim a higher dynamic range but the literature still uses this range as the average) |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the scan converter? |
|
Definition
| The purpose of the scan converter is to accept the output video signal from the receiver (usually in an analog format) and convert it to a digital format and store the image in a computer memory before it is set to the TV monitor for final display |
|
|
Term
Using the formula frequency x wavelength will provide information regarding:
A. Amplitude
B. Period
C. Propagation speed
D. Duty factor |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When strong echoes are received from structures behind weakly attenuation regions it is referred to as?
A. Enhancement
B. Attenuation
C. Ring down
D. Reverberation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following would decrease the imaging frame rate?
A. Decrease the size of the image sector
B. Increase the size of the image sector
C. Decrease the image depth
D. Increase the image gain |
|
Definition
| B. Increase the size of the image |
|
|
Term
| List (at least) five parameters of an ultrasound system which require periodic testing |
|
Definition
A. Sensitivity
B. Axial resolution
C. Longitudinal resolution
D. Depth calibration
E. Range resolution
F. Dead zone |
|
|
Term
If stiffness is increased, propagation speed will?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain the same
D. Be cut by 1/2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following artifacts would appear as equally spaced reflections on an image?
A. Mirror image
B. Comet tail
C. Reverberation
D. Side lobe |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the density of a medium is increased what happens to the propagation speed?
A. The propagation speed increases
B. The propagation speed decreases
C. The propagation speed is unaffected
D. The propagation speed doubles |
|
Definition
| B. The propagation speed decreases |
|
|
Term
| Routine performance and acceptance tests, routine preventative maintenance, frequent service consultations, and documentation of equipment repair and performance are all integral part of a? |
|
Definition
| Quality assurance program |
|
|
Term
| What is the average propagation speed of sound in the soft tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the unitless ratio that describes the distribution of the sound beam in space?
A. Duty factor
B. Beam uniformity coefficient
C. Pulse duration
D. Intensity transmission coefficient |
|
Definition
B. Beam uniformity coefficient
This is also known as the SP/SA factor, and is equal to the spatial peak intensity divided by the spatial average intensity. The beam will become more homogeneous as the SP/SA factor gets closer to one. |
|
|
Term
| what type of ultrasound is used for diagnostic ultrasound imaging? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Total time x duty factor is the formula that determines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three mechanisms of action for ultrasound biological effects? |
|
Definition
A. Heat
B. Cavitation
C. Mechanical (non-thermal, or non-cavitational) |
|
|
Term
| The AIUM has stated that no independently confirmed significant biological effects in mammalian tissue have been reported below what intensity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Heating depends on which one of the following intensities?
A. SPTA
B. SATA
C. SPPA
D. SAPA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The phenomenon produced by sound waves in a liquid, or liquid like media, that involves the expansion and compression of bubbles or cavities containing gas or vapors is referred to as?
A. Capacitation
B. Pitting
C. Cavitation
D. Decimation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What appropriate time should be used when calculating SPTA intensities of pulsed and continuous wave ultrasound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is NOT a factor considered to contribute to the biological effects from diagnostic ultrasound?
A. Extracellular movement
B. Cavitation
C. Shearing action
D. Thermal effects |
|
Definition
| A. Extracellular movement |
|
|
Term
| When frequency is decreased, spatial pulse length will? |
|
Definition
| The spatial pulse length will increase |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is true regarding video tapes?
A. Video tapes are light sensitive
B. Video tapes are magnetic
C. Information recorded on video tapes does not degrade over time.
D. Information recorded on video tapes can degrade over time.
E. B and D
F. B and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Grating lobes are artifacts typical of which type of transducer technology?
A. Multi-element transducers
B. Single element transducers
C. Occurs in all types of transducers
D. Is not an artifact associat4ed with the type of transducer used |
|
Definition
| A. Multi-element transducers |
|
|
Term
| What is the typical SATA output intensity for a doppler instrument? |
|
Definition
10 mw/cm^2 to > 400 mw/cm^2
continuous wave doppler system generally have larger values than imaging and pulsed doppler units |
|
|
Term
Which one of the following types of transducers is utilized for creating variable focusing in two dimensions, is mechanically driven, but is not capable of beam steering?
A. Phased array
B. Linear array
C. Mechanical sector
D. Annular array |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the purpose of changing the excitation time from one frame to the next (phase) in phased array transducers?
A. It allows for increasing the frequency of the transducer
B. It allows for decreasing the frequency of the transducer
C. It allows for focusing and steering of the ultrasound pulse
D. It increases the frame rate |
|
Definition
| C. It allows for focusing and steering of the ultrasound pulse |
|
|
Term
What is the unit of power or intensity ratio?
A. Watt
B. Hertz
C. Joules
D. Decibel |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What effect does increasing the frequency of sound have on attenuation?
A. None
B. Attenuation increases
C. Attenuation decreases
D. Attenuation decreases by 1/2 for every megahertz of increase in frequency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The length of time that sound persists is the definition for?
A. Duty factor
B. Spatial pulse length
C. Q factor
D. Wavelength |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding annular array transducers?
A. Annular array transducers are mechanically steered
B. The piezoelectric elements are energized sequentially |
|
Definition
| C. Annular array transducers cannot be steered mechanically |
|
|
Term
The operating frequency of a transducer is determined by?
A. Propagation speed of the transducer material
B. The thickness of the transducer element
C. Gain
D. Power applied to the transducer
E. A and C
F. A and B
G. All of the above |
|
Definition
| F. A and B Propagation speed of the transducer and the thickness of the transducer element |
|
|
Term
If the bandwidth is 1 MHz and the operating frequency is 3 MHz, what is the Q factor?
A. 0.33
B. 3
C. 3.5
D. 0.35 |
|
Definition
3
Q factor = operating frequency/bandwidth
Q=3/1=3 |
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding specular reflections?
A. The reflector surface is smooth as compared to the wavelength
B. The reflector surface is irregular as compared to the wavelength
C. Increasing frequency does not change specular reflections
D. the wavelength is small as compared to the dimensions of the boundary |
|
Definition
| B. The reflector surface is irregular as compared to the wavelength |
|
|
Term
Axial resolution is directly dependent on?
A. Crystal thickness
B. Number of cycles in the pulse
C. Spatial pulse length
D. Frequency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the Reynolds number?
A. The Reynolds number depends on speed of flow to predict the start of turbulence
B. The Reynolds number depends on the viscosity of the fluid to predict the start of turbulence
C. The Reynolds is unitless
D.Flow becomes turbulent when the Reynolds number is less than 2000 |
|
Definition
| D. Flow becomes turbulent when the Reynolds number is less than 2000 |
|
|
Term
| Sound frequencies below 20 Hz are called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the frequency range of audible sound?
A. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
B. < 20 Hz
C. > 20 kHz
D. > 20 MHz |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of energy do ultrasound transducers convert into mechanical energy or ultrasound energy?
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Electrical energy
D. Physical energy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the term piezoelectric mean? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What principle is being demonstrated when the ultrasound transducer converts and electric signal into mechanical motion that results in the production of ultrasound? |
|
Definition
| The principle of piezoelectricity |
|
|
Term
Random variations in a voltage signal that are caused by heat are called?
A. Reflections
B. Turbulence
C. Scatter
D. Noise |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In order to send and receive sound continuously, continuous wave transducers much have?
A. A sample gate
B. A sample volume
C. an angle correct
D. two elements one that sends sounds, and one that receives sound |
|
Definition
| D. Two elements one that sends, and one that receives sound |
|
|
Term
| Transducers that are driven by voltage pulses are referred to as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding pulsed doppler transducers.
A. Pulsed doppler transducers require two elements to send receive
B. Pulsed doppler transducers use the FFT technique
C. Pulsed doppler transducers have a sample gate
D. Pulsed doppler transducers require only one element to send and receive |
|
Definition
| A. Pulsed doppler transducers require two elements to send and receive |
|
|
Term
| What does the damping material that is placed behind the transducer element help to reduce? |
|
Definition
| Damping material helps to reduce the number of cycles in each pulse |
|
|
Term
| If pulse duration and spatial pulse length are reduced, what will happen to the longitudinal resolution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the matching layer on the face of the transducer? |
|
Definition
| It reduces the reflection of the ultrasound at the element surface |
|
|
Term
The change in sound direction when it crosses a boundary is referred to as?
