Term
| Introducing foreign DNA into a bacterium causes genetic changes. What is the name of this method? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3. What is the name of gene transfer into prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? |
|
Definition
| into prokaryotic cells: transformation, into eukaryotic cells: transfection |
|
|
Term
| 1. name 3 cellular components present only in eukaryotic cells? |
|
Definition
| nucleus, mitochondrion, centriole, lysosome, endoplasmic reticulum, cytoskeleton...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 4. What is the mechanism of action of penicillin? |
|
Definition
| inhibits the formation of bacterial cell wall |
|
|
Term
| 5. Name the chromosome-containing part of a bacterium! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 6. Would You name three characters of the bacterial DNA which distinguishes it from the eukaryotic DNA? |
|
Definition
| shorter, circular, naked, mostly consists of coding regions...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 7. What is the name of the hypothesis describing the origin of eukaryotic cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 8. What parameters influence the resolution power of a light microscope (3)? |
|
Definition
| wavelength of light, refractive index, aperture angle of objective lens |
|
|
Term
| 9. How can you define the limit of resolution? |
|
Definition
| the shortest distance whose 2 endpoints can be distingished from one another |
|
|
Term
| Would you name the magnifying components of the light microscope (2)? |
|
Definition
| objective lens, ocular lens |
|
|
Term
| 12. Describe the image that can be seen in the light microscope (3)! |
|
Definition
| magnified in two steps, inverse, virtual |
|
|
Term
| 13. Name two fixatives used in microscopy! |
|
Definition
| formaldehyde, glutaraldehyde, osmiumtetroxide |
|
|
Term
| 14. What are the advantages of freeze-drying technique in light microscopy? Give an example! |
|
Definition
| sudden fixation of the whole specimen, there is no denaturation, there is no change in chemical structure...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 15. Which technique is suitable to visualize a specific protein in the cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 16. What is the relationship between the accelerating voltage of the electron microscope and the wavelength of the electron beam? |
|
Definition
| reverse relationship (inverse proportionality) |
|
|
Term
| 17. Name two electron microscopic methods which give three dimensional appearance image of the specimen! |
|
Definition
| angular shadowing, freeze-etching technique, freeze-fracture technique, scanning electron microscopy |
|
|
Term
| 18. Name two electron microscopic methods which are suitable to study isolated organelles! |
|
Definition
| angular shadowing, rotary shadowing, negative staining...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 11. How can you calculate the magnification of the light microscope? |
|
Definition
| magnification of objective lens x magnification of ocular lens (eyepiece) |
|
|
Term
| Which techniques use the deposition of metals on surfaces in electron microscopy? 2 examples |
|
Definition
| angular shadowing, rotary shadowing, scanning electron microscopy, replica-technique |
|
|
Term
| 20. What is the name of the recognition sequence of restriction endonucleases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 21. Would you give an example for a palindrome sequence containing six basepairs! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 22. Name two types of enzymes that are capable of recognizing palindrome sequences! |
|
Definition
| restriction endonucleases, modification methylases |
|
|
Term
| 23. What kind of ends can be generated by restriction endonucleases (2)? |
|
Definition
| blunt ends, cohesive (sticky) ends |
|
|
Term
| 24. Name two methods in which restriction endonucleases have a paramount role! |
|
Definition
| cloning, Southern blotting, restriction mapping...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 25. Name two vectors used in molecular biology! |
|
Definition
| plasmid, l-phage, cosmid, adenovirus...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 26. What is the name of the vector, the DNA-insert of which can be transcribed in a host cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 27. Name three sequences that can be isolated only from the genomic library and not from the cDNA library! |
|
Definition
| promoter, satellite DNA, intron...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 28. Would you name the three steps of a PCR cycle, in the correct order! |
|
Definition
| denaturation ® primer binding ® DNA-synthesis |
|
|
Term
| 29. Name two methods used for amplification of a DNA fragment! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 30. What is hybridisation? |
|
Definition
| renaturation of denaturated nucleic acid with a probe |
|
|
Term
| 31. Name two possible conclusions you can draw from a Southern blot! |
|
Definition
| the presence of a gene, copy number of a gene, presence of mutations...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 32. Name two enzymes required to prepare a cDNA library! |
|
Definition
| reverse transcriptase, DNA ligase, restriction endonuclease |
