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B Co Topics
SOP/Map Reading/Weight & Balance/Pubs for ACFT/VFR minimums
155
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Professional
01/23/2012

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Term

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This study tool is to be used at your own risk! In no way has the Commander authorized this as official. Please feel free to keep your comments about the material to yourself, unless it is related to incorrect information.

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PACK updated 2May13 by Mr Castelli
Definition

DISCLAIMER:

This study tool is to be used at your own risk! In no way has the Commander authorized this as official. Please feel free to keep your comments about the material to yourself, unless it is related to incorrect information.

Thank you, your local flashcard editor

Term
Flight operations will publish the flight schedule NLT _____ of the preceeding week.
Definition
Wednesday
(B Co SOP)
Term
What form number is the mission brief sheet?
Definition
DA Form 5484
Term
How many parts are there to the mission approval process and what are they?
Definition

3 Parts

Part one: Initial Mission Approval

Part Two: Mission Planning and Briefing

Part Three: Final Mission Approval

Term
What happens during the Initial mission approval stage?
Definition
Commander approves the flight schedule. Commander considers the impacts of training, flight hours, crew mix and other unit activities (TAB R-10)

[Mission is verified to be in]alignment with the unit’s
mission essential task list, aircraft required and available, availability of required special mission equipment, trained aircrew availability, other training and mission impacts, tactical and threat considerations
[It is an] assessment of the unit’s capability to accomplish the mission (AR 95-23 2-12)
Term
What happens during Mission planning and Briefing stage?
Definition
Detailed planning and risk mitigation with the Briefing officer/NCO and MC (TAB R-10)
Term
What happens during the final mission approval stage?
Definition
Final Risk approval authority authorizes the mission (TAB R-10)
Term
How long will the risk assessment worksheet be retained?
Definition
For at least 30 days
Term
What is the Risk Management Process according to the battalion SOP
Definition
Risk identification
Risk analysis
Risk countermeasures
Risk reduction implementation
Risk controls

(BN. SOP R-11)
Term
Who has the overall responsibility for the Briefing Officer program?
Definition
Battalion Commander
Term
Briefing Officers/NCO's and risk approval authorities will be designatged by whom?
Definition

In writing by the Battalion Commander

 (Per BN Stands SOP)

 

Term
Is self briefing authorized?
Definition
No, unless approved by the Battalion Commander
Term
How often will CM's complete ACT-E training?
Definition
Annually
Term
A No-notice may consist of what?
Definition
Hands-On, Oral, Written Exam, or any combination of the three
Term
How often will a CM receive a "No- Notice" eval?
Definition
At least once annually
Term
Who is responsible for the development and implementation of the no notice program?
Definition
ATP commander

(BN SOP R-28)
Term
Who has the overall responsibility for the No Notice Program?
Definition
BN commander

(BN SOP R-28)
Term
Monthly read files will be read by the ____ day of each month?
Definition
10th
Term
AIRF cards will turn red when:
Definition
A) 1st of the month for IA/SL and monthly read
B) Quarterly read
C) New TFN/ASAM/AMAM
D) New Items added to AIRF

(B CO Stans. sop)
Term
What will the quarterly read file consist of?
Definition
1) Flight operations policy memos
2) Standardization/Safety Minutes
3) SOP's
4) Publications
Term
Who will ensure all scheduled crewmembers for the mission are in compliance with the AIRF Flip card System prior to flight ops?
Definition
Aircraft Commander
Term
Who does Fighter management apply to?
Definition
All personnel required to perform duties that are essential to the flight operations of the UAS (operators, crew chiefs) As well as all personnel that perform duties on the UAS that are essential to specific phases of the maintenance mission (mechs, techs) (TAB R-37)
Term
The off-duty personal time, which precedes or follows a duty period is considered what?
Definition
Rest Period
(TAB R-38)
Term
What is the allowable interruption during a rest period?
Definition
One or two temporary interruptions in a rest period not exceeding 10 minutes are permitted.
Term
Who may authorize a 12 - 14 HR duty period during Garrison flight trainnig?
Definition
ATP Commander
(TAB R-39)
Term
Who may authorize a 14-16 HR duty period during Garrison flight training?
Definition
BN Commander
(TAB R-39)
Term
who may authorize greater than a 16 hr day during garrison flight training?
Definition
Brigade commander
Term
Who may authorize a 12 HR duty day?
Definition
None needed, Normal duty day
(TAB R-39)
Term
For changes in duty cycle greater than six hours earlier or later than time duty starts on the current day, individuals will be given a ___ hour rest period.
Definition
48 hrs
(BN SOP)
Term
For changes in duty cycle requiring crew members to be present for duty less than six hours later than duty time starts individuals will be given __ hour rest period
Definition
0 hrs. No adjustment period unless adverse effects of adjustment then a 12 hr rest period will be provided.
(TAB R-40)
Term
For Changes in duty cycle requiring crewmembers to be present for duty greater than four hours earlier than the time duty starts on the current day, individuals will be given __ hour rest period.
Definition
24
(BAT SOP)
Term
According to the SOP, CM will be restricted for __ hour(s) after unprotected exposure to riot control agents and until there are no residual systemic effects.
Definition
2 hrs
(BN SOP)
Term
Who can waive reverse cycle restrictions?
Definition
First O-5 aviation commander or above in the individuals chain of command (with flight surgeon recommendation)

