51. When directives and/or restrictions prohibit HF emissions, ensure the HF ACP system is set to silent mode (SIL), or turned OFF.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

52. The TCAS FAIL advisory message is displayed when:

a. an RA FAIL occurs
b. radar altimeters 1 and 2 are set to OFF
c. displays are trying to display TCAS traffic when TCAS RT has failed
d. all of the above

53. In-flight, a VIA or AIU which is still operative following failure of the complimentary component will shut down within ___ seconds. On the ground, the shutdown window is extended to ___ minutes to permit recovery from a momentary failure or loss of synchronization.

a. 5; 15
b. 20; 3
c. 10; 5
d. 3; 20

54. Power for the EGIs is provided by two 28VDC buses, backed up by 24V battery power.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

55. An in-flight alignment can be performed when the GPS is in ____mode and has a Figure of Merit (FOM) of ___ or less.

a. NAV;4

b. ALIGN;5

c. NAV; 5

d. ALIGN; 4

56. During intermediate stages in the alignment process, a shortcut transition can be manually selected to enter a degraded navigation mode. Transition to navigation operation is achieved more quickly than occurs for a full GC ALIGN, but the resultant navigation calculations are performed with reduced accuracy.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

57. When MANUAL mode is selected, the loss of the selected navigation solution will cause the FMS to lose its navigation solution until another solution is manually selected or AUTO mode is reselected.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

58. Airplane movement during alignment may cause position errors. If the airplane is moved during alignment, realign the EGIs and MIRS.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

59. The L2 (MODE SELECT) key on the INU Control page displays the selected EGI alignment mode. Selecting GC-REF initiates:

a. gyrocompass alignment to GPS position

b. gyrocompass alignment to the last position

c. gyrocompass alignment to a manually entered position

d. an in-flight alignment

60. During flight, if an INU FAIL is displayed:

a. select operative attitude source

b. select INU/RAD with TACANs in MANUAL mode

c. verify navigation solution

d. Both a and c

61. If UNABLE RNP is displayed, select a GPS only solution and continue to destination. RNAV(GPS) approaches are still authorized in this condition.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

62. LNAV engagement requires an airplane altitude of ___ AGL or higher. VNAV engagement requires an airplane altitude of ___ AGL or higher.

a. 30; 200

b. 50; 100

c. 30; 400

d. 50; 400

63. If the cabin altitude reaches a pressure equivalent to ___________ feet, the (continuous flow oxygen system) regulators automatically open and oxygen begins to flow.

a. 10,000

b. 10,000 to 11,500

c. 12,500 to 14,000

d. 11,500

64. Which condition(s) will result in an EGPWS warning?

a. Excessive descent rate below 2,450 feet AGL

b. Altitude loss after take-off or go-around exceeds the EGPWS warning profiles

c. When the airplane descends below 245 feet and 159 kts with the gear down and flaps not in the landing configuration

d. all of the above are correct

65. The EGPWS produces alerts for windshear conditions during takeoffs and approaches. Which of the following are correct statements?

a. An increasing performance windshear is displayed as a red “WIND SHEAR” message on the PFD and a “CAUTION WIND SHEAR” aural alert

b. An alert is provided if, in level unaccelerated flight, airspeed changes more than 2 kts/sec, or a combination of wind shear or vertical drafts exceed this threshold.

c. A decreasing performance windshear is displayed as a red “WIND SHEAR” message on the PFD and a “WIND SHEAR” aural alert.

d. Both b and c are correct.

66. Which of the following would cause an UNPRESS DOOR OPEN warning?

a. the visor door

b. the aft ramp

c. the center cargo door

d. the crew entrance door

67. Which of the following would cause a PRESS DOOR OPEN warning?

a. the crew entrance door

b. the right troop door

c. the center cargo door

d. the flight deck service door

68. The smoke detection system consists of six detector units, a common amplifier and the associated controls and indicators. A detector is located in each of the following areas: Center wing area above the flap pack, avionics compartment, AC load center, troop compartment, center cargo compartment, and aft cargo compartment.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

69. Checklist steps referencing SCM, DS, or a TCTO modification need not be read if the airplane's modification status does not reflect that particular configuration.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

70. If the associated VIA FAN FAIL advisory is displayed, check for fan operation and monitor VIA/AIU operation at 30 minute intervals. Also refer to VIA/AIU FAILURES in section 3 of TO 1C-5A-1-4.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

71. An erroneous value for groundspeed while taxiing may indicate an INU misalignment.

a. TRUE

b. FALSE

72. When checking the difference between the EGI and MIRS sourced magnetic heading, ensure the sensed true headings from the EGI and MIRS remain within ___ degrees of each other.

a. 2

b. 4

c. 3

d. 5

73. If all engines are required to be shut down prior to take-off, accomplish the ____ before accomplishing the ____.

a. After Landing check; Engine Shutdown check

b. Engine Shutdown check; After Landing check

c. Before Taxi check; After Landing check

d. none of the above are correct

74. Maximum stabilized fuel flow during engine start before lightoff is: _____.

a. 700 PPH

b. 800 PPH

c. 900 PPH

d. 1200 PPH

75. An engine must lightoff within _____ seconds of applying fuel during the engine start.

a. 15

b. 20

c. 25

d. 30

76.  If there is no oil pressure by N2 idle RPM, the pilot should: __________.

a.       shutdown the engine

b.       ignore the indication

c.        recycle the starter button

d.       let the engine idle for 5 minutes to allow oil pressure warm up

77. If there is no indication of N1 idle RPM by N2 idle: ______.

a. verify with scanner the fan is rotating
b. shutdown the engine immediately
c. do not advance the throttle beyond idle
d. both a & c

