201.            Once the visor and aft cargo doors are open, they will withstand wind gusts up to _____ knots but should not be opened if winds are in excess of _____ knots.

a.       50;20

b.       50;35

c.        70;20

d.       70;35

d.       70;35

202.            Avoid engine operation between _____ percent N1, except for transients, after encountering engine icing.

a.       61 to 67

b.       74 to 84

c.        75 to 85

d.       67 to 87

203.            Engine vibrations occurring as a result of ice accretion and uneven shedding (evident as "rattle or buzz") can be cleared by momentarily and individually advancing each engine to at least _____­ RPM.

a.       90% N1

b.       90% N2

c.        67 to 87% N1

d.       78 to 84% N1

204.            A fan blade inspection is required prior to the next flight after encountering engine icing.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

205.            Take-offs may be made with up to 1/4 inch accumulation of ice, snow or frost on the airplane providing all flight control surfaces are clear.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

b.       FALSE

206.            Take-offs shall not be attempted with over _____ inch of wet snow, slush, and/or water; or over _____ inches of dry snow on the runway.

a.       ½; 2

b.       ½; 3

c.        1; 2

d.       1; 3

b.       1/2; 3

207.            After take-off on slush or water covered runways, delay gear retraction ____ to allow the slipstream to clear the gear wells of slush and water.

a.       1 minute

b.       2 minutes

c.        3 minutes

d.       5 minutes

208.            If icing conditions are expected during descent, turn on engine anti-ice at least ____ feet above the highest icing level.

a.       1,000

b.       2,000

c.        5,000

d.       10,000

d.       10,000

209.            During cold weather conditions, a hung start is possible (engine stalling in the 50-60% N2 range). To cure this condition: __________.

a.       shut down engine and apply external heat to the fuel control

b.       allow engine to idle until RPM reaches normal range

c.        direct the engineer to close the pylon bleed valve to assist the engine in accelerating to normal range

d.       shut down the engine and make appropriate entry in the AFTO 781-- an engine oil change is required

a.       shut down engine and apply external heat to the fuel control

210.            After 6 hours or more exposure to ground temperatures below -25°F, MLG retraction time may be as much as ____ seconds and NLG retraction as much as ____ minute(s).  The climb-out flight path obstacle height must be corrected to account for reduced climb capacity.

a.       30; 1

b.       30; 2

c.        40; 1

d.       40; 2

d.       40; 2

211.            MTR take-off power settings may be used with MAJCOM approval.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

212.            The order of priority for take-off planning is as follows:

a.       reduced rolling, reduced standing, TRT rolling, TRT standing

b.       reduced standing, TRT standing, reduced standing, TRT rolling

c.        reduced rolling, reduced standing, TRT standing, TRT rolling

d.       reduced rolling , TRT rolling, reduced rolling, TRT standing

213.            The minimum permissible Take-off Static N1 to be used for take-off planning is: _____.

a.       84%

b.       85%

c.        86%

d.       83%

214.            __________ is the minimum airspeed during take-off at which the airplane can lose an outboard engine and maintain directional control without exceeding a lateral deviation on the runway of 25 feet.

a.       V_MCA

b.       V_MCG

c.        V_CEF

d.       none of the above are correct

215.            __________ is the maximum speed which the airplane can attain under normal acceleration, at takeoff power, lose an engine, be recognized, and then stop in the available runway.

a.       V_GO

b.       V_CEF

c.        V_MCG

d.       V_R

d.       V_R

216.            Rotation speed from the performance charts ensures lift-off speed always equals or exceeds __________ but may be less than __________.

a.       V_MCG; V_MCA

b.       V_MCA; V_MCG

c.        V_MCG; V_MCO

d.       V_MCA; V_GO

217.            GO speed is the lowest of: __________.

a.       V_R, V_MCO, or V_MCG

b.       V_R, V_MCG, or V_TLS

c.        V_ROT, V_R, or V_MCG

d.       V_ROT, V_R, or V_{B (MAX)}

d.       V_ROT, V_R, or V_{B (MAX)}

218.            If GO speed is V_ROT, then an increase in V_ROT due to wind gusts will increase _____ speed an equal amount not to exceed _____ or V_{B (MAX)}.

a.       V_MCG, V_MCA

b.       GO, V_MCO

c.        GO, V_MCA

d.       GO, V_R

d.       GO, V_R

219.            For any given weight, there is an optimum altitude which will provide maximum endurance capability at recommended endurance speed.  The optimum altitude and recommended endurance speed are based on flying at a nominal angle of attack of _____ degrees.