A. Impedance
B. Backscatter
C. Refraction
D. Rayleigh scatter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (True/False) The narrower the bandwidth, the more exact the frequency emitted by the transducer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When there is a change in reflected frequency caused by reflector motion in relation to the transducer it is referred to as the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The difference between the transmitted frequency and the received frequency or incident frequency minus reflected frequency refers to the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The minimum reflector separation along the sound path required for separation reflections to be produced describes?
A. Lateral resolution
B. Axial resolution
C. Longitudinal resolution
D. Both A and C
E. Both B and C |
|
Definition
| E. Both B and C; Axial and Longitudinal resolution |
|
|
Term
All of the following are terms that are synonymous with longitudinal resolution EXCEPT?
A. Axial resolution
B. Range resolution
C. Depth resolution
D. Transverse resolution |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If spatial pulse length is reduced, longitudinal resolution will?
A. Improve
B. Decrease
C. Not be affected |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What affect does increasing the frequency have on the wavelength?
A. Wavelength is increased
B. Wavelength is decreased
C. None |
|
Definition
| B. Wavelength is decreased |
|
|
Term
| If frequency is increased the depth of penetration will? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When performing a cardiac ultrasound exam on an obese person, which of the following transducer frequencies would be most helpful?
A. 10 MHz
B. 5 MHz
C. 3.5 MHz
D. 2.25 MHz |
|
Definition
| D. 2.25 MHz (Lower frequency equals greater depth of penetration) |
|
|
Term
What is axial resolution equal to?
A. 1/4 of the spatial pulse length
B. 1/2 of the spatial pulse length
C. Two time the spatial pulse length
D. Four times the spatial pulse length |
|
Definition
| B. 1/2 the spatial pulse length |
|
|
Term
What is the product of density and propagation speed?
A. Half value layer thickness
B. intensity transmission coefficient
C. Impedance
D. Refraction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary factor that determines impedance? |
|
Definition
| The medium the sound is traveling through |
|
|
Term
| Each complete scan of the sound beam that produces and image on the display is referred to as a? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| (True/False) Coronary blood flow is from endocardium to epicardium. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The sinus venosus, the cardiac loop, and the aortic and branchial arches are portions of the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Most of the myocardial blood flow drains into the great cardiac vein. This vessel then drains flow into the?
A. Inferior vena cava
B. Superior vena cava
C. Coronary artery
D. Coronary sinus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The stretch in blood vessels in response to an increase in pressure is termed?
A. Compliance
B. Elasticity
C. Expansion
D. Elongation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding the flow of fluid and pressure?
A. The driving force behind fluid flow is pressure
B. Pressure is the force per unit area
C. In order for flow to occur a pressure difference is not necessary
D. Pressure is distributed equally through a static fluid. |
|
Definition
| C. In order for flow to occur a pressure difference is not necessary |
|
|
Term
When a cardiac murmur is heard it is graded on a scale of 1-6. A 4/6 systolic murmur along the lower left sternal border accompanied by a palpable "thrill" would be indicative of?
A. An atrial septal defect
B. A ventricular septal defect
C. a patent ductus arteriosus
D. Aortic regurgitation |
|
Definition
| B. Ventricular septal defect |
|
|
Term
| The normal electrocardiogram has a "QRS" configuration. When a transmural infarction occurs, there are changes in the waveform which are manifested as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a coupling agent used on a transducer? |
|
Definition
| To eliminate the layer of air between the transducer and body surface |
|
|
Term
What are the units for intensity?
A. W/cm^2
B. Decibels
C. Hertz
D. Amps |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding a continuous wave Doppler transducer?
A. A CW Doppler transducer has only one element
B. A CW Doppler transducer has two elements
C. A CW Doppler transducer does not have a pulse repetition frequency
D. CW Doppler transducers cannot be set to sample at specific sites |
|
Definition
| A. A CW Doppler transducer has only one element |
|
|
Term
The unit of viscosity is?
A. Stroke
B. Joule
C. Poise
D. g/ml |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Should a transducer be autoclaved before preforming a procedure where a sterile environment is necessary? |
|
Definition
| No. The piezoelectric element would be damaged |
|
|
Term
| What term best describes the magnitude of a signal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is TRUE regarding the volume flow rate when the pressure difference id doubled?
A. The volume flow rate is quartered
B. The volume flow rate is doubled
C. the volume flow rate is quadrupled
D. the volume flow rate is halved |
|
Definition
| B. the volume flow rate is doubled |
|
|
Term
which value indicates the average intensity over one on-off beam cycle?
A. Spatial average (SA)
B. Temporal average (TA)
C. Spatial peak, Temporal average (SPTA)
D. Spatial peak, Temporal peak (SPTP) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of Doppler system can give motion information as a function of depth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of flow is present when the fluid has a constant speed across a vessel?
A. Plug Flow
B. Parabolic flow
C. Steady flow
D. Laminar flow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following does NOT affect the acoustic impedance of a medium?
A. Compressibility
B. Velocity
C. Temperature
D. Stiffness
E. Density
F. Frequency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The area of the sound beam where the beam diameter increases as the distance from the transducer increases is referred to as the?
A. Far zone
B. Near zone
C. Fresnel zone
D. Fraunhofer zone
E. A and B
F. A and D |
|
Definition
| F. A and D Near zone and Fraunhofer zone |
|
|
Term
| The temporal resolution of a real time scanner is dependent on the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four acoustic variables of a sound wave? |
|
Definition
A. Pressure
B. Density
C. Temperature
D. Particle motion |
|
|
Term
When a high grade stenosis is encountered in a large vessel that typically has laminar flow, at what point or points is the pressure energy the greatest?
A. Proximal to the stenosis
B. Distal to the stenosis
C. At the site of the stenosis
D. None of the above
E. Both A and B |
|
Definition
| E. Both A and B, both proximal and distal to the stenosis |
|
|
Term
| What effect does increasing the frequency for a given transducer size have on the beam diameter? |
|
Definition
| The beam diameter is decreased |
|
|
Term
| How many hertz are in one megahertz? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The time it takes one cycle to occur is referred to as?
A. Frequency
B. Period
C. Wavelength
D. Amplitude |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the reciprocal of the pulse repetition frequency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is NOT synonymous with lateral resolution?
A. Azimuthal resolution
B. Transverse resolution
C. Angular resolution
D. Longitudinal resolution |
|
Definition
| D. Longitudinal resolution |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the gray scale display? |
|
Definition
| It displays a range of reflection amplitudes, from white to black. Grayscale is an important factor in contrast resolution |
|
|
Term
| If the beam diameter is reduced, what will happen to the lateral resolution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The speed that a wave moves through a medium is referred to as the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can be done to the sound to reduce beam diameter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of artifact is produced when echoes are put too close to the transducer due to a second pulse emitted before they could be received?
A. Reverberation artifact
B. Range ambiguity artifact
C. Section thickness artifact
D. Side lobe artifact |
|
Definition
| B. Range ambiguity artifact |
|
|
Term
| If the beam diameter is decreased, and lateral resolution is increased, what will happen to depth of penetration? |
|
Definition
| The depth of penetration will decrease |
|
|
Term
| True/False As frequency increases, the attenuation coefficient increases |
|
Definition
| True: In clinical imaging, the attenuation coefficient ranges from 0.5-1.1 dB/cm per MHz of frequency |
|
|
Term
| Curving the element of the transducer if one method of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following parameters is NOT measured by a hydrophone?
A. Amplitude
B. Period
C. Pulse duration
D. Pulse repetition period
E. Effective penetration of the Doppler beam |
|
Definition
| E. Effective penetration of the Doppler beam |
|
|
Term
| A transducer utilizing rectangular rows of elements that are pulsed at small intervals refers to what type of transducer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What parameters are measured by radiation force? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What effect will increasing the line density have on the following imaging characteristics?
