Term
| When the Acedemy FDIO is OTS, what action must be taken by the FD position? |
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Definition
| Copy/Request IFR Clearances |
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Term
| FD relays tower visibility to other tower positions, McAlester AFSS, and ________. |
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Definition
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Term
| In an emergency situation, an Alert #2 would indicate a(n) __________. |
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Definition
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Term
| In an emergency situation, an Alert #3 would indicate a(n) __________. |
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Definition
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Term
| An aircraft ID may contain up to how many characters? |
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Definition
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Term
| The phraseology used to assign a Standard Instrument Departure (SID).... |
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Definition
(SID Name and number) DEPARTURE
E.G. Rainy 1 Departure |
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Term
| An example of the phraseology used to add a transition onto a SID is.. |
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Definition
(SID Name and Number) Departure, (Name) Transition.
E.G. 'STROUDSBURG ONE DEPARTURE, SPARTA TRANSITION' |
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Term
| What phraseology is used to tell a pilot what routing to expect beyond a short range clearance limit if the route differs from what was filed? |
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Definition
Expect Further Clearance Via (Location)
"EXPECT FURTHER CLEARANCE VIA VICTOR TEN TULSA" |
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Term
| What phraseology is used for an abbreviated departure clearance? |
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Definition
'CLEARED TO (AIRPORT) AS FILED. MAINTAIN (DEPARTURE ALTITUDE)'
E.G. "CLEARED TO DUPAGE COUNTY AIRPORT AS FILED. MAINTAIN ONE ONE THOUSAND" |
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Term
| What phraseology is used for clearing an aircraft to the Tulsa Airport via V14? |
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Definition
| CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA VICTOR FOURTEEN |
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Term
| What phraseology is used for clearing an aircraft to the Tulsa Airport via J104? |
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Definition
| CLEARED TO TULSA AIRPORT VIA JAY ONE ZERO FOUR |
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Term
| If the altimeter is 29.89, what is the lowest usable flight level? |
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Definition
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Term
| Where a higher alitude is required because of a MEA and a MCA is specified at the fix, when must an aircraft be cleared to begin climb? |
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Definition
| Prior to the fix, as to cross the fix at or above the MCA. |
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Term
| What phraseology is used to amend a previously issued clearance? |
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Definition
| '(Amendment to Route), REST OF ROUTE UNCHANGED' |
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Term
| Amend the altitude on UAL666 to FL240 and to cross ollis intersection at or above 3000, and to cross Gordonsville VOR at or above 12,000. |
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Definition
| 'UNITED SIX SIXTY-SIX, AMEND ALTITUDE. CROSS OLLIS INTERSECTION AT OR ABOVE THREE THOUSAND, CROSS GORDONSVILLE V-O-R AT OR ABOVE ONE TWO THOUSAND. MAINTAIN FLIGHT LEVE TWO FOUR ZERO.' |
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Term
Which of the following is NOT a duty of the Clearance Delivery Postion? A. issuing departure clearances B. passing the strip when clearance has been issued C. conducting and receiving position relief briefings. D. Ensuring Separation of Aircraft |
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Definition
| D. Separation of Aircraft |
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Term
| Hold for Release (HFR) instructions are ______. |
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Definition
| used to infor a controller that a departure clearance is not valid. |
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Term
| What is always included when issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft by an FSS dispatcher? |
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Definition
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Term
| What should be specified when NOT included in the SID? |
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Definition
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Term
| Identify the seven clearance item sequence, not including Mach number. (there would be 8 with mach) |
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Definition
1. Aircraft ID 2. Clearance Limit 3. SID 4. Route of Flight 5. Altitude Data 6. Departure Frequency 7. Transponder Code |
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Term
| Upon initial contact, what phraseology would be issued to UAL655 when a FRC must be issued? |
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Definition
| UAL655, ACADEMY CLEARANCE, FULL ROUTE CLEARANCE, ADVISE READY TO COPY. |
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Term
| Relay Tower Visibility to who? (3) |
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Definition
Other Tower Positions McAlester AFSS Academy Approach |
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Term
| Forward PIREPS/braking action reports to who? (4) |
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Definition
Other Tower positions Academy Approach McAlester AFSS Airport Managment |
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Term
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Definition
Alert #1 - Minor Alert #2 - Major Alert #3 - Accident |
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Term
| Is approval needed from Ground to proceed to the accident if there is an Alert #3? |
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Definition
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Term
| First character of an Aircraft ID must be a what? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is an Instrument Departure Procedure (DP)? |
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Definition
A preplanned IFR departure procedure published for pilot use, in graphic or textural format.