(BN SOP R-41)
Term
A 14 day limit is reset with __ hour rest period. A 30 day limit is reset with a __ hour rest period.
Definition
24
48
(TAB R-38)
Term
Personnel performing 24-hour duty that does not provide a rest period minimum of 8 consecutive hours will receive a minimum ___ hour rest period prior to performing aviation related duties.
Definition
8 hours
(TAB R-40)
Term
What is the maximum flight time allowed in:
A) 24 hour period
B) 14 day period
C) 30 day garrison/tactical period
Definition
A) 8 hrs
B) 74 hrs
C) 90 hrs / 140 hrs tactical
(TAB R-40)
Term
Aircrew members should be restricted from flight duties when they have taken part in strenuous activities ___ hr(s) prior to performing flight duties.
Definition
one

(TAB R-40)
Term
CM's must demonstrate proficiency in each base task ____ _____ in order to progress to RL 2
Definition
Twice Consecutively
Term
What are the four 2000 series task for B Co ATP?
Definition

2000- Cold Weather

2005- Desert and Hot Weather

2010- Turbulence and Thunderstorm Ops

2015- Mountain Ops

Term
MOI training and evaluation will not exceed how long?
Definition
30 Calendar days unless authorized by the ATP Commander/GFR
Term
What are the sim MOI minimums?
Definition
At minimum crewmembers must observe and instruct three solo flights and three crew flights under the guidance of an SO.
Term
What are the simulation refresher MOI minimums?
Definition
Instruct 2 flights, any combination
Term
Total simulation MOI flight will not exceed how many iterations?
Definition
Ten
Term
What are the flight line MOI minimums?
Definition
Observe and instruct one AO, PO and L&R
Term
What are the flightline MOI maximums?
Definition
5 AO iterations, 5 PO iterations and 5 L/R.
Term
Per Company SOP, Instructors will check the students _______ prior to flight to ensure currency.
Definition
Checklist

(B Co SOP)
Term
All newly assigned, attached or visiting UAC's will complete local area orientation requirements prior to being progressed to ___?
Definition
RL 1
Term
Per the B co Standardization SOP, What are the prerequisites for RL 1?
Definition
1) completion of mission training or placed in RL 1 based on commander's evaluation
2) Completion of all elements of APART within past 12 months
3)completed LAO
4) ACT/ACT-E qualified
Term
What are the criteria for AC selection?
Definition
Aviation experience, maturity, judgement, mission situational awareness, and ability to effectively mitigate risk
(Standardization SOP pg 9)
Term
What are the requirements of AC training?
Definition
Observe one flight
pass oral evaluation by IO
pass open book test with a minimum of 80%
Flight evaluation by IO or SO

(BN. SOP R 13)
Term
Personnel must be qualified in the platform in which MC duties will be performed and should have at least ___ experience in B Co ops.
Definition
six months
Term
The MC selection committee will consist of whom as a minimum?
Definition
Available MCs, SOs, Flight operations officer/NCO and Company commander
Term
MC training will not exceed how many days?
Definition
30 unless authorized by the company Commander (TAB R-22)
Term
How often must an MC receive a written exam?
Definition
Semi-annual and receive an 80%
Term
What are the spotter requirements during hunter operations.
Definition
A spotter will be present at the shadow launch site anytime there are personnel working on the north side of the runway.
(TAB R-10)
Term
What is the minimum safe altitude for stryker ops?
Definition
500 ft unless directed otherwise by the MC
Term
Stryker UA's will depart/enter A&E at  minimum of ____?
Definition