A. Image quality
B. PRF
C. Maximum imaging depth
D. Frame rate |
|
Definition
Increasing line density will result in:
A. Improved image quality
B. Lower PRF
C. Lower maximum depth of image
D. Lower frame rate |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A device which measures that temperature rise in an absorbing liquid. From this, total energy absorbed can be measured. |
|
|
Term
| the velocity of a sound wave is equal to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a Device designed to give three dimensional reflection amplitude information. It demonstrates beam characteristics. |
|
|
Term
| If the frequency of sound in the body is doubled what will happen to the velocity? |
|
Definition
It remains the same.
The average speed of sound in tissue is 1540 m/s regardless of transducer frequency |
|
|
Term
The number of pulses occurring in a second describes?
A. Pulse repetition frequency
B. Pulse repetition period
C. Amplitude
D. None of the above |
|
Definition
| A. Pulse repetition frequency |
|
|
Term
| What factor is proportional to the square of the amplitude of a sound wave? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The time from the beginning of one pulse to the beginning of the next is called?
A. Pulse repetition frequency
B. Pulse repetition period
C. Amplitude
D. Propagation speed |
|
Definition
| B. Pulse repetition period |
|
|
Term
| What is the conversion of sound energy to heat (which is a by-produce) called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Sound scattering in all directions due to the reflector being much smaller than the pulse wavelength is referred to as?
A. Spectular reflection
B. Backscatter
C. Rayleigh scattering
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the attenuation of sound per unit length of travel called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False The damping material will increase the bandwidth of a transducer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the angle of incidence of a sound beam equal to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is the propagation speed for pulsed wave the same as continuous wave int he same medium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the change in direction of a sound beam at an interface between two media of different impedance values called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two terms used when describing the strength of sound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The resonant frequency of a transducer is determined basically by what? |
|
Definition
| The speed of the crystal material |
|
|
Term
| True/False Focusing the sound beam will increase the intensity of the sound beam. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two factors which would increase the intensity of the sound beam? |
|
Definition
Intensity is the amount of energy or power per second that travels a specific area. It is affected by.
A. focusing the beam
B. Increasing the power level |
|
|
Term
| A reduction in the reflection amplitude from reflectors that lie behind a strongly reflecting or attenuating structure describes what type of artifact? |
|
Definition
Shadowing
Shadowing artifacts can be due to attenuation or refraction of the sound beam |
|
|
Term
| When sound hits two or more strong reflecting surfaces (usually close to the skin surface), what type of artifact can occur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In clinical imaging, what is the attenuation coefficient range? |
|
Definition
| The attenuation per centimeter for each megahertz of frequency ranges from 0.5-1.1 dB |
|
|
Term
| What is a missing reflector artifact? |
|
Definition
| When tow reflectors are seen as one (resolution) |
|
|
Term
Of the following, which will create the higher attenuation of the sound beam?
A. Lung
B. Bone
C. Soft tissue |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the particle dimensions are less than the wavelength, what type of scattering occurs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the critical angle refer to? |
|
Definition
| The angle at which total reflection occurs |
|
|
Term
If the frame rate is increased, how will it affect the following imaging characteristics?
A. Image quality
B. Line density
C. Maximum depth of penetration
D. PRF |
|
Definition
Increasing the frame rate will result in:
A. Improved image quality for evaluating moving structures
B. The line density may limit the increase in frame rate
C. The maximum depth of imaging will reduced
D. The PRF will increase |
|
|
Term
| What percentage of time is pulsed ultrasound system capable of receiving sound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If amplitude is doubled, what happens to intensity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the wavelength of 1 MHz ultrasound in soft tissue? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What method is utilized in most color flow systems to analyze the Doppler flow information? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What factor determines the acoustic power? |
|
Definition
| Acoustic power is dependent upon the signal from the pulser. The magnitude of crystal vibration is related to the pulser voltage. Acoustic power is controlled by the sonographer and is also referred to as energy output, output gain, transmit gain, transmitter output, or pulse power. |
|
|
Term
| What is side-lobing, and is it considered to be an artifact? |
|
Definition
Side lobing is extraneous beams of ultrasound generated from the edges of individual transducer elements and not in the direction of the main ultrasound beam. The reflectors may appear in an off-axis location or appear in multiple locations on the image.
Yes, side lobing is considered an artifact |
|
|
Term
Imaging performance typically is determined by measuring all of the following parameters EXCEPT?
A. Compensation (TGC) operation
B. Detail resolution
C. Contrast resolution
D. Penetration and dynamic range
E. Color resolution
F. Distance and depth measurements (accuracy) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The intensity averaged over the entire duration of the pulse is called the?
A. Temporal average intensity
B. Temporal peak intensity
C. Spatial peak pulse average
D. Pulse average intensity |
|
Definition
| D. Pulse average intensity |
|
|
Term
| Demodulation converts the voltages delivered to the receiver from one form to another. this is done by what two processes? |
|
Definition
A. Rectification
B. Smoothing |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the rejection function? |
|
Definition
| Eliminates the smaller amplitude voltages produced by weaker reflections to eliminate noise |
|
|
Term
| Which three receiver functions are normally operator adjustable? |
|
Definition
A. Amplification (gain)
B. Compensation
C. Rejection |
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is NOT a function of the receiver?
A. Amplify
B. Compensation
C. Compress
D. Demodulation
E. Reject
F. Contrast resolution |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List the three different methods of displays for the received ultrasound information (non-Doppler) |
|
Definition
A. A-mode
B. B-mode
C. M-mode |
|
|
Term
| True/False Amplitude imaging is more sensitive to detecting slow flow as compared to color Doppler. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a screen converter? |
|
Definition
| A device which stores the gray scale image and allows it to be displayed on a TV monitor. |
|
|
Term
What relationships do the following equations describe?
PRF (KHz)= 77/max depth (cm)
Max depth (cm)= 77/PRF (kHz) |
|
Definition
| The relationship between PRF and the maximum imaging depth in soft tissue |
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum permissible PRF that will unambiguously image to a maximum depth of 20 cm? |
|
Definition
3.85 KHz
this is determined by the formula:
PRF (KHz)= 77/max depth (xm) = 77/20cm = 3.85 KHz |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common affect resulting from high intensity ultrasound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements most correctly describes the focal zone?
A. The region from the fact of the transducer to the narrowest part of the beam.
B. The region where the sound beam is the narrowest
C. The region of the beam that is beyond the narrowest portion of the beam
D. None of the above |
|
Definition
| B. The focal zone is the narrowest segment of the beam, and is the region where the best quality images would be obtained |
|
|
Term
| What is temporal average intensity? |
|
Definition
| Temporal average intensity is the average throughout both transmitting and receiving |
|
|
Term
Which one of the following Doppler angles will result in the greatest Doppler shift?
A. 60 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 70 degrees
D. 0 degrees |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary factor which determines the velocity or propagation speed of the sound wave? |
|
Definition
| The medium through which the sound is traveling |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The change in direction of an ultrasound beam when it passes from one medium to another, in which elasticity and density differ from those of the first medium |
|
|
Term
| What is Huygens' principle? |
|
Definition
| It states that all points on a wavefront can be considered as point sources for the production of spherical secondary wavelets. When all of the wavelets combine according to the Huygens' Principle, a sound beam is produced with the majority of the energy transmitted along a main central beam |
|
|
Term
| What type of scan converters are more commonly utilized today? Why? |
|
Definition
Digital scan converters
Digital scan converters were developed to overcome the inherent instability problems experienced with analog scan converters |
|
|
Term
| What ultrasound factor does the fraction of time that pulsed ultrasound is actually on describe? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The ability of an imaging system to detect weak reflections. |
|
|
Term
| What are the units for attenuation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cardiac index would be calculated as? |
|
Definition
| Cardiac output/Body surface area |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the velocity of flow through a constriction as compared to the flow velocity proximal to it? |
|
Definition
| The flow velocity is greater |
|
|
Term
| What nerve supplies the SA node and controls heart rate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many vessels drain into the right atrium? |
|
Definition
Two: Inferior Vena Cava (IVC)
Superior Vena Cava (SVC) |
|
|
Term
| The principle of the conservation of mass forms the basis for what equation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 201-Thallium scintigraphy is used for evaluation of? |
|
Definition
| Myocardial perfusion defects |
|
|
Term
An atrial gallop sound can be distinguished by auscultation at the apex. This usually described as an?