a.       3

b.       5

c.        6

d.       7.7

220.            If approach speed has been increased five knots for known or suspected icing and the C.G. is forward of 23 percent MAC, landings must be made with not more than: __________.

a.       62.5 percent flaps

b.       40 percent flaps

c.        0 percent flaps

d.       Derived from the 1-1

221.            If a 40% flap landing is made due to crosswinds, ensure the landing speed does not exceed: __________.

a.       the minimum ground control speed

b.       the maximum spoiler deployment speed

c.        174 knots

d.       the tire limit speed

d.       the tire limit speed

222.            If charted landing ground roll distance is desired, note that delayed application of maximum anti-skid braking could increase ground roll distance by approximately _____ feet per second of delay.

a.       100

b.       250

c.        375

d.       500

223.            Normal taxi with random light braking will increase brake temperatures by: ____°C.

a.       100

b.       150

c.        200

d.       500

224.            Extended taxi operations may produce brake temperatures greater than: ____°C.

a.       100

b.       200

c.        300

d.       475

225.            Critical phase of flight is defined in AFI 11-2C-5V3 as:

a.       takeoff

b.       air refueling

c.        approach and landing

d.       all the above are correct

d.       all the above are correct

226.            An A-2 maintenance status indicates minor maintenance is required and not serious enough to cause a mission delay.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

227.            Significant Meteorological Information (SIGMET) concerning your route of flight is:

a.       an area weather advisory issued by an ICAO meteorological office relayed to and broadcast by the applicable ATC agency.

b.       issued for conditions such as tornadoes, lines of thunderstorms, large hail, and/or widespread dust or sand storms

c.        applicable only to general aviation aircraft

d.       both a and b are correct

d.       both a and b are correct

228.            A crewmember uses the term "timeout" over the interphone while the pilot and flight engineer are discussing an observed engine malfunction.  The crewmember is: _____.

a.       stating the pilot should land as soon as practical

b.       stating the flight engineer should follow the pilot's orders

c.        asserting concern safety may be jeopardized

d.       out-of-line and should keep off the interphone

229.            The aircraft commander is in command of all persons aboard the aircraft and is the final authority for requesting or accepting any waivers affecting the crew or mission.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

a.       TRUE

230.            The aircraft commander is in command of all persons aboard the aircraft and is the final authority for requesting or accepting any waivers affecting the crew or mission.   The en route command and control agency is responsible for the welfare of the crew.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

b.       FALSE

231.            Pilots on duty familiarization flights will be monitored by another qualified pilot in the observer's seat.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

a.       TRUE

232.            At the end of the legal for alert window or if the mission risk becomes elevated and the aircraft commander determines the overall risk of the mission prohibits safe continuation, he/she will contact a C2 agent and establish a new expected alert time.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

a.       TRUE

233.            ALFA Standby Aircraft Security:  The pilot-in-command (PIC) will ensure the aircraft is closed and sealed before entering crew rest.  If access to a sealed aircraft is required, the PIC or designated representative must be present.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

139.            To be considered an enroute C-5 maintenance capable base, which of the following is NOT required.

a.       Parts on hand

b.       Support equipment

c.        Skilled maintenance personnel

d.       All are required.

d.       All are required.

235.            A maximum of 20 crewmembers and passengers are authorized seating on the flight deck, subject to oxygen and life vest availability.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

a.       TRUE

236.            A qualified aircraft commander will accomplish all engine-out approaches and Category II ILS approaches when below Category I minimums from the left seat unless conditions prevent compliance.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

237.            Select the correct statement(s) concerning seat belt use.

a.       Crewmembers occupying pilot, copilot, or flight engineer positions will have seat belts fastened at all times in-flight, unless crew duties dictate otherwise

b.       Crewmembers performing instructor/flight examiner duties while occupying a primary crew position are exempt from seat belt requirements

c.        During air refueling, crewmembers in the relief crew compartment must remain seated but are not required to fasten their seat belts

d.       both a and b are correct

a.       Crewmembers occupying pilot, copilot, or flight engineer positions will have seat belts fastened at all times in-flight, unless crew duties dictate otherwise

238.            Mandatory advisory calls for the pilot not flying the airplane are: __________.

a.       100 feet above step down altitude on nonprecision approaches

b.       transition altitude on climb out

c.        100 feet above glide slope intercept altitude on precision approaches

d.       all the above are correct

d.       all the above are correct

239.            What are the criteria for calling "Stable" following a visual/tactical approach?

a.       +/- 10 knots of computed approach speed, no excessive sink rate, cleared to land and no more than 10 degrees of bank required to correct to runway centerline.

b.       +/- 5 knots of computed approach speed, no excessive sink rate, gear down and no more than 30 degrees of bank required to correct to runway centerline.

c.        +10 to -5 knots of computed approach speed, no excessive sink rate, Before Landing checklist complete and no more than 30 degrees of bank required to correct to runway centerline.

d.       +15 to -5 knots of computed approach speed, no excessive sink rate, and AOA commensurate with the flap setting and no more than 10 degrees of bank required to correct to runway centerline.

d.       +15 to -5 knots of computed approach speed, no excessive sink rate, and AOA commensurate with the flap setting and no more than 10 degrees of bank required to correct to runway centerline.