|
|
Term
| 33. Give an example for physical-chemical-biological gene transfer! |
|
Definition
| physical: microinjection, electroporation, gene gun; chemical: transfection, liposome; biological: virus vector |
|
|
Term
| 34. What molecular biological phenomenon can be used for knock out mutation of a gene? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 35. What is an antisense oligonucleotide? |
|
Definition
| an oligonucleotide that can inhibit mRNA function by complementary base-pairing |
|
|
Term
| 36. Name a method used for specific inhibition of protein function! |
|
Definition
| intracellular antibodies, expression of dominant inhibitory proteins, peptidomimetics, competitive inhibitors |
|
|
Term
| 37. Which is tissue specific: a cDNA library or a genomic library? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 38. Name two methods for the identification of proteins by using specific antibodies! |
|
Definition
| immunocytochemistry, immunoprecipitation, Western blotting |
|
|
Term
| 39. What is the role of mRNA and oligo(dT) added to an in vitro cDNA synthesizing system? |
|
Definition
| mRNA: template, oligo(dT): primer |
|
|
Term
| 40. Name two methods capable of proving that the actin gene is expressed in liver cells! |
|
Definition
| Northern blotting, Western blotting, immunocytochemistry...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 41. Name a radioactive precursor which is suitable to label PCR products! |
|
Definition
| [3H] dTTP, [a-32P] dCTP...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 42. How could you show the result of molecular hybridization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 43. Which are the subcellular fractions and in which order are they generated by differential centrifugation (5)? |
|
Definition
| nuclear fraction ® mitochondrial fraction ® microsomal fraction ® ribosomal fraction ® cytosol |
|
|
Term
| 44. Which cellular organelles can be found in the microsomal fraction (3)? |
|
Definition
| Golgi complex, RER/GER (rough/granular endoplasmic reticulum), SER (smooth endoplasmic reticulum) |
|
|
Term
| 45. Which separation methods are used during 2D electrophoresis of proteins? |
|
Definition
| isoelectric focusing and SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis |
|
|
Term
| 46. What charge do proteins have in a solution with a pH lower than the isoelectric point of that protein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 47. What charge do proteins have at the end of isoelectric focusing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 48. What charge do proteins have at the end of SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 49. Which electrophoretic method is suitable for the separation of proteins according to their molecular weight? |
|
Definition
| SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis |
|
|
Term
| 50. Towards which electrode do nucleic acids move during electrophoresis? |
|
Definition
| towards the positive electrode |
|
|
Term
| 51. Name 2 separation methods which fractionate particles mostly according to their molecular weight! |
|
Definition
| gel filtration, SDS polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis, hypopycnic (velocity) density gradient centrifugation |
|
|
Term
| 52. Name 2 separation methods where fractionation is independent of the molecular weight of the particles! |
|
Definition
| ion-exchange chromatography, isoelectric focusing, affinity chromatography, isopycnic density gradient centrifugation |
|
|
Term
| 53. During gel filtration, the elution volume of substance "A" is larger than that of substance "B". What conclusion can be drawn from this? |
|
Definition
| the molecular weight of substance "B" is larger than the molecular weight of substance "A" |
|
|
Term
| 54. What kind of ligands can be used during affinity chromatography to separate what kind of substances? Give 2 examples! |
|
Definition
| antigene-antibody, enzyme-substrate, hormone-receptor, oligo(dT)-poly (A)+ mRNA...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 55. Which separation method is suitable for the separation of poly (A)+ mRNAs from total cellular RNA fraction? |
|
Definition
| oligo(dT) cellulose affinity chromatography |
|
|
Term
| 56. What type of bonds stabilize the DNA double helix? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 57. What are the basic rules of H-bond formation between bases in nucleic acids? |
|
Definition
| purines with pyrimidines; A with T (in DNA) or with U (in RNA); G with C (in DNA as well as in RNA) |
|
|
Term
| 58. What are the two main principles of the interaction between nucleic acids? |
|
Definition
| complementarity, antiparallelity |
|
|
Term
| 59. What is the definition of denaturation of nucleic acids? |
|
Definition
| the disruption of H-bonds |
|
|
Term
| 60. What is a nucleoside and a nucleotide composed of? |
|
Definition
| nucleoside: base + pentose, nucleotide: base + pentose + phosphate group |
|
|
Term
| 61. What is antiparallelity? |
|
Definition
| the direction of phosphodiester bonds is opposite in the complementary strands of double-stranded nucleic acids |
|
|
Term
| 62. What is the melting point of DNA? |
|
Definition
| the temperature required to denature 50% of the DNA sample |
|
|
Term