A. S4 or fourth heart sound
B. S1 or first heart sound
C. Pause
D. S2 or second heart sound |
|
Definition
| A. S4 or fourth heart sound |
|
|
Term
| True/False Closure of the semilunar valves is responsible for S1 (first heart sound) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As fluid moves through a tube, fluid layers in the center have higher velocities than along the walls. This is called a? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the time interval between semilunar valve closure and atrioventricular valve opening termed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many pulmonary veins join the left atrium?
A. Two
B. Four
C. Six
D. Three |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the Modified Bernoulli equation, what two factors are assumed to be negligible in the pressure drop? |
|
Definition
A. Acceleration
B. Viscous effects |
|
|
Term
The standard chest x-ray can be used to determine which of the following?
A. Cardiomegaly
B. Intracardiac shunting
C. Enlarged right ventricle
D. Cardiomyopathy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Exercise electrocardiograph stress testing can be employe4d for detection of myocardial ischemia with stress. This is recognized by what finding on the ECG? |
|
Definition
| Depression of the ST segment |
|
|
Term
The difference between the highest and lowest frequency emitted by the transducer is the definition for?
A. Range solution
B. Spatial pulse length
C. Bandwidth
D. Axial resolution |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The area in which the sound beam diameter decreases as the distance from the transducer increases is referred to as the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False When the color box (window) is steered to the right the frame rate changes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What factors must be known in order to calculate distance to a reflector? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False A large V wave on the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure is a classic finding in aortic regurgitation. |
|
Definition
| False, it is a finding for mitral regurgitation |
|
|
Term
| True/False When noise occurs in the Doppler signal while performing a cardiac exam it may be due to clutter? |
|
Definition
| True, clutter occurs mostly from the heart or vessels walls and is caused by high-amplitude, Doppler shifted echoes. |
|
|
Term
Which of the following do NOT describe sound wave characteristics?
A. Wavelength
B. Amplitude
C. Joule
D. Frequency
E. Velocity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To eliminate the aliasing artifact in spectral Doppler, all of the following could be adjusted except?
A. Baseline
B. PRF (scale, velocity, range)
C. Doppler transmit frequency
D. Wall filter
E. Switch to CW Doppler |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two factors should allow for the transfer of sound from the transducer to the patient (and vice-versa) more efficiently? |
|
Definition
A. Grinding the matching layer to 1/4 wavelength of the velocity of sound through the matching material
B. Use of coupling gel |
|
|
Term
The minimum reflector separation perpendicular to the sound path needed for separate reflections to be produced describes?
A. Axial resolution
B. Lateral resolution
C. Far zone
D. Fraunhaufer zone |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is NOT reflector information that can be from an M-mode display?
A. Distance
B. Motion
C. Multiple dimensions
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two preferred methods of determining cardiac output angiographically? |
|
Definition
Fick Oxygen Technique
Indicator Dilution Method |
|
|
Term
Cardiac output/systolic ejection period X Heart rate/44.30 (0.85) X the square root of the mean pressure gradient, represents the?
A. Modified Simpson's equation
B. Modified Bernoulli's equation
C. Gorlin Formula
D. Frank Starling law |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normal physiologic splitting of S2 heart sound occurs with?
A. Expiration
B. Inspiration
C. Mitral Stenosis
D. Aortic stenosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure is referred to as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Late diastolic equalization of aortic and left ventricular pressures is referred to as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clinically, cardiac tamponade is suspected in the presence of Becks Triad. What are the three features constituting Becks Triad? |
|
Definition
A. Venous hypertension
B. Arterial hypotension
C. Distant heart sounds |
|
|
Term
| By Doppler Echocardiography, peak instantaneous gradient is used to assess aortic stenosis. What is used by heart catheterization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During depolarization what happens to the insides of the cardiac cells with respect to the area outside of the cell membranes?
A. They become positively charged
B. they become negatively charged
C. They remain neutral
D. None of the above |
|
Definition
| A. They become positively charged |
|
|
Term
What technique is used for graphically recording heart sounds using a microphone placed on particular areas of the heart and recording these sounds on photosensitive paper.
A. Hydrophonocardiography
B. Microphonocardiography
C. Phonecardiography
D. Echoencehpalocardiography |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a method that can be used on a patient to accentuate and determine the location of cardiac murmurs?
A. Administering amyl nitrite
B. valsalva manuever
C. Patient positional changes (bending over)
D. Inspiration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a situation in which the S3 heart sound can be auscultated?
A. Non-compliant left ventricle
B. Mitral insufficiency
C. Tricuspid insufficiency
D. Aortic insufficiency |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the normal heart, where is the puulmonic valve in relation to the aorta (from PSAX)
A. Anterior and to the right
B. Anterior and to the left
C. Posterior and to the right
D. Posterior and to the left |
|
Definition
| B. Anterior and to the left |
|
|
Term
| during embryonic development, the semilunar valves are derived from the? |
|
Definition
| Truncal and valve cushions and Truncus arteriosus |
|
|
Term
| On the electrocardiogram, atrial repolarization occurs during ventricular systole and is obscured by the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When sympathetic stimulation causes the heart to beat with improved contractility and a faster rate, not only is systolic function more forceful and faster, but relaxation and elastic recoil are also more rapid. This mechanism is known as the?
A. Force-velocity relationship
B. Frank Starling law
C. Interval strength relationship
D. Interval timing relationship |
|
Definition
| A. Force velocity relationship |
|
|
Term
| The period of time between semilunar valve closure and atrioventricular valve opening is referred to as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What phase of the cardiac cycle occurs with the opening of the semilunar valves following the isovolumic contraction phase of the cardiac cycle? |
|
Definition
| Ventricular ejection phase |
|
|
Term
| The area of the heart where the artial septum joins the ventricular septum is referred to as the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The orifice of the inferior vena cava is guarded by a rudimentary and incomplete valve called the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
the heart's pacemaker cells are able to depolarize without external stimulation, this electrical property is known as?
A. Synchronicity
B. Elasticity
C. Excitability
D. Automaticity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT true regarding power Doppler imaging?
A. Color is assigned according to the strength of the Doppler shifted echoes
B. Power Doppler does not alias
C. Power Doppler can show peak velocity information
D. Power Doppler is angle dependent
E. All of the above
F. A and C
G. C and D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following would suggest a large left to right shunt through a ventricular septal defect?
A. Enlarged right atrium and right ventricle
B. Enlarged left atrium and left ventricle
C. Increased pulmonary blood flow
D. Exaggerated right ventricular wall motion
E. B and C |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common lesion associated with a ventricular septal defect? |
|
Definition
| A ventricular septal aneurysm arising from the tissue comprising the margins of the defect |
|
|
Term
D-loop transposition is also referred to as?
A. Truncus arteriosus
B. Tetralogy of Fallot
C. Marfan's syndrome
D. Transposition of the great arteries |
|
Definition
| D. Transposition of the Great Arteries |
|
|
Term
In the fetal aortic arch system, which of the arches persist in the adult heart?
A. III,IV,and VI
B. I,II and III
C. I,II and VI
D. I, V and VI |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three channels of communication in the fetal circulation that disappear shortly after birth? |
|
Definition
A. Ductus venosus
B. Ductus arteriosus
C. Patent foramen ovale |
|
|
Term
The highest O2 saturation in the fetal circulation is found in the?