139.            Select the correct statement(s) concerning use of the aircraft interphone.

a.       Do not discuss classified information on interphone below FL 250 unless within FAA airspace.

b.       Pilots will periodically announce their intentions when flying departures, arrivals, approaches, or when circumstances require deviating from normal procedures.

c.        Primary crewmembers will monitor interphone.  Crewmembers are not required to advise the aircraft commander prior to checking off interphone.

d.       all the above are correct

b.       Pilots will periodically announce their intentions when flying departures, arrivals, approaches, or when circumstances require deviating from normal procedures.

241.            Both pilots will monitor UHF and VHF guard to the maximum extent possible.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

a.       TRUE

242.            Minimum RCR for takeoff or landing is the lowest RCR depicted in the C-5 performance manual (never less than 3).  Normally, RCR values are not reported for taxiways and ramps.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

243.            During taxi, what is the maximum height of an obstacle within 10 feet of the outboard nacelle?

a.       Less than 3 feet

b.       3 feet

c.        3-6 feet

d.       None of the above.

244.            When taxi clearance is doubtful, use a wing walker(s).  At night, a wing walker is only required to have one illuminated wand.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

245.            You are operating with a waiver on an airfield where the taxiways are less than 75 feet wide.  When turning on these taxiways, the aircraft commander should use an observer to monitor the airplane's position.  A crewmember on interphone, positioned at a door, can be sufficient for this purpose.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

246.            Jettison fuel only under the following circumstances: __________.

a.       safety of flight dictates an immediate jettison (as determined by the pilot in command)

b.       when an urgent operational requirement dictates immediate recovery/reconstitution of the aircraft and/or aircrew

c.        to facilitate visual contact between a tanker and receiver aircraft

d.       both a and b are correct

247.            All fuel jettisons will be followed up with a detailed report filed by the pilot in command immediately after landing (AMC Form 97, AMC In-flight Emergency and Unusual Occurrence Worksheet).

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

a.       TRUE

248.            Aircrews will normally not attempt to recover an aircraft after inadvertent entry onto unprepared surfaces not suitable for taxi.  Unless an emergency situation dictates otherwise, aircrews may only accomplish recovery if there is no aircraft damage, the surface will support the aircraft, and the PIC has coordinated with appropriate MAJCOM headquarters maintenance authorities through 18 AF/TACC, or appropriate C2 agency..

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

249.            At FL 230, the minimum horizontal separation from thunderstorm activity is: __________.

a.       10 nm

b.       20 nm

250.            To minimize exposure to thunderstorm hazards when approaching or departing an airport in an area where thunderstorms are occurring or forecast: __________.

a.       try to maintain VMC

b.       maintain at least 5 nm separation from heavy rain showers

c.        avoid clouds within 5000 feet of the freezing level since this is an area of high lightning potential

d.       all the above are correct

d.       all the above are correct

251.            ACs should conduct a rapid decompression drill during the first suitable segment of each airlift mission.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE

252.            When not published by category, circling approach minima for C-5 operations are:

a.       ceiling - 800 feet; visibility - 2 miles

b.       ceiling - 600 feet; visibility - 2 miles

c.        ceiling - 400 feet; visibility - 1 3/4 miles

d.       ceiling - 300 feet; visibility - 3/4 miles

253.            When can an aircraft commander elect to hold at a destination that is below landing minimums?

a.       If the fuel remaining exceeds the amount required to fly to the alternate and hold for the appropriate holding time

b.       If the weather at the alternate is forecast to remain at or above alternate filing minimums

c.        If the destination weather is forecast to be at or above minimums before the excess fuel is consumed

d.       all the above are correct

d.       all the above are correct

254.            An IFF code of _________ indicates the aircraft is being hijacked.

a.       7500

b.       7600

c.        7700

255.  If involved in a mishap or incident, after landing and terminating the emergency, pull the CVR power circuit breaker.

a.       TRUE

b.       FALSE