Provides Obstruction Clearance from the Terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. |
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Term
| When do you assign a Preferential Departure Route (PDR) or the route filed by the pilot? |
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Definition
A DP is not established
The pilot does not wish to use a DP |
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Term
| What must a pilot do if they do not wish to use a SID issued in an ATC Clearance? |
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Definition
|
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Term
Altimeter setting for FL180?
(Lowest Usable Flight Level) |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Altimeter setting for FL190?
(Lowest Usable Flight Level) |
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Definition
|
|
Term
Altimeter Setting for FL200?
(Lowest Usable Flight Level) |
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Definition
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Term
| Altitude and distance over mountainous terrain where MEA's have NOT been established? |
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Definition
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Term
| If the requested altitude is NOT available, what is the pilot informed of? |
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Definition
What to expect. When to expect it. Where to expect it. |
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Term
| Where MEA's have not been established, what action should be taken by the controller? |
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Definition
| Clear an aircraft at or above the minimum IFR operations |
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Term
| When 'FRC' is on a strip what action must be taken? |
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Definition
| Issue the Full Route Clearance |
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Term
| Abbreviated departure clearances should be issued to reduce ______? |
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Definition
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Term
| What action is taken when 'FRC/(fix)' appears on a flight strip |
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Definition
| Issue the full route clearance to the specified fix. |
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Term
| What must be restated when the route or altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended? |
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Definition
| All applicable altitude restrictions. |
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Term
| Two ways to amend a route of flight. |
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Definition
1. Portion being amended, then state amended. 2. State amendment, rest of route unchanged. 3. |
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Term
| What does EDCT stand for? |
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Definition
| Expected Departure Clearance Time |
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Term
| Who issues a time check to a pilot who has received a void time? |
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Definition
| Facility delivering the clearance. |
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Term
| When aircraft elect to take a delay on the ground, issue departure clearances in the order ___________. |
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Definition
| in which requests for clearance were originally made, if practicable. |
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Term
| If you suggest than an IFR aircraft take a delay on the ground, but the pilot insists on taking off VFR, what should be relayed to the approach control facility? |
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Definition
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Term
| When a pilot reports an inflight equipment malfunction, controllers must determine the _________. |
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Definition
| nature and extent of special handling desired |
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Term
| An air traffic controller's first priority is separation of aircraft and _________. |
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Definition
| issuance of safety alerts |
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Term
| Controllers are required to provide additional services to the extent possible, contingent upon higher priority duties, radar limitations, traffic volume, and ______. |
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Definition
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Term
| When must you issue a safety alert? |
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Definition
| When you observe an aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft. |
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Term
| What is the first action to take when an aircraft reports a NAVAID Malfunction? |
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Definition
| Request a report from a second aircraft. |
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Term
| MARSA. Provide separationg between participating military aircraft and ______. |
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Definition
| nonparticipating IFR aircraft |
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Term
| Control formation flights as ______. |
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Definition
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Term
| When should use of another controller's airspace be coordinated for an aircraft under your control? |
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Definition
| Prior to entering the other controller's airspace. |
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Term
| When can you assume control of an aircraft being transferred to you? |
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Definition
After it enters you area of jurisdiction.