A. Umbilical artery
B. Ductus venosus
C. Umbilical vein
D. Ductus arteriosus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The interatrial septum, interventricular septum, and the artioventriclar valves in the adult heart are developed from the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Sunus Venosus in the fetal heart tube is absorbed into the right atrum and in the adult heart forms the? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What occurs around day 22 in the development of the fetal heart and determines the placement of the ventricles and great vessels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two roles of the Ca2+ ion in myocardial excitation-coupling? |
|
Definition
| Initiation of contraction and regulation of contraction |
|
|
Term
| True/False The force of velocity relationship refers to the inverse relationship that exists between the initial speed of muscle fiber contraction and the load placed on the muscle fiber? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The first phase of ventricular systole, coinciding with the initial mitral component of the first heart sound, as well as the first detectable rise in left ventricular pressure is termed? |
|
Definition
| Isovolumetric contraction |
|
|
Term
| What occurs when the semi-lunar valves open, there is a rise in aortic and pulmonary artery pressures, and a decrease in ventricular pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The p wave, which coincides with the a wave on the left atrial pressure tracing, refers to?
A. Ventricular systole
B. Ventricular diastole
C. Atrial systole
D. Atrial diastole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The effects of soft tissue on ultrasound are called?
A. Acoustic proliferation
B. Dynamic effects
C. Acoustic propagation
D. Biologic effects |
|
Definition
| C. Acoustic propagation properties |
|
|
Term
| If the frequency is decreased, what will happen to the wavelength? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is temporal peak intensity measured? |
|
Definition
| At the time the pulse is present |
|
|
Term
Of the following, which has the lowest intensity?
A. Spatial Average, Temporal Average
B. Spatial Peak, Temporal Average
C. Spatial Peak, Temporal Peak
D. Spatial Average, Temporal Peak |
|
Definition
| A. Spatial Average, Temporal Average (SATA) |
|
|
Term
| In the average pulsed ultrasound system, the duty factor is always less than what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A low transducer Q-Factor will result in what kind of bandwidth? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect will increasing the transducer frequency have on axial lateral resolution? |
|
Definition
| Increasing frequency will improve axial & lateral resolution |
|
|
Term
| How does dynamic range affect contrast resolution? |
|
Definition
Low dynamic range = high contrast
High dynamic range = low contrast
High dynamic range allows better contrast resolution through more shades of gray to demonstrate subtle changes in tissue compliance or stiffness |
|
|
Term
| True/False Increased diffraction results with increased attenuation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do the intensities of transmitted or reflected sound depend on? |
|
Definition
A. Incident intensity
B. Impedance of the medium |
|
|
Term
Sound waves striking a target with an irregular surface that is the same dimension as the wavelength are called?
A. Scatter
B. Specular reflections
C. Rayleigh scatter
D. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What principle does Snell's Law apply to?
A. Reflection
B. Refraction
C. Rarefaction
D. Deflection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
This is the formula for?
Sine of Transmission = Sine of Incidence Angle (0) X Medium two propagation speed (mm/micro sec)/Medium one propagation speed (mm/micro sec)
A. Poiseuille's Law
B. Snell's Law
C. Gorlin's Law
D. Frank Starling's Law |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many shades of gray can the human eye perceive? |
|
Definition
| Approximately 100 shades of gray |
|
|
Term
| True/False Refraction occurs with normal incidence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many horizontal lines does a typical TV monitor have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following transducers is a hybrid of the linear and phased array transducer technologies having multiple elements, a curved transducer face, a sector image made possible through beam steering, and focusing capabilities?
A. Annular array transducer
B. Linear array transducer
C. Mechanical transducer
D. Convex or curvilinear array transducer |
|
Definition
| D. Convex or curvilinear array trandsucer |
|
|
Term
Mass per unit volume is the definition for?
A. Viscosity
B. Density
C. Stiffness
D. Mass |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are factors affect the amount of ultrasound absorption in a sound beam EXCEPT?
A. Frequency
B. Decibels
C. Viscosity
D. Relaxation time |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the confirmed biological effects of the use of real time ultrasound on pregnant patients? |
|
Definition
| No confirmed biological effects in the diagnostic output power ranges below 100 mw/cm^2 |
|
|
Term
| What is the range of pulse repetition frequencies utilized in 2-D imaging? |
|
Definition
| 1- 10 KHz (1000-10,000 Hz) |
|
|
Term
what is the percentage of the normal right heart pressure as compared tot he left heart pressure?
A. 50%
B. 70%
C. 10%
D. 20% |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of Doppler instrument is able to distinguish between a positive and negative shift? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following factors can affect axial resolution EXCEPT?
A. Spatial pulse length
B. The medium being insonated
C. Bean width
D. Sound source |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the duty factor of a continuous wave Doppler? |
|
Definition
| 1 (100% of the time) A continuous wave Doppler transmit crystal is active 100% of the time |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The first vertical deflection of the A-mode which corresponds to the transducer face |
|
|
Term
An artifact that is produced from the interaction of the incident beam with a curved surface and results in an acoustic shadow is an
A. Side lobe artifact
B. Edge artifact
C. Grating artifact
D. Ring down artifact |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of artifact results from refraction of the sound beam at a muscle/fat interface, and displays a double image?
A. Mirror image artifact
B. Side lobe artifact
C. Split image artifact
D. Edge artifact |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False An annular array is a mechanical transducer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the travel direction of the ultrasound beam to a medium is not perpendicular, it is referred to as?
A. Perpendicular incidence
B. Horizontal incidence
C. Oblique incidence
D. Angular incidence |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used to describe a sound beam which has perpendicular interaction with a medium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the cardiac output is adjusted to consider the body surface area it is referred to as the?
A. Body surface area
B. Cardiac index
C. Cardiac ratio
D. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What causes a granular appearance to the image or spectral display and is a result of the interference of echoes from the distribution of scatterers in the tissue?
A. Side lobes
B. Speed error
C. Refraction
D. Speckle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chronic volume overload to the left ventricle are in the case of severe aortic insufficiency results in what cardiac chamber adaptation? |
|
Definition
| Left ventricular dilation |
|
|
Term
Which event occurs between the end of the T wave and the onset of the QRS complex?
A. Flow out of the left ventricle
B. Right ventricular systole
C. Pulmonary artery filling
D. Tricuspid valve opening |
|
Definition
| D. Tricuspid valve opening |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cardiac lesion associated with Down's Syndrome patients? |
|
Definition
| Endocardial Coushion Defect |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a component of blood?
A. Leukocytes
B. Erythrocytes
C. Platelets
D. Gases (oxygen, carbon dioxide, nitrogen)
E. Proteins
F. All of the above
G. All except E |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are three observable changes seen with right ventricular volume overload on 2D echo? |
|
Definition
A. Enlarged right heart
B. Praadoxical interventricular septal motion
C. An atrial septum that bulges to the left |
|
|
Term
The Coronary arteries fill during which cardiac phase?
A. Atrial diastole
B. Ventricular systole
C. Ventricular diastole
D. Isovolumic contraction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The circumflex coronary artery supplies the?
A. Anterior left ventricle, and anterior interventricular septum
B. Posterior left ventricle, and posterior interventricular septum, if left dominant
C. Right atrium and right ventricle
D. Inferior and diaphragmatic surface of the right ventricle |
|
Definition
| B. Posterior left ventricle, and posterior interventricular septum, if left is dominant |
|
|
Term
If flow is laminar, what is the mean velocity of flow as compared to the peak velocity of flow?
A. Approximately 1/2
B. Approximately 1/4
C. Approximately 2 times
D. Approximately 4 times |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Blood flow that is organized and that causes similar Doppler shifts due to similar velocities of individual red blood cells is termed?
A. Laminar
B. Parabolic
C. Plug
D. Turbulent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Pressure gradients determination utilizing Bernouli's equation yields?
A. Peak to peak pressure gradients
B. Peak instantaneous pressure gradients
C. Mean pressure gradients
D. Integrated pressure gradients |
|
Definition
| B. Peak instantaneous pressure gradeints |
|
|
Term
| What type of murmur is associated with aortic insufficiency when the regurgitant jet hits the anterior leaflet of the mitral valve? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When the spectral display of the Doppler shift is partially located on the wrong side of the baseline due to aliasing, it is referred to as?