| 63. What is hyperchromicity? |
|
Definition
| the increase of UV light absorption during denaturation of DNA |
|
|
Term
| 64. What are purine and pyrimidine bases? In which nucleic acids are the different bases found? |
|
Definition
| purines: A, G; pyrimidines: C, T, U; DNA: A, G, C, T; RNA: A, G, C, U |
|
|
Term
| 65. Name a chemical that can precipitate DNA! |
|
Definition
| ethanol, trichloroacetic acid...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 66. What is the charge of nucleic acids at neutral pH? What is the reason for that? |
|
Definition
| negative, due to the phosphate groups |
|
|
Term
| 67. Name two chemicals, which can cause DNA denaturation! |
|
Definition
| alkaline solutions, formamide, urea...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 68. Name a chemical, which can cause the denaturation of RNA! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 69. What is the explanation for the differences between the melting point of DNA of different species? |
|
Definition
| the difference between the A+T/G+C ratios in the different DNA molecules |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| RNA possessing catalytic activity |
|
|
Term
| 71. Name an acidic amino acid! |
|
Definition
| aspartic acid, glutamic acid |
|
|
Term
| 72. Name a basic (alkaline) amino acid! |
|
Definition
| lysine, arginine, histidine |
|
|
Term
| 73. What is the general structure of an amino acid like? |
|
Definition
| a central C atom attached to four groups: a H atom, a carboxyl group, an amino group and a side chain |
|
|
Term
| 74. What is the primary structure of proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 75. What are the two major forms of the secondary structure of proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 76. What is the name of a functional unit in the tertiary structure of proteins? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 77. What kind of proteins are involved in the folding of proteins in vivo? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 78. What makes an amino acid acidic? |
|
Definition
| carboxyl group in the side chain |
|
|
Term
| 79. Name two proteins possessing quaternary structure! |
|
Definition
| haemoglobin, insulin, insulin receptor, DNA polymerase...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 80. How do enzymes change the activation energy of the catalyzed reactions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 81. Name two carotenoids! |
|
Definition
| b-carotene, retinal, retinoic acid...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 82. Name three steroid compounds! |
|
Definition
| cholesterol, deoxycholate (bile acids), testosterone, oestrogen, vitamin D...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 83. Which steroid is a membrane-component? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 84. Name three hexose sugars! |
|
Definition
| glucose, galactose, fructose, mannose...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 85. Name two glucose-polysaccharides! |
|
Definition
| glycogen, starch, cellulose |
|
|
Term
| 86. Name two glycosaminoglycans! |
|
Definition
| chondroitin sulphate, heparan sulphate, hyaluronic acid...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 87. Name the main components of the nucleus (5)! |
|
Definition
| nuclear envelope, nucleoplasma, chromatin, nucleolus, nuclear matrix |
|
|
Term
| 88. Which proteins connect chromatin to the inner surface of the nuclear membrane? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 89. How could you classify heterochromatin on the basis of its location? |
|
Definition
| marginal/peripheral, nucleolus-associated, diffuse heterochromatin |
|
|
Term
| 90. What is the functional difference between eu- and heterochromatin? |
|
Definition
| heterochromatin is inactive, euchromatin contains transcriptionally active parts |
|
|
Term
| 91. Name the components of the nucleolus (4)! |
|
Definition
| fibrillar center, fibrillar component, granular component, nucleolus-associated chromatin |
|
|
Term
| 92. Name the transport and G-protein taking part in the transport through the nuclear pores! |
|
Definition
| transport protein: importin, G-protein: Ran |
|
|
Term
| 93. In what form can DNA be found in interphase cells and in dividing cells? |
|
Definition
| interphase cells: chromatin, dividing cells: chromosome |
|
|
Term
| 94. Name the chemical components of chromatin (4)! |
|
Definition
| DNA, proteins (histones and non-histones), ions, RNA |
|
|
Term
| 95. What is the difference between constitutive and facultative heterochromatin? |
|
Definition
| constitutive: permanently inactive form, facultative: in certain circumstances may be activated |
|
|
Term
| 96. What is a nucleosome made of? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 97. Name the morphological levels of organisation of chromatin in order! |
|
Definition
| beads-on-a-string ® solenoid ® looped domains ® metaphase chromosome |
|
|
Term
| 98. Name 2 nonhistone proteins with regulatory function! |
|
Definition
| TATA factor, AP-1, SRF, CREB...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 99. Name 2 nonhistone proteins with enzymatic function! |
|
Definition