Unless specified in an LOA or facility directive |
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Term
| When should radio communications of an aircraft under your control be transferred? |
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Definition
| Before entering the receiving controller's area of jurisdiction. |
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Term
| When are traffic advisories NOT provided to an aircraft. |
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Definition
Class A Airspace
Omission requested by the pilot |
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Term
| A controllers responsibility for applying Traffic Management Initiatives and programs do NOT have priority over _________. |
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Definition
| maintaining seperation of aircraft |
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Term
| Aircraft assigned an EDCT should depart as close as possible to the EDCT but NO earlier than ____ minutes before and NO later than _____ minutes after the EDCT |
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Definition
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Term
| One of the methods employed by Traffic Management personnel to minimize delays is ________. |
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Definition
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Term
| When informed that an aircraft is responding to a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA), do NOT ______ |
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Definition
| issue control instructions contrary to that advisory. |
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Term
| A ____________ must be made for any occurence involving air traffic services for which the collection of associated safety-related data and conditions is mandatory. |
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Definition
| Mandatory Occurrence Report. |
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Term
| When an aircraft is responding to an RA, traffic advisories and safety alerts regarding terrain and obstructions should be provided for _________. |
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Definition
| the aircraft responding to the RA and all other aircraft under your control jurisdiction. |
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Term
| What is the purpose of the four-step position relief briefing process? |
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Definition
| To ensure complete transfer of information |
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Term
| Who conducts the verbal briefing? |
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Definition
| The specialist being relieved. |
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Term
| When doess assumption of the position take place? |
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Definition
| After the relieving specialist makes a statement that responsibility has been assumed. |
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Term
| The Status Information Area (SIA) ________. |
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Definition
| displays current position-related information. |
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Term
| A list of items to be covered during a position relief briefing is called a ________. |
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Definition
| position relief checklist |
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Term
| When giving or receiving a position relief briefing, a specialist should NOT ______. |
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Definition
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Term
| Problems may occur during the position relief briefing when there is heavy reliance on _______. |
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Definition
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Term
| Both specialists are equally responsible for the completeness and accuracy of the _______. |
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Definition
| Position relief briefing. |
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Term
| During which step in the position relief briefing process does the relieving specialist review the SIA |
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Definition
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Term
| During which step in the position relief briefing process does the relieving specialist verify the correctness of information received? |
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Definition
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Term
| Before observing the operational situation and work environment that you are to relieve, you should review the ________. |
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Definition
| Status Information Area (SIA) |
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Term
| What is not a use of CRU-X Information? |
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Definition
| determining position responsibility. |
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Term
| After the relieving specialist indicates to the specialist being relieved that the position has been previewed, _______ may begin. |
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Definition
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Term
| Ground Control shall ensure strip marking is completed for instructions or _____ issued or received. |
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Definition
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Term
| Ground Control must obtain approval from _____ before authorizing an aircraft or vehicle to cross or use any portion an an active runwway. |
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Definition
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Term
| Local Control must verbally specify a runway to be crossed preceded by the word ________. |
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Definition
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Term
| Departure information for departing aircraft includes braking action for the runway in use when _________ |
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Definition
| Braking action advisories are in effect. |
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Term
| What is the phraseology used to issue the time a pilot can expect to start engines when gate hold procedures are in effect? |
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Definition
| EXPECT ENGINE START (time) |
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Term
| Helicopter ground taxiing uses less fuel than hover-taxiing and _____. |
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Definition
| minimizes air turbulence. |
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Term
| Helicopter moveent above the surface at slow speed, generally below 20 knots and 25 feet AGL, is called ______. |
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Definition
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Term
| Avoid clearances that require small aircraft or helicopters to taxi in proximity to taxiing or ______ helicopters. |
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Definition
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Term
| When an emergency occurs on the airport proper, _______________________. |
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Definition
| control other air and ground traffic to avoid conflicts in the area where the emergency is being handled. |
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Term
| When you receive inforation that an emergency landing will be made with explosive cargo aboard, infor the pilot of the _________. |
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Definition
| Safest or least congested ariport areas |
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Term
| Who muct be notified of a departing aircraft that is being taxied to a nonactive runway? |