78. Should a hung start occur, the start should be discontinued. A second start should be attempted. Delay fuel and ignition until __________.

a. 11 percent N1
b. 20 percent N2
c. 11 percent N2
d. scanner reports N1 is rotating

79. Do not operate the weather radar within _____ feet of personnel or electro-explosive devices, or within _____ feet of fueling operations.

a. 34, 46
b. 40, 53
c. 46, 34
d. 50, 75

80. If nose wheel steering effectiveness is lost due to pilot steering inputs that are too rapid or because the nose gear steering wheel is turned too far, attempt to regain steering by __________.

a. turning the steering control knob toward zero and then slowly moving steering control in the direction of desired movement
b. increasing steering control in the direction of the desired turn
c. braking to a stop
d. both b and c are correct

a. turning the steering control knob toward zero and then slowly moving steering control in the direction of desired movement

81. When taxiing above _____ knots, the anti-skid should be turned on to prevent locking of the braked wheels in the event excessive brake pressure is applied.
a. 15
b. 20
c. 25
d. 30

b. 20

82. When possible, avoid braking to a stop in turns from any taxi speed since damage to the nose landing gear and/or supporting structure may result.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

83. If MLG FREE light(s) fail to come on when switch is placed to CASTER, or remains on after switch is placed to CENTER and the gear is centered, comply with the CASTER/POWERBACK BITE PROCEDURES in Section 2 (2.45). The CASTER/PWR BACK SHUTOFF VALVE CONT circuit breaker must be pulled and the gear centered prior to flight.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE

84. If a caster malfunction was observed during taxi, the alternate caster procedure may be used by actuating the aft MLG bogie emergency positioning switches opposite to the direction of turn, not to exceed _____ degrees.
a. 10
b. 15
c. 18
d. 20

b. 15

85. Under what conditions would the pilot direct the copilot to use the alternate caster procedure?

a. When the caster/power-back control box has failed.
b. When a caster malfunction was observed while taxiing.
c. After the loss of hydraulic system No. 1
d. both a and b are correct

d. both a and b are correct

86. If hydraulic system No. 1 is lost, alternate caster procedures should be avoided or kept to a minimum. Why?

a. The nose landing gear and its supporting structure might be damaged
b. The aft gear might initially move opposite to the direction commanded
c. The gear may not remain centered after releasing the aft MLG Bogie Emergency Positioning switches
d. Substantial side loads will be created potentially damaging the aft MLG

c. The gear may not remain centered after releasing the aft MLG Bogie Emergency Positioning switches

87. When performing a minimum radius 180-degree turn while taxiing, a wet runway may increase turn radius by:
a. 10 feet
b. 10 percent
c. 6 feet
d. None of the above

88. What is the minimum runway width for a 180 degree turn without caster?
a. 150'
b. 228'
c. 247'
d. 300'

89. Prior to takeoff, the pilot’s, copilot’s, and standby altimeters will be checked. What is/are the tolerances?

a. 70 feet between the altimeters
b. 75 feet from a known elevation
c. Both of the above
d. None of the above

90. Normally, the MWS system should not be set to CMDS AUTO for takeoff or landing.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

91. If it is snowing or surface icing conditions exist, a final visual check of the surfaces will be made _____ take-off.
a. within 10 minutes of
b. within 5 minutes of
c. within 15 minutes of
d. none of the above are correct

92. If the TIT exceeds _____ degrees, the take-off shall be rejected.
a. 960
b. 950
c. 970
d. 940

93. What conditions necessitate a rejected takeoff per the Dash-1?
a. Engine failure or system emergency prior to go speed, or an engine fails the TIT assurance check
b. When another crewmember states “reject” regardless of reason
c. All the above are correct
d. None of the above are correct

94. Aft fuselage contact may occur with a pitch attitude in excess of _____ degrees during rotation.

a. 10
b. 13
c. 15
d. 17

b. 13

95. When obstacle clearance or critical field length is a limiting factor, a _____ take-off shall be planned to ensure computed performance is attained.

a. standing
b. rolling
c. TRT
d. reduced N1

96. If wind shear is encountered during take-off, the airspeed may suddenly increase or may suddenly stop increasing. If the take-off must be continued, when rotating, use _____ degrees pitch attitude; once airborne use pitch attitude of _____ degrees, remaining below shaker onset.
a. 10; 13 to 15
b. 10; 15 to 18
c. 13; 15 to 18
d. 15; 18 to 25

97. If a severe wind shear is encountered at low altitude after take-off, rapid changes in airspeed and flight path commands will occur. Decreasing pitch attitude in an attempt to regain airspeed during initial shear encounter may prevent successful recovery.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

a. TRUE

98. After a normal take-off, climb at __________ knots until reaching flap retraction altitude when the TOGA mode is inoperative. Do not exceed _____ degrees of pitch on the ADI.
a. VMCO; 13
b. VMCO; 15
c. VMCO + 10; 13
d. VMCO + 10; 15

99. After takeoff the pilot flying shall not exceed slat/flap extended airspeed limitations until the pilot monitoring reports the flaps and slats indicate up and retracted.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE

100. MAJCOM approval is required when a non-standard flap retraction height is required for mission accomplishment.

a. TRUE
b. FALSE