| RNA polymerases, DNA polymerases, nucleases, ligases...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 100. What kind of RNA molecules can be found in chromatin? Name 2 of them! |
|
Definition
| pre-mRNA (hnRNA), pre-rRNA, snRNA, snoRNA...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 101. Name 2 of the RNP components of chromatin! |
|
Definition
| perichromatin granule, interchromatin granule, perichromatin fibril |
|
|
Term
| 102. Give 2 examples of tandemly repeated sequences! |
|
Definition
| rRNA genes, tRNA genes, histone genes...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 103. Where are the highly repetitive sequences located in the chromosomes? |
|
Definition
| centromeric-telomeric regions |
|
|
Term
| 104. Give 2 examples of proteins coded by gene families! |
|
Definition
| globin, cytoskeleton, cell membrane receptors, protein kinases, transcription factors...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 105. What does pseudogene mean? |
|
Definition
| members of gene families, which became inactive by mutations |
|
|
Term
| 106. What is gene amplification? |
|
Definition
| an increase in the copy number of a gene |
|
|
Term
| 107. Give 2 examples of gene amplification! |
|
Definition
| rRNA genes, c-myc in certain tumors...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 108. Which human chromosome contains Alu sequences? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 109. What are the two main phases of cell cycle? |
|
Definition
| interphase and cell division |
|
|
Term
| 110. What are the main phases of the interphase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 111. What is the amount of DNA in a G1 phase cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 112. What is the amount of DNA in a G2 phase cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 113. Name a cell type which resides in the G0 phase! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 114. Name two processes occuring during the S phase! |
|
Definition
| replication, synthesis of histones, translocation of DNA polymerase into the nucleus...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 115. What is the name of the procedure when all cultured cells are brought into the same phase of the cell cycle? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 116. Name two methods which are suitable for the synchronisation of a cell population! |
|
Definition
| serum starvation, mitotic shake-off, treatment with colchicine...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 117. Which method can be used to separate cells in different phases of the cell cycle on the basis of their DNA content? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 118. Would you name 2 mitogenic substances? |
|
Definition
| phytohaemagglutinin, PDGF, EGF, FGF...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 119. What are the components of MPF? |
|
Definition
| cyclin and cyclin dependent kinase |
|
|
Term
| 120. What kind of catalytic activity do the Cdk enzymes possess? |
|
Definition
| serine/threonine specific protein kinase activity |
|
|
Term
| 121. What are the major phases of mitosis (5)? |
|
Definition
| prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, cytokinesis |
|
|
Term
| 122. Name a protein phosphorylated by MPF! |
|
Definition
| histone H1, lamin, microtubule associated proteins...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 123. Name the three main components of the mitotic spindle! |
|
Definition
| kinetochor, polar and astral microtubules |
|
|
Term
| 124. Which type of microtubules is responsible for the separation and movement of chromatids? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 125. Which type of microtubules is responsible for the elongation of the cell as well as the moving off of the two poles? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 126. In which phase of mitosis are the chromatids separated from each other? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 127. Which element of the cytoskeleton is responsible for the cytokinesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 128. What is the meaning of the semiconservative nature of replication? |
|
Definition
| one chain of the replicated DNA is the original and the other is the newly synthesized one |
|
|
Term
| 129. What is the function of template during replication? |
|
Definition
| helps nucleotide incorporation by complementary base-pairing |
|
|
Term
| 130. Why is DNA replication primer-dependent? |
|
Definition
| because DNA polymerases are unable to initiate DNA synthesis |
|
|
Term
| 131. What is the name of the countinuously replicated strand of the replication fork? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 132. What is the name of the short DNA segments that are synthesized on the lagging strand of the replication fork? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 133. What is the name of the site where DNA replication begins? |
|
Definition
| origo (origin of replication) |
|
|
Term
| 134. Which enzyme causes relaxation of DNA during replication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 135. Which enzyme cleaves the hydrogen bonds at the replication fork? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 136. What is the function of primase? |
|
Definition
| it is responsible for the synthesis of RNA primers |
