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| In humans, BODY CELLS or SOMATIC CELLS have _____ chromosomes |
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| Cell that arise directly from mitosis are called... |
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| The spindle fibers are attached to chromosomes by protein called the _________ |
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| REPLICATION OF DNA takes place in what phase of the cell cycle |
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| For bacterial cell division, duplication (replication) of the DNA takes place during _______ |
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| Which cells in the normal human body rarely, if ever, undergo mitosis? |
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| nerve cells in the spinal cord |
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| In a healing wound (or callus) of your body, the cells_________ |
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| The material that makes up chromosomes are______ and _______ |
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Which term includes all the otherS? a. S phase b. G1 phase c. interphase d. G2 phase |
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Which description of mitosis is not correct?
a. the nuclear membrane breaks down during prophase b. the nuclear membrane reforms during interphase c. anaphase begins when the chromosomes split apart d. chromosomes line up across the middle during metaphase |
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| b the nuclear membrane reforms during interphase |
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| IN a chromsome, the part where chromatids are attached to each other is known as the |
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| During cell cycle, the cytoplasm divides to become two new cells during |
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| At the end of mitosis, each new human body cell receives _____ chromosomes |
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Among plant cells, cytokinsesis is also characterized by...
a. formation of the spindle fiber b. migration and splitting of centrioles c. formation of cell plates d. formation of clevage furrow |
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Definition
| formation of the cell plates |
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Which of the following occurs during the G2 phase?
a. cell plate formation b. spindle development c. production of mitotic enzymes d. cell growth |
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Definition
| production of mitotic enzymes |
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| In plant cells, where are the enzymes that assemble spindle fibers located? |
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The main function of asters is:
a. start cytokinesis b. anchoring the spindle apparatus c. move chromosomes d. form the cleavage furrow |
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| for anchoring the spindle apparatus |
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| In PLANT CELLs, what anchors the spindle fibers as they are being pulled in during the movement of chromatids |
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| When does the clevage furrow form in animal cells |
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| telophase and cytokinesis |
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| When does the Cell (particularly the cytoplasm) grows in size |
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| When does the condensed chromosomes uncoil |
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| WHen does the nuclear membrane dissolve or fall apart |
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| When do the centrioles separate and move toward the poles? |
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| When do the centrioles separate and move toward the poles? |
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| Chromosomes line up on the equator during... |
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| Chromosomes are pulled apart and move toward opposite poles during which phase |
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| Replication of DNA happens during which phase |
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| Very early stage of chromatin coiling happens in the ______stage |
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| Nucleoli reappears in which stage? |
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| telophase and cytokinesis |
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| Vesicles containing cellulose merge in the middle to form cell plate in PLANT CELLS? |
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| histone-DNA units are called____ |
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| proteins associated with DNA in eukaryotes are ________ |
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The essence of meiosis is that a. gametes are formed that receive one copy of each member of each pair of homologous chromosomes b. gametes that are formed are diploid c. each gamete receives one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes. d. gametes are formed haploid d. each gamete receives one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes and the gametes formed are haploid. |
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Definition
| each each gamete receives one member of each pair of homologous chromosomes and the gametes foremd are haploid. |
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| What takes place in MEIOSIS I? |
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Definition
| number of chromosomes per cell is reduced by half |
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Which process is absolutely necessary for sexual reproduction to occur in a life cycle, but is not necessarily required for organisms that only reproduce asexually? a. prokaryotic fission b. mitosis c. meiosis d. cytokinesis e. karyokinesis |
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| If a parent cell has 16 chromosomes and undergoes meiosis, the resulting cells will have how many chromosomes |
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Homologous chromosomes
a. may exchange parts during meiosis b. have alleles for the same characteristics even though the gene expression may not be the same. c. are in pairs, one chromosome of each pair from the father and one from the mother. d. pair up during meiosis e. all of these |
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| the sister chromatids become separated during ______ of meiosis |
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Crossing over... a. generally results in binary fission b. involves nucleoli c. involves breakages and exchanges being made between sister chromatids d. alters the composition of chromsomes and results in new combinations of alleles being channeled into the daughter cells e. all of these |
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Definition
| alters the composition of chromosomes and results in new combinations of alleles being channeled into the daughter cells |
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Which is not true of human chromosomes? a. the haploid number is 23 b. the diploid number is 46 c. there are 23 pairs of chromosomes d. human gamestes end up with two of each type of 23 chromosomes e. human gametes end up one of each type of 23 chromosomes |
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Definition
| human gametes end up one of each type of 23 chromosomes |
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Gamete formation is... a the result of the process of mitosis b. the pairing of homologous chromosomes c. the formation of sex cells d. the fusion of gametes e. a process that occurs only in asexually reproducing forms |
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| the formation of sex cells |
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| sperm are formed directly from the maturation of... |
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Which does NOT produce genetic recombination and variation
a. crossing over b. random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis c. asexual reproduction d. genetic recombination of alleles e. sexual reproduction |
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| maternal and paternal chromosomes are shuffled most during |
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| During fertilization which two items combine to form a fertilized egg? |
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| ______ are the same as fertilized eggs |
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Which is a normal sequence of development?