A. Doppler shit
B. Wrap around
C. Reverberation
D. Speckle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following determine beam area EXCEPT?
A. Wavelength (frequency0
B. Transducer diameter
C. Distance from transducer
D. Medium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of wave is sound? |
|
Definition
| A mechanical longitudinal wave |
|
|
Term
The depth at which the intensity is reduced to one half its original value is the?
A. spatial pulse length
B. Half value layer thickness
C. Attenuation coefficient
D. None of the above |
|
Definition
| B. Half value layer thickness |
|
|
Term
| True/False The half value layer thickness is dependent upon the frequency and the medium through which the sound travels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A traveling wave of acoustic variables is the definition for?
A. Frequency
B. Sound
C. Wavelength
D. Energy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The spreading of the sound beam as it moves farther from the sound source describes?
A. Scattering
B. Interference
C. Divergence
D. Reflection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following will improve sound transmission from the transducer into the tissue EXCEPT?
A. Matching layer
B. Coupling material
C. Damping material
D. Refraction
E. C & D |
|
Definition
| E. C & D damping material and refraction |
|
|
Term
| What does increasing frequency for a given transducer size do to the near zone length? |
|
Definition
| The near zone length is increased |
|
|
Term
The number of cycles that an acoustic variable goes through in 1 second of time describes?
A. Frequency
B. Period
C. Wavelength
D. Amplitude |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the propagation of sound in a medium related to the medium's stiffness and density? |
|
Definition
| Propagation of sound is directly proportional to the medium's elasticity, and inversely proportional to the medium's density. As the density of the medium increases, the speed decreases. As the stiffness increases, the speed decreases |
|
|
Term
| In order to eliminate image flicker, what frame rate is necessary in a real time imaging system? |
|
Definition
| > 15-20 frames per second |
|
|
Term
| How is lateral resolution related to beam diameter? |
|
Definition
| Lateral resolution is equal to beam diameter |
|
|
Term
The length of space which one cycle occurs is called?
A. Frequency
B. Period
C. Wavelength
D. Amplitude |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False The nodules of Aranti are bead like interruptions at the center of each semilunar valve cusp. Their purpose is to lend support to the valve leaflets. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False The innermost layer of the heart is called the myocardium |
|
Definition
False
The innermost layer of the heart is called the endocardium |
|
|
Term
| Externally, the two ventricles of the heart are separated by? |
|
Definition
Interventricular Sulci
These structures are obscured by epicardial fat and contain the left anterior descending coronary artery and the posterior descending coronary artery. |
|
|
Term
| The right coronary artery is located within the? |
|
Definition
Coronary sulcus
the coronary sulcus seperates the atria from the ventricles |
|
|
Term
| True/False Arterial circulation is also referred to as systemic circulation, and is measured by a blood pressure cuff? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False Arteriovenous oxygen difference per ml of blood usually in the 30-48% range. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Electrical alternans on a patient's EKG is most likely an indication of presence of?
A. Aortic stenosis
B.Mitral valve prolapse
C. Large pericardial effusion
D. Ventricular septal defect |
|
Definition
| C. large pericardial effusion |
|
|
Term
What are the three vessels that typically arise off the aortic arch?
A. Inominate artery
B. Left common carotid artery
C. Left subclavian artery
D. Left vertebral artery
E. A, B, D
F. A, B, C |
|
Definition
| F. A,B,C Inominate, left common carotid and left subclavian artery |
|
|
Term
| The anterior interventricualr septum, and the cardiac apex are usually supplied by what coronary artery? |
|
Definition
| Left anterior descending coronary artery |
|
|
Term
| True/False ST segment elevation in leads II,III, and VF suggest an inferior mycardial infraction usually involving the right coronary artery. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
From a safety standpoint, which of the following methods is best?
A. High transmitter output and low receiver gain
B. Low transmitter output and high receiver gain
C. High near gain and low far gain
D. Low near gain and high far gain
E. High reject and high transmitter output |
|
Definition
| B. Low transmitter output and high receiver gain |
|
|
Term
The basic concept of hemodynamic monitoring of the cardiac chambers is the conversion of a(n)?
A. Electrical signal to a mechanical signal
B. fluid pressure to an electrical signal
C. Transducer to an electrical signal
D. Transducer to a fluid pressure |
|
Definition
| B. Fluid pressure to an electrical signal |
|
|
Term
| True/False Generally, stenotic coronary artery lesions are not clinically significant unless they are 70% occluded or greater. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name the atrial septal defect most commonly associated with anomalous pulmonary venous return. |
|
Definition
| Sinus Venosus Atrial Septal Defect |
|
|
Term
| What pressure gradient obtained through Doppler echocardiographic interrogation of aortic stenosis, best correlates with cath lab data of the same lesion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A large "V" wave on the pulmonary capillary wedge pressure tracing is consistent with what finding in color flow Doppler echocardiography? |
|
Definition
| Significant mitral regurgitation |
|
|
Term
| Right ventricular systolic pressure is estimated by Doppler interrogation of the tricuspid regurgitant jet. This obtained by inserting the velocity obtained from the jet into the modified Bernouli equation and adding? |
|
Definition
10mmHg to the pressure gradient obtained.
If there are signs of higher elevated right atrial pressure then 20mmHg may be added |
|
|
Term
A cardiac defect characterized by reversal of the ventricles is?
A. D-loop transposition
B. L-loop transposition
C. Complete transposition
D. Truncus arteriosus |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The two portions of the interventricular septum are the? |
|
Definition
| Membranous and muscular interventricualr septum |
|
|
Term
When disturbed or turbulent flow is present the Doppler shift spectrum demonstrates?
A. Reversed flow
B. Spectral broadening
C. Aliasing
D. Mirroring |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What congenital valve defect is associated with atrial ventricular canal defect?
A. Tricuspid atresia
B. Pulmonic stenosis
C. Mitral valve prolapse
D. Cleft mitral valve
E. Bicuspid aortic valve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False Turbulence is characterized by disordered directions of flow in combination with many different blood cell velocities. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are potential echocardiographic findings associated with an enlarged cardiac silhouette by chest x-ray EXCEPT?
A. Dilated left ventricle as with a dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Pericardial effusion
C. Ascending aortic aneurysm
D. Aortic stenosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The two portions of the interventricular septum are the? |
|
Definition
| Membranous and muscular interventricualr septum |
|
|
Term
When disturbed or turbulent flow is present the Doppler shift spectrum demonstrates?
A. Reversed flow
B. Spectral broadening
C. Aliasing
D. Mirroring |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What congenital valve defect is associated with atrial ventricular canal defect?
A. Tricuspid atresia
B. Pulmonic stenosis
C. Mitral valve prolapse
D. Cleft mitral valve
E. Bicuspid aortic valve |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False Turbulence is characterized by disordered directions of flow in combination with many different blood cell velocities. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are potential echocardiographic findings associated with an enlarged cardiac silhouette by chest x-ray EXCEPT?
A. Dilated left ventricle as with a dilated cardiomyopathy
B. Pericardial effusion
C. Ascending aortic aneurysm
D. Aortic stenosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Select the observations that better corresponds to the hemodynamic consequences of severe aortic insufficiency.
A. left ventricular pressures exceed pulmonary capillary wedge pressures early in diastole
B. Decreased E-F slope on M-mode echocardiography
C. Decreased pressure half-time by continuous wave echocardiogaphic evaluation of mitral inflow
D. Equalization of aortic and left ventricular pressures in late diastole
E. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Shunt quantitation by the oximetry method involves comparing? |
|
Definition
| Qp/Qs (volume per minute of pulmonary flow to volume per minute of systemic flow) |
|
|
Term
| An arrhythmia caused by rapid discharge from the numerous irritable automaticity foci in the atrias is called________? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What arrhythmia is characterized by a wide QRS, a regular rhythm, and a heart rate greater than 150 beats per minute? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Autocorrelation is the technique by which by which returning echoes are displayed in color Doppler echocardiography. Fast Fourier Transform technique is not used because?