|
|
Term
| 137. What is proofreading? |
|
Definition
| the removal of non-complementary nucleotides incorporated during DNA replication |
|
|
Term
| 138. What kind of enzyme activity does the DNA polymerase III have? |
|
Definition
| 5' ® 3' elongation, 3' ® 5' exonuclease |
|
|
Term
| 139. What kind of enzyme activity does the DNA polymerase I have? |
|
Definition
| 5' ® 3' elongation, 5' ® 3' exonuclease |
|
|
Term
| 140. What is the function of the 3' ® 5' exonuclease activity during replication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 141. What is the function of the 5' ® 3' exonuclease activity during replication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 142. What is the name of the enzyme that joins the Okazaki fragments? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 143. What kind of enzyme activity does the topoisomerase II have? |
|
Definition
| reversible double-stranded endonuclease |
|
|
Term
| 144. Which enzyme inhibits shortening of eukaryotic chromosomes due to replication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 145. What is the consequence of decreasing proofreading-activity during replication? |
|
Definition
| increasing rate of mutation |
|
|
Term
| 146. What kind of DNA damage can be caused by UV irradiation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 147. Which repair system is responsible for the replacement of damaged bases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 148. Which enzyme can recognize and remove a damaged base in base excision repair? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 149. What is the name of the mechanism that removes the pyrimidine dimers? |
|
Definition
| nucleotide excision repair |
|
|
Term
| 150. What kind of enzyme activity does the excinuclease have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 151. Name a human disease with defective nucleotide excision DNA repair! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 152. Which repair mechanism is responsible for the correction of non-complementary basepairing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 153. Which DNA strand contains the correct sequences before mismatch repair? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 154. Name a human disease with defective mismatch repair! |
|
Definition
| HNPCC (hereditary non-polyposis colon carcinoma) |
|
|
Term
| 155. What does it mean: RNA-synthesis is asymmetric in vivo? |
|
Definition
| only one template strand is transcribed |
|
|
Term
| 156. What are the main steps of transcription? |
|
Definition
| initiation, elongation, termination |
|
|
Term
| 157. What is the name of the DNA region involved in the initiation of transcription? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 158. What are the initial and the final sequences of a transcription unit? |
|
Definition
| initial: promoter, final: terminator |
|
|
Term
| 159. What is the name of the transcriptional step that leads to the formation of phosphodiester bonds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 160. What is the direction of RNA synthesis from the point of view of RNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 161. Name the RNA produced by transcription, but has not been processed yet! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 162. What are the two components of the RNA polymerase in bacteria? |
|
Definition
| core enzyme plus sigma factor |
|
|
Term
| 163. What kind of enzymes do the processing of bacterial pre-rRNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 164. What is the role of the bacterial rho factor? |
|
Definition
| chain termination of transcription |
|
|
Term
| 165. What is the role of the bacterial sigma factor? |
|
Definition
| the initiation of transcription |
|
|
Term
| 166. Which enzyme produces the pre-rRNA in eukaryotic cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of rRNAs are produced from the eukaryotic pre-rRNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 168. Which rRNA is produced outside the nucleolus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 169. What is the name of the DNA region between the 18S and 5.8S rRNA genes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 170. What kind of process do the Christmas-trees show? |
|
Definition
| synthesis of eukaryotic rRNA |
|
|
Term
| 171. At which site is the maturation of the ribosomal subunits finished? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the site of the formation of ribosomal proteins? |
|
Definition
| free ribosomes of the cytoplasm |
|
|
Term
| 173. When do ribosomal subunits attach to each other? |
|
Definition
| during initiation of translation |
|
|
Term
| 174. What is the name of the pre-mRNA sequences that are missing from the mature mRNA molecules? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 175. What is the name of the pre-mRNA sequences that are present even in the mature mRNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 176. What is the name of the procedure that removes the introns from the pre-mRNA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 177. What are the components of the spliceosome (3)? |
|
Definition
| hnRNA/pre-mRNA, snRNAs and proteins |
|
|
Term
| 178. What are the maturation processes of a hnRNA/pre-mRNA (3)? |