a. sperm to ovum to oocyte b. sperm to spermatocyte to zygote c. ovum to oocyte to zygote d. primary oocytes and spermatocytes to sperm and mature ovum to zygotes |
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Definition
| primary oocytes and spermatocytes to sperm and mature ovum to zygotes |
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| the formation of four chromatids occurs during this stage |
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| recombination via crossing over occurs during this phase |
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| The number of homologous chromosomes is reduced by half at the end of this phase |
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| During this stage sister chromatids separate |
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| Following this phase each individual cell is haploid |
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| During this phase the centromeres separate. |
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| After this stage, four daughter nuclei each with different genetic combinations are present |
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Three of the four answers listed below concern cells with two chromorsome sets. select the exception a. zygote b. somatic cells c. gamete d. diploid |
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Four of the five answers listed below are the characteristics of meiosis. Select the exception a. involves two divisions b. reduces the number of chromosomes c. results in producing genetically identical cells d. produces haploid cells e. occurs in the gonads |
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Definition
| results in producing genetically identical cells |
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Four of the five answer listed below are terms describing haploid cells. Select the exception a. ovum b. primary spermatocyte c. spermatid d. polar body e. secondary spermatocyte |
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Fertilization can be described as a. crossing over b. recombination of the maternal and paternal sets of chromosomes c. syngamy d. none of the above |
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Synapsis is associated with a. crossing over b. recombination c. syngamy d. none |
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Chismata is associated with a. crossing over b. recombination of the maternal and paternal sets of chromosomes c. sygamy d. none |
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Metaphase I is associated with a. crossing over b. recombination of the maternal and paternal sets of chromosomes c. syngamy |
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Definition
| recombinattion of hte maternal and paternal sets of chromosomes |
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Prophase I is associated with a. crossing over b. recombination of the maternal and paternal sets of chromsomes c. syngamy |
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In a human female, all the eggs that she is pre-destined to produce are already set aside by as early as... a. her birth b. the onset of puberty c. menopause d. none of the above |
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| A DNA double helix strand was analyzed to contain 16% Thymine. What percent adenine would it have? |
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| Early data indicated that within a species the amount of this was always equal to the amount of adenine. |
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| this nucleotide is a double-ringed molecule |
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| Two hydrogen bonds connect adenine to this in the DNA molecule |
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| If one chain of a DNA molecule had a purine at a given position, this would be its complement on the other chain. |
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four of the five answers listed below are correctly paired. Select the exception. a. A-C b. C-G c. A-T d. T-A e. purine-pyrimidine |
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Four of the five answers listed below are bases used to construct nucleic acids. Select the exception a. cytosine b. adenine c. thymine d. guanine e. phenylalanine |
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| The RNA molecule is made up of how many strands |
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| What is the form of RNA that carries the code from the DNA to the site where the protein is assembled? |
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| Which RNA carries amino acids to ribosomes, where amino acids are linked into the primary structure of a polypeptide? |
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| Which substance is found in RNA but not in DNA? |
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| The nitrogenous base found in RNA but not DNA is called |
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| The synthesis of an RNA molecule from a DNA template strand is |
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In transcription... a. several amino acids are assembled by the messenger RNA molecules at one time. b. a special sequence called a promoter is necessary for transcription to begin c. certain polypeptide sequences are governed by one ribosome while the other sequences are produced by other ribosomes d. the transfer RNA molecules arrange the messenger RNA codons into the appropriate sequence e. none of these |
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Definition
| a special sequence called a promoter is necessary for transcription to begin |
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Term
| There are how many different kinds of amino acids in proteins? |
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| If the DNA triplets were ATG-CGT the MRNA codons would be... |
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| If the DNA triplets were ATG-CGT the tRNA ANTICODONS would be |
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| Amino acids are joined together in proteins by what bonds |
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| The difference between normal hemoglobin and sickle-cell hemoglobin is in the |
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Definition
| substitution of a specific amino acid for antoher specific amino acid. |
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A DNA double helix strand was analyzed to contain 46% Thymine. What percent guanine would it have? a. 54 b. 72 c. 27 d. 23 e. none of these |
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Three of the four answers listed below are different forms of a class of nucleic acids. Select the exception. a. template b. ribosomal c. messenger d. transfer |
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Four of the five listed below are different forms of a class of nucleic acids. Select the exception a. pentose sugar b. amino acid c. pyrimidine d. phosphate group e. purine |
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Three of the four answers listed below are steps in translation. Select the exception. a. initiation b. replication c. chain elongation d. termination |
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| The portion of the DNA molecule that is translated is composed of... |
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| Making DNA copies of DNA start along the _______ of the DNA |
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| In yeast, removal of introns involve the |
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| What stablizes the unwound DNA double helix during replication |
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Definition
| Single Strand binding protein |
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Term
Translation starts when a. the large subunit of the ribosome clamps over the small subunit b. the relsease factor binds to the A site c. the small subunit of the ribosome located the AUG codon closest to the 5' end of the RNA d. the ribosome goes over the poly-A tail e. initiation factor binds at the E groove |
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Definition
| the small subunit of the ribosome locates the AUG codon closest to the 5' end of the RNA |
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Term
The formation of the peptide bond between the amino acid in the A groove and the polypeptide chain in the P groove happens simultaneously with the a. binding of the release factor b. shift of the ribosome by a distance of one codon c. breaking the bond between the polypeptide and its transfer RNA at the P groove d. activation of the tRNA somewhere in the cytoplasm |
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Definition
| breaking of the bond between |
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