A. the method is too inaccurate
B. the expense consideration
C. The method is not fast enough
D. There is a problem with brightness
E. None of the above |
|
Definition
| C. The method is not fast enough |
|
|
Term
| True/False The more bits per pixel, the more shades of gray can be assigned |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Frequency of a sound wave is measured in? |
|
Definition
Hertz
One cycle per second = 1 Hertz
one thousand cycles per second = 1 Kilohertz
One million cycles per second = 1 Megahertz |
|
|
Term
The reduction in intensity and amplitude of sound as it travels through a medium is called?
A. Reflection
B. Impedance
C. Scatter
D. Attenuation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Does attenuation for soft tissue increase or decrease with increased tissue thickness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An artifact occurring when the sound waves chang3es direction when traveling from one media to another. This results with the reflector being improperly positioned on the display |
|
|
Term
In the modified Bernoulli equation, pressure and velocity have a?
A. Direct relationship
B. Inverse relationship
C. Reverse relationship
D. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the fetal circulation, what percentage of blood flow goes to the lungs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is NOT a typical presenting symptom of a type I dissecting aortic aneurysm?
A. Arterial hypotension
B. Tearing chest pain radiating to back
C. Aortic insufficiency murmur
D. Jugular distension |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False Patients that are unable to preform adequate exercise due to peripheral vascular disease, musculoskeletal, or neurological disorders cannot have a stress test? |
|
Definition
False
Pharmacological stress agents can be used to adequately increase the heart rate |
|
|
Term
Which of the following blood flow characteristics can be evaluated with color flow imaging?
A. Flow direction
B. Presence of flow
C. Quality of flow
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the typical assignment for blood flow towards and away from the transducer? |
|
Definition
Blood flow towards = Red
Blood flow away = Blue
BART = Blue away/Red towards |
|
|
Term
| What do the varying hues from dull to bright colors represent in color flow imaging? |
|
Definition
Varying frequency shifts
Duller the hue = lower frequency shift
Brighter the hue = higher frequency shift |
|
|
Term
| What type of Doppler instrumentation is the color flow information derived from? |
|
Definition
| Multi-gate pulsed wave Doppler |
|
|
Term
| True/False The density of blood, velocity, and vessel size all affect flow of blood in the body |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The method in which data from a gate on one line is averaged with data on an adjacent line is referred to as?
A. Line averaging
B. Interline interpolation
C. Fast Fourier transform
D. spectral analysis
E. None of the above
F. Both A and B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of display preserves some of the reflection dynamic range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the amplification function of the receiver? |
|
Definition
| Increases small voltages received from the transducer to larger ones suitable for processing. |
|
|
Term
| What does a mosaic appearance in color flow represent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False The greatest color sensitivity is achieved when the color Doppler beam is directed at an angle 0-20 degrees to flow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the PRF is increased, what will happen to the duty factor? |
|
Definition
| The duty factor will increase. Duty factor is the amount of time the sound is being transmitted. Any factor which increases the time an ultrasound machine is transmitting sound will cause the duty factor to increase. |
|
|
Term
| True/False The loss of image contrast due to side lobe interference can be improved by apodization? |
|
Definition
True
Apodization is a term used to describe the scattering of collimated light beam by diffraction of the side portion. Engineering techniques have been designed for linear array transducers, so that the sensitivity of the peripheral piezoelectric element is reduced. |
|
|
Term
| What factor determines the ultrasound pulse amplitude and intensity? |
|
Definition
Sound source
Both amplitude and intensity are determined by the sound source. Amplitude is the strength of the sound wave and is equal to the maximum variation in an acoustic variable. Intensity is the concentration of energy in a sound wave. The intensity can vary as the sound travels through the body. Intensity is proportional to power. Both amplitude and intensity can be charged by the operator. |
|
|
Term
| The ratio of output to input is defined as? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
One-line of color-flow information is produced by approximately?
A. 50 pulses
B. 100 pulses
C. 10 pulses
D. 1000 pulses |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the pulse repetition frequency (PRF)? |
|
Definition
| PRF is the number of electrical pulses produced per second. It is determined by the sound source. In diagnostic imaging, the PRF ranges from 1-10 KHz. The PRF will change with changes in imaging depth. the PRF will decrease with increased imaging depth. |
|
|
Term
The pulser of an ultrasound system produces and electrical voltage that?
A. Drives the transducer
B. Tells the display where the ultrasound pulses are produced
C. Both A and B
D. A only |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the five functions of the receiver? |
|
Definition
A. Amplification
B. Compensation
C. Compression
D. Demodulation
E. Rejection |
|
|
Term
What type of ultrasound transducer has multiple concentric piezoelectric elements that are energized sequentially from the inside out allowing for circular symmetry of the beam?
A. Linear sequenced array
B. Curvilinear array
C. Phased array
D. Annular Array |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lateral resolution will vary depending on?
A. Depth
B. Beam diameter
C. transducer frequency
D. Focusing
E. A,B,C
F. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of artifact occurs when the path lengths that the pulse travels to and from a structure or reflector are different?
A. Range artifact
B. Multipath artifact
C. Mirror image artifact
D. Side lobe artifact |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False Amplitude imaging of blood flow is angle dependent |
|
Definition
False
Amplitude imaging is also known as color angio and power Doppler. Colors are assigned based on the strength or amplitude of the Doppler shifted echoes making it less dependent on angle of incidence. |
|
|
Term
| True/False The terms suppression and threshold are synonymous with amplification? |
|
Definition
False
These terms are synonymous with rejection |
|
|
Term
If the soft tissue-air interface is curved sufficiently, the incident beam is reflected in a manner that none of it returns to the transducer, this is displayed as a?
A. Attenuation shadow
B. Comet tail
C. Edge shadow
D. Enhancement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used to describe the ratio of the largest power to the smallest power that the system can handle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following affect attenuation?
A. Depth
B. Scattering
C. Absorption
D. All of the above
E. None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What purpose does the compensation function have? |
|
Definition
| The compensation function equalizes differences in received reflection amplitudes due to reflector depth |
|
|
Term
Which of the following terms describe compensation?
A. Gain compensation
B. Swept gain
C. Time gain compensation (TGC)
D. Depth gain compensation (DGC)
E. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of cavitation? |
|
Definition
Stable and transient cavitation
Stable and transient cavitation occurs when there is steady oscillation of a bubble with the passing of a sound wave. The bubbles absorb most of the acoustic energy. Transient cavitation is initiated by negative pressure of sound waves. There is violent expansion and collapsing of the bubbles. |
|
|
Term
The distance from the beginning of a pulse to the end of the pulse is the?
A. Wavelength
B. Frequency
C. Spatial pulse length
D. spatial pulse time |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Isovolumic indices are derived from the?
A. Afterload phase
B. Ejection phase
C. Pre ejection phase
D. Post ejection phase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The rate of pressure rise within the ventricle during isovolumic systole is?
A. Afterload
B. Pre ejection phase
C. Contraction
D. Relaxation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ventricular function is determined by?
A. Afterload
B. Pre load
C. Contractility
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The amount of blood ejected by the ventricle per unit time is the?
A. Cardiac output
B. Strove volume
C. Ejection fraction
D. Cardiac index |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following occurs during isovolumetric contraction?
A. Pressure in the left ventricle decreases, no valve open
B. Pressure in the left ventricle increases, no valves open
C. Mitral valve opens
D. Aortic valve opens |
|
Definition
| B. Pressure in the left ventricle increases, no valves open |
|
|
Term
| True/False As imaging depth increases, pulse repetition period increases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The atria and ventricles are at rest during? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ejection fraction can determine which of the following?
A. Cardiac output
B. Overall heart function
C. Wall motion
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The ratio of stroke volume to end diastolic volume is?