|
Definition
| formation of the cap structure, polyadenylation, splicing |
|
|
Term
| 179. Which class of mRNAs lack a poly A tail? |
|
Definition
| prokaryotic mRNAs and eukaryotic histone mRNAs |
|
|
Term
| 180. Which enzyme produces the pre-mRNAs (hnRNAs) in eukaryotic cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 181. Name exons that can be found in adenoviral late pre-mRNAs! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 182. Give an example of a consensus sequence! |
|
Definition
| Pribnow-box, TATA-box...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 183. What is the role of mRNA and tRNA during translation? |
|
Definition
| mRNA: template, tRNA: adapter |
|
|
Term
| 184. What kind of molecules take part in amino acid-activation (3)? |
|
Definition
| amino acid, ATP, aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase |
|
|
Term
| 186. Name the molecules, which are able to bind to the 3 main loops and to the 3' end of tRNA! |
|
Definition
| ribosome, mRNA, aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase, amino acid |
|
|
Term
| 185. What are the products of amino acid-activation (3)? |
|
Definition
| aminoacyl-tRNA, AMP, pyrophosphate |
|
|
Term
| 187. What is the central dogma of molecular biology? |
|
Definition
| direction of flow of information: DNA ® RNA ® proteins |
|
|
Term
| 188. What is a monocistronic mRNA? |
|
Definition
| it contains only one open reading frame |
|
|
Term
| 189. What is a polycistronic mRNA? |
|
Definition
| it contains more than one open reading frames |
|
|
Term
| 190. What is the start site and the end of an open reading frame? |
|
Definition
| start: initiation codon, end: stop codon |
|
|
Term
| 191. Which feature of the genetic code means that one amino acid could be coded by more than one codon? |
|
Definition
| redundancy (degeneration) |
|
|
Term
| 192. Which nucleotide of a codon is able to "wobble"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 193. Name the enzyme that catalyzes peptide bond formation. Where can it be found? |
|
Definition
| peptidyl transferase; ribozyme, in the large subunit of ribosome |
|
|
Term
| 194. The anticodon of a tRNA molecule is 5'-CAU-3'. What is the sequence of the corresponding codon of mRNA (5' --- 3')? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 195. Name three antibiotics able to inhibit protein synthesis! |
|
Definition
| erithromycin, tetracyclin, streptomycin, chloramphenicol...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 196. What is the polysome made of? |
|
Definition
| mRNA molecule and ribosomes |
|
|
Term
| 197. What is the direction of protein synthesis from the point of view of mRNA and protein? |
|
Definition
| mRNA: 5' ® 3', protein: N terminus ® C terminus |
|
|
Term
| 198. What are the 3 repeated steps of the elongation of translation? |
|
Definition
| binding of aminoacyl-tRNA, peptidyl transferase reaction, translocation |
|
|
Term
| 199. What are the sedimentation constants of the subunits, and the whole ribosome in prokaryotes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 200. What are the sedimentation constants of the subunits, and the whole ribosome in eukaryotes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 201. How much energy is used for the incorporation of one amino acid into a newly synthesized protein? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 202. Which are the energy-dependent processes during translation (3)? |
|
Definition
| amino acid-activation, aminoacyl-tRNA binding, translocation |
|
|
Term
| 203. What does constitutive gene expression mean? |
|
Definition
| a certain gene is continuously expressed at the same rate |
|
|
Term
| 204. What kind of DNA regions build up a bacterial operon? |
|
Definition
| 20promoter, operator, structural genes |
|
|
Term
| 205. What kind of an operon is the lactose operon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 206. What is the effect of the presence of glucose in the medium on the cAMP content of bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 207. What is the effect of the presence of glucose in the medium on the function of lactose operon of bacteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 208. What protein binds cAMP during the regulation of lactose operon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 209. What is the name of the DNA region in the lactose operon that binds the repressor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 210. What is the role of lactose in the regulation of lactose operon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 211. What kind of metabolic processes are regulated by inducible operons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 212. What kind of an operon is the bacterial tryptophan operon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 213. What is the role of tryptophan in the regulation of tryptophan operon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 214. To what does tryptophan bind during the course of regulating the tryptophan operon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 215. How does the presence of tryptophan affect the activity of the tryptophan operon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 216. What kind of metabolic processes are regulated by repressible operons? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 217. Name a cis-acting regulatory element! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 218. What is the most characteristic feature of housekeeping genes? |