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Definition
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Term
| At Academy Tower, Ground Control Shall pass requests to close VFR flight plans to _______ for relay to the FSS. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| At Academy Tower, Ground Control receives the emergency checlist from _______. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| At Academy Tower, an emergency with low hydraulic pressure is considered an Alert #___ |
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Definition
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Term
| A determination can be made as to whether an aircraft on the ground has an operable receiver, but NO transmitter, by asking the pilot to _______. |
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Definition
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Term
| When you believe an aircraft is experiencing a communications failure, broadcast clearances through any available eans of communication, including the voice feature of _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| Do not issue ______ instructions dependent upon the moveent of arrival aircraft on the runway. |
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Definition
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Term
| DO not use the word "______" in conjunction with authorization for aircraft to taxi. |
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Definition
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Term
| Issue the easured distance from the intersection to the runway end rounded down to the nearest ______ feet to any pilot who requests and to all military aircraft. |
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Definition
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Term
| When a taxi clearance to a runway is issued to an aircraft, confirm that the aircraft has the correct ______. |
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Definition
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Term
| A taxi clearance to an assigned takeoff runway, authorizes the aircraft to 'cross' all taxiways ______. |
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Definition
| The taxi route intersects. |
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Term
| Request a readback of runway hold short instructions when _______. |
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Definition
| it is not received from the pilot/vehicle operator. |
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Term
| Avoid clearances that ______. |
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Definition
| require heavy jet aircraft to use greater than normal taxiing power. |
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Term
| ILS Critical Area reported ceiling ____ feet, or visiblity ____ miles |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Four yellow lines. two solid and two dashed, extending across the width of a taxiway. |
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Definition
| Runway holding position marking. |
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Term
| Correct phraseology used to request Cheyenne 34T to hold short of RWY28R at charlie. |
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Definition
| CHEYENNE THREE FOUR TANGO, HOLD SHORT OF RUNWAY TWO EIGHT RIGHT AT TAXIWAY CHARLIE. |
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Term
| When would you use the word "IMMEDIATELY"? |
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Definition
| Only when expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation. |
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Term
| When would you use the word "EXPEDITE"? |
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Definition
| To avoid development of an imminent situation. |
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Term
| What is the first priority of duty for an Air traffic controller? |
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Definition
| Seperation and Safety Alerts |
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Term
| In most instances, controllers provide air traffic control services on a ____ basis. |
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Definition
| First Come First Serve Basis |
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Term
| Who has the right of way over all other air traffic? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Are 'additional services' optional? |
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Definition
| No, Mandatory within limits. |
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Term
| When is a safety Alert issued? |
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Definition
| In your judgement an aircraft is in an unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft. |
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Term
| Two types of safety alerts are what? |
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Definition
Terrain/Obstruction Alert (Low Altitude Alert)
Aircraft Conflict/Mode C Intruder Alert (Conflict Alert) |
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Term
| When an aircraft reports an inflight equipment malfunction, a controller must determine ____. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Two situations to avoid issuing frequency changes..... |
|
Definition
During critical phases of flight
Single Piloted, low level helicopters |
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|
Term
| When must use of airspace be coordinated? |
|
Definition
| Before entering another controllers airspace. |
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Term
| Transfer control at a prescribed time, fix, location, and altitude and only afer_______. |
|
Definition
| all potential conflicts have been resolved |
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Term
| When should a traffic advisory be issued? |
|
Definition
| When proximity is leass than applicable minima. |
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Term
| Aircraft subject to a Ground Delay Program are issued a(n) ______. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Local and Ground control must exchange ______ as necessary for the safe and efficient use of runways. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Ground Control must notify Local Control when an aircraft is taied to _____. |
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Definition
| an intersection for departure. |
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Term
| Departure delay information is issued to aircraft when delays exceed or are expected to exceed _______ minutes. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Issue departure information to departing aircraft by including the time when _____. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The official ceiling and visibility is issued to departing IFR aircraft when the weather is _______. |
|
Definition
| below VFR conditions or the highest takeoff minima. |
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Term
| Departure information about runway, wind, and altimeter may be omitted if a pilot uses the phrase "_____" |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Two pieces of information needed for emergency assistance. |
|
Definition
Fuel remaining in terms of time.
Number of people on board. |
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|
Term
| When an ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter) is received by or reported to a terminal facility, immediately notify the _______. |
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Definition
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|
Term
| When it is determined that an emergency aircraft has explosive material aboard, who should be notified? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What position at Academy Tower has the responsibility of collecting data listed on the emergency checklist? |
|
Definition
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