A. Cardiac output
B. Ejection fraction
C. Cardiac index
D. Afterload |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Normal adult cardiac output is?
A. 3-5 liters/min
B. 1-2 liters/min
C. 10-12 liters/min
D. 30-50 liters/min |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Stroke volume is measured in?
A. Velocity
B. Milliliters
C. Centimeters
D. Cardiac output |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False Intracardiac pressues are constant throughout the cardiac cycle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hemodynamic pressure readings are measured in?
A. mmHg
B. Centimeters
C. Milliliters
D. Cardiac output |
|
Definition
| A. mmHg (millimeters of mercury) |
|
|
Term
Pulmonary hypertension is suggested when pulmonary artery pressures are?
A. < 10mmHg
B. <20mmHg
C. <30mmHg
D. 35 mmHg or greater |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The normal left ventricle end diastolic pressure is?
A. 5-12mmHg
B. 20-30mmHg
C. 40-50mmHg
D. >100mmHg |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The stretching force to which the myocardial muscle is subjected in its relaxed state is?
A. Ventricular contracility
B. Ventricular afterload
C. Ventricular preload
D. Compliance |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Dark, red blood that is low in oxygen and high in carbon dioxide can be found in which cardiac chamber?
A. Left ventricle
B. Right atrium
C. Left atrium
D. Aorta |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False When the left ventricle is filling, the aortic valve is open |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False The coronary arteries fill during diastole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Valsalva maneuver transiently increases pressure in the?
A. Aorta
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Right atrium
D. Left ventricle |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The first mechanical event in the cardiac cycle is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False Heart sounds occur when the cardiac valves close |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The first heart sound is also called a?
A. Snap
B. S1
C. S2
D. Click |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The healthy human heart sound should be heard as S1/S2 pause S2/S1. The interval between S1 and S2 represents?
A. Ventricular diastole
B. Ventricular systole
C. End diastole
D. End systole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Ventricular diastole is represented by the?
A. S2
B. S1
C. Pause |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Murmurs are produced by?
A. Thickened and or narrowed valves
B. Acute angina pectoris
C. Regurgitant lesions
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Mechanical events of the heart can be evaluated by?
A. Auscultation
B. Chest x-ray
C. Oximetry
D. Blood Pressure |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The abnormal supply of fatty cells below the intima is the initial stage of?
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Congenital heart disease
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Mitral Stenosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Angina or chest pain may be caused by?
A Embolus
B. Tissue hypoxia
C. Plaque
D. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| True/False A stenotic cardiac valve predominately affects the chambers immediately downstream. |
|
Definition
False
A stenotic valve can severely impede flow and cause dilatation of the sending chamber as well |
|
|
Term
The purpose of the normal cardiac valves is to provide?
A. Bi-directional flow
B. Unidirectional flow
C. No flow
D. Reverse flow |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the most frequent cause of atherosclerosis?
A. Obesity
B. Smoking
C. Hypertension
D. Genetic predisposition |
|
Definition
| D. Genetic predisposition |
|
|
Term
A murmur occurring in the absence of any pathological change in structure is called a?
A. Austin-Flint murmur
B. Crescendo-decrescendo murmur
C. Functional murmur
D. Gibson murmur |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient with aortic stenosis may have an ausculatory finding of a?
A. Crescendo-decrescendo murmur
B. Loud, rough ejection systolic murmur
C. Ejection sound at the left sternal border
D. Diminished our absent second aortic sound
E. All of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The vibration produced by the movement of blood within the heart is an?
A. Bruit
B. Infarct
C. Murmur
D. Gradient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Blowing and hissing following the second heart sound is heard in?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Pulmonic stenosis
C. Aortic Insufficiency
D. Mitral regurgitation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Systolic murmurs are best classified according to?
A. Time of onset and termination
B. Time of termination
C. Time of onset
D. Interval time |
|
Definition
| A. Time onset and termination |
|
|
Term
Mid to late systolic clicks originate in the?
A. Aortic apparatus
B. Mitral apparatus
C. Septum
D. SA node |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A graphic representation of electrical activity is a?
A. Electroencephalogram
B. Electrocardiogram
C. Tococardiogram
D. Phonocardiogram |
|
Definition
| B. Electrocardiogram (ECG) |
|
|
Term
Atrial fibrillation is best identified by an?
A. Wide QRS
B. ST depression
C. Absence of P wave
D. Bradycardia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bundle branch block patterns are recognized by a?
A. Wide QRS
B.Q wave
C. ST depression
D. P wave |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements correctly describes events occurring during stimulation of the atria and ventricles?
A. The atria depolarize in a downward fashion.
B. the period of ventricular relaxation is called systole
C. The ventricle depolarization in the direction of the epicardium
D. None of the above |
|
Definition
| A. the atria depolarize in a downward fashion |
|
|
Term
What is the most common life-threatening complication of myocardial infarction?
A. Pulmonary emboli
B. Arrhythmias
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. Ventricular aneurysm |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A screening tool for identifying patients with significant coronary artery disease and assessing cardiovascular function is a?
A. Holter monitor
B. Echocardiogram
C. Stress EKG
D. EKG |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When preforming a stress EKG, the most likely finding on an individual that can sustain maximal oxygen demand without demonstrating symptoms or ekg changes is?
A. An acute myocardial infarction
B. Suffering from myocardial hypoxia
C. Suggestive of a normal exam
D. Inconclusive |
|
Definition
| C. Suggestive of a normal exam |
|
|
Term
The most common method of determining cardiac output during cardiac catheterization is?
A. Blood pressure
B. Fick oxygen method
C. indocine green dye
D. Ventriculogram |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Clubbing may e a physical finding seen in patients with?
A. Endocarditis
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Atrial fibrillation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Typically what is the first symptom of mitral stenosis?
A. Chest pain
B. Exertional dyspnea
C. Clubbing
D. Jugular venous distension |
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Definition
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Term
A patient presenting with possible Marfan's syndrome commonly presents with physical findings of?
A. Long extremities
B. Tall, lean body
C. Disproportionately long and thin digits
D. Pectus carinatum or pectus excavatum
E. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
The most common cause of mitral stenosis is?
A. Congenital defect
B. Rheumatic heart disease
C. Ruptured chordae
D. Aging |
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Definition
| B. Rheumatic heart disease |
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Term
Which of the following are advantages of preforming nuclear stress testing verses stress EKG?
A. Nuclear stress testing can assess cardiac blood perfusion
B. Nuclear stress testing is more sensitive and specific
C. Nuclear stress testing can differentiate between scarring and ischemia
D. Helps to determine the method of possible medical intervention
E. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
When an asymptomatic patient has a positive stress EKG, the next possible non-invasive cardiac test ordered may be?
A. Nuclear stress test
B. Stress echocardiography
C. Holter Monitor
D. A and B
E. B and C
F. All of the above |
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Definition
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Term
When preforming stress echocardiography, all four views should be acquired within?
A. The first 5 mins after exercise
B. The first 3 mins after exercise
C. the first minute after exercise
D. Time is not a factor |
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Definition
| C. The first minute after exercise |
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Term
Which of the following is NOT a reason to preform stress echocardiography?
A. Detection of regional wall motion abnormalities
B. Helps to determine the effectiveness of recent inerventional procedures
C. Detects and evaluates arrhythmias
D. Provides a baseline for comparison with future testing |
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Definition
| C. Detects and evaluates arrhythmias |
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Term
According to the new guidelines provided by the American Heart Association, what is the first thing you should do if an adult collapses and is unresponsive?
A. Open an airway on the victim
B. Activate the local emergency medical service number
C. Begin chest compression
D. Begin rescue breathing |
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Definition
| B. Activate the local emergency medical services number |
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Term
When there are two rescuers performing CPR, the rate of chest compression to rescue breathing should be?
A. 5 to 1
B. 15 to 1
C. 5 to 2
D. 15 to 2 |
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Definition
| D. 15 to 2 compression to breath |
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Term
An ausculatory finding in tricuspid stenosis of an increase in intensity of the diastolic murmur with inspiration is referred to as?
A. DeRosier's sign
B. Carvallo's sign
C. Murphy's sign
D. Ebstein's sign |
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Definition
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