|
Definition
| they are active in all types of cells |
|
|
Term
| 219. Name two levels at which gene expression can be regulated in eukaryotic cells! |
|
Definition
| transcription, RNA processing, RNA transport...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 220. Give an example for chemical modifications involved in the regulation of transcription! |
|
Definition
| acetylation of histones, methylation of DNA, phosphorylation |
|
|
Term
| 221. Name a biochemical process involved in the regulation of mRNA processing! |
|
Definition
| alternative splicing, RNA editing |
|
|
Term
| 223. What domains of a transcription factor are absolutely necessary for its function? |
|
Definition
| DNA binding domain, activator domain |
|
|
Term
| 222. What are the two main mechanisms of protein breakdown in eukaryotic cells? |
|
Definition
| lysosomal digestion, ubiquitin-proteasome degradation |
|
|
Term
| 224. Name two groups of eukaryotic transcription factors! |
|
Definition
| helix-turn-helix, Zn finger, amphipatic helix |
|
|
Term
| 225. Would you name a Zn-finger protein! |
|
Definition
| TFIIIA, steroid receptors, WT-1...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 226. What is the cause of testicular feminisation? |
|
Definition
| the lack of androgen receptor |
|
|
Term
| 227. Where are glucocorticoid receptors located in a target cell not treated with glucocorticoid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 228. Name two disorders that can be caused by malfunction of transcription factors! |
|
Definition
| cancer, endocrine diseases, developmental diseases...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 229. Name the surfaces of the endoplasmic reticulum! |
|
Definition
| cytoplasmic surface, exoplasmic surface |
|
|
Term
| 230. What kind of molecules are synthesized on the rough and on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum? |
|
Definition
| rough endoplasmic reticulum: proteins, smooth endoplasmic reticulum: lipids |
|
|
Term
| 231. What kind of proteins are synthesized on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum (3)? |
|
Definition
| secretory proteins, membrane proteins, lysosomal enzymes |
|
|
Term
| 232. On which type of ribosomes does protein synthesis start? |
|
Definition
| all protein synthesis starts on free ribosomes |
|
|
Term
| 233. What determines that a certain protein is synthesized on the rough endoplasmic reticulum? |
|
Definition
| signal sequence of the protein |
|
|
Term
| 234. What is the mechanism by which the newly synthesized protein is transported into the lumen of the rough endoplasmic reticulum? |
|
Definition
| cotranslational transport |
|
|
Term
| 235. What does protein glycosylation mean? |
|
Definition
| addition of oligosaccharides to a protein chain |
|
|
Term
| 236. Name a disease associated with the abnormal function of the chaperones present in the rough endoplasmic reticulum! |
|
Definition
| cystic fibrosis, familial hypercholesterolaemia |
|
|
Term
| 237. Name the two types of secretion! |
|
Definition
| constitutive and regulated secretion |
|
|
Term
| 238. Name two examples of constitutive secretion! |
|
Definition
| secretion of matrix proteins, secretion of antibodies, secretion of albumin, replacement of cell membrane components...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 239. Name two amino acids that are capable of binding to carbohydrate side chains in a protein! |
|
Definition
| asparagine, serine, threonine, hydroxylysine |
|
|
Term
| 240. Name two carbohydrates which are components of glycoproteins! |
|
Definition
| glucose, mannose, N-acetyl-glucosamine...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 241. Name the types of endocytosis (3)! |
|
Definition
| phagocytosis, pinocytosis, receptor-mediated endocytosis |
|
|
Term
| 242. In which form is cholesterol transported in the blood? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 243. What kind of mechanism is used by the cells to take up LDL particles? |
|
Definition
| receptor-mediated endocytosis |
|
|
Term
| 244. Name three proteins involved in vesicular transport! |
|
Definition
| ARF, adaptin, targeting proteins, Rab proteins, chaperone proteins...etc. |
|
|
Term
| 245. Name two of the most frequently produced free radicals in the cells! |
|
Definition
| superoxide free radical, hydroxyl free radical, hypochlorite free radical |
|
|
Term
| 246. Which enzyme produces the superoxide free radical? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 247. What kind of compounds are produced by the reduction of oxygene molecule by 1, 2, 3, or 4 electrons? |
|
Definition
| superoxide free radical, hydrogen peroxide, hydroxyl free radical, water |
|
|
Term
| 248. What kind of enzymes are responsible for the inactivation of the superoxide free radical and hydrogen peroxide respectively? |
|
Definition
| superoxide: superoxide dismutase, hydrogen peroxide: catalase, peroxidase |
|
|
Term
| 249. Free radicals degrade the unsaturated fatty acid components of the membranes. What is the name of this process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 250. Name two lysosomal storage diseases! |
|
Definition
| Tay-Sachs disease, I-cell disease, Gaucher disease, Niemann-Pick disease |
|
|
Term
| 251. What kind of enzymes are present in lysosomes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 252. The lysosomes can digest cellular organelles. What is the name of this process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 253. Which family of enzymes transforms xenobiotics in the liver cells? |
|
Definition
| cytochrome P450 family of enzymes |
|
|
Term
| 254. Name the three main functions of smooth endoplasmatic reticulum! |
|
Definition
| biotransformation, lipid synthesis, storage of calcium |
|
|
Term
| 255. What is the effect of phenobarbital on the cytochrome P450 system of liver cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 256. List the steps of biological oxidation as well as the site where they take place in the cell! |
|
Definition
| glycolysis: cytoplasm, citric acid cycle: mitochondrial matrix, terminal oxidation: inner membrane of mitochondrion |
|
|
Term
| 257. What are the four main structural elements of a mitochondrion? |
|
Definition
| outer membrane, intermembrane space, inner membrane, mitochondrial matrix |
|
|
Term
| 258. What is the cause of different permeability of the inner and outer mitochondrial membrane? |
|
Definition
| inner membrane: inpermeable due to cardiolipin, outer membrane: permeable due to porin |
|
|
Term
| 259. Name the three main types of proteins of the inner mitochondrial membrane! |
|
Definition
| transport proteins, proteins of the oxidative phosphorylation chain, ATP synthase |
|
|
Term
| 260. How is pyruvate taken up by mitochondria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 261. What is the motive force of the mitochondrial ATP synthase? |
|
Definition
| the electrochemical proton gradient |
|
|
Term
| 262. What are the subunits of the mitochondrial ATP synthase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 263. What is the site of the synthesis of mitochondrial ribosomal proteins and RNAs? |
|
Definition
| proteins: on free ribosomes of the cytoplasm, rRNAs: in the mitochondrial matrix |
|
|
Term
| 264. How can proteins enter the mitochondrion? |
|
Definition
| by posttranslational transport with the help of chaperones |
|
|
Term
| 265. What is the function of chaperones in the transport of proteins into the mitochondria? |
|
Definition
| they unfold the protein chain |
|
|
Term
| 266. Where is higher the pH-value: in the mitochondrial matrix or in the intermembrane space? |
|
Definition
| in the mitochondrial matrix |
|
|
Term
| 267. What is the function of the F0 component of mitochondrial ATP synthase? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 269. Which are the repetitive sequences that can be used as highly polymorphic genetic markers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 270. What is the name of animals whose genome contains an artificially introduced gene, and this gene is inherited to the offspring? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 271. Which molecular biological methods can give information whether a transgenic animal is homo- or heterozygous for the transgene (2)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 272. What is the physiological function of siRNAs? |
|
Definition
| regulation of gene expression |
|
|
Term
| 273. Which method can be used to visualize the radioactive hybridisation probe on a Southern blot? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 274. What type of polymerase chain reaction can be used to quantitate a specific nucleic acid region? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 275. What does the acronyme SNP stand for? |
|
Definition
| single nucleotide polymorphism |
|
|
Term
| 276. What is the name of RNA molecules responsible for RNA interference? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 277. Give a definition of the term „proteome”! |
|
Definition
| all the proteins present in a cell |
|
|
Term
| 278. Name 2 proteins involved in the nuclear transport of proteins! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 279. What is the enzyme activity of Ran? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 280. Name a polyglutamine disease! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 281. Name 2 chemical modifications that are characteristic of histones! |
|
Definition
| phosphorylation, acethylation, etc. |
|
|
Term
| 282. Name the protein complexes that hold the sister chromatids together! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 283. Name the enzyme that cleaves cohesin complexes between sister chromatids! |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 284. Give a definition of the term „translesion DNA synthesis”! |
|
Definition
| replication of damaged DNA |
|
|
Term
| 285. What is the function of exosomes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give a definition of the term „constitutive splicing”! |
|
Definition
| the process producing a single mRNA from a single pre-mRNA |
|
|
Term
| 268. Name three disorders caused by mitochondrial DNA damage! |
|
Definition
| mental dementia, cardiomyopathy, optic nerve atrophy, glomerulopathy...etc. |
|
|