8,000 FT MSL

B Co SOP

Term
Shadow local is defined as:
Definition
Operations in ares A and E up to 8,000 ft msl
(B CO SOP R-12)
Term
what is the minimum altitude for flights into east range?
Definition

10,000 FT MSL as required for transition from West to East Range

B Co SOP

Term
What is the minimum altitude for flights into west range?
Definition

9,000 FT MSL

B Co SOP

Term
Flights between ____ and ___ should maintain an altitude of at least 10,000 FT MSL in East or West Range.
Definition

2100 and 0600

B Co SOP

Term
Transition between East and West Range will be done at 10,000 FT MLS utilizing the ___ ____ or as directed by ATC.
Definition

North Corridor

B Co SOP

Term
Who is responsible for monitoring the AV during a changeover?
Definition
IO(A)

(B. Co. SOP R-15)
Term
Who is responsible for ensuring mission overlays are loaded and displayed in (p)gcs during flight operations?
Definition
AC

(B. CO SOP R-4)
Term
Prior to commanding UA to A&E, the AO MUST ensure points nav radius default of ____ is loaded.
Definition

1200m

B Co SOP

Term
How is a planned tals abort requested from ATC.
Definition

TALS ___ approach with option

B Co SOP

Term
How are Fire points marked in accordance with the SOP?
Definition
Red runway lights or chem-lights.

B Co SOP

Term
At a minimum, how many modes of communication must a CM have with ATC.
Definition
Two
Term
Staff journal logs will be kept for ___?
Definition

30 Days

B Co SOP

Term
What DD form can be used in lieu of the weather flimsy?
Definition
175-1

(B. CO SOP R-7)
Term
When performing weekly inspections on the gear, slack will be pulled out every ____?
Definition

50 feet

B Co SOP

Term
What are the requirements for the MC to launch an aircraft without the gear being fully emplaced while Hunter is in the hold position?
Definition

the energy absorbers must be torqued, 13-1 completed and a minimum of two gear personnel in position

B Co SOP

Term
Who will verify that all backup stations are properly configured prior to launch/recovery operations?
Definition
MC

(B. CO. SOP R-10)
Term
Per the SOP, the AV PMD will expire on the seventh day at midnight from completion, providing the aircraft has not been flown or ______.
Definition
Disassembled

(B. CO SOP R-8)
Term
Per the B Co. SOP, what does the placement of the a PID onto the AV logbook 2408-12 signify?
Definition
The AV logbook has been reviewed and the AV is ready for flight

(B. CO SOP R-8)
Term
Who maintains an updated list of known HIRTA sites for the local flying area?
Definition
S-2

(BN SOP R-51)
Term
What are some examples of suspected HIRTA/EMI?
Definition

Un-commanded control movements

Unexplained departure from normal controlled flight

Unexplained illumination of caution, warning, or advisory lights with or without degradation or loss of the system

(HIRTA/EMI AAAR's are classified confidential)

(TAB R-52)
Term
What are VFR weather requirements for both Hunter and Shadow?
Definition
Class E VFR weather minimums will be maintained for flights within the R-2303 restricted airspace based on mission altitudes.

(BAT SOP R-53)
Term
Flight ops will end as soon as possible when any weather ___ has been issues from LAAF.
Definition

Warning (not advisory)

B Co SOP

Term
All UAS flight ops will be suspended ASAP when lightning activity is within ____ of ops.
Definition

25 NM 

B Co SOP

Term
All outdoor training ops will begin preparations for suspending ops when lighting is within ___ of L&R site.
Definition

10 NM

B Co SOP

Term
All ground ops will cease when lighting is within ___ of the L&R site.
Definition

5 NM 

B Co SOP

Term
What is the proceedure if the AC cannot get a shadow out of IMC conditions.
Definition

Command to N or S hold at mission altitude with approval and descend to 6000' MSL.

Proceed with TALS recovery

Term
What wind speeds constitute normal wind conditions?
Definition
<35 kts

(B CO SOP)
Term
What are the procedures when winds are in high conditions?(>/= 35kts but <40 kts)
Definition
1) ground ops to include emp/disp will be terminated as soon as feasible
2) Ensure aircraft are secured in hanger
3) shadow dishes and antennas secured if safety permits
4) MC will notify EMP/DISP and continue to evaluate the threat.

(B CO SOP)
Term
What are the procedures when winds are severe? (Winds >/= 40kts)
Definition
1) All ground ops will cease and all equipment wil be secured
2) GCS sim flt training will terminate
3) evaluate threat, once severe conditions have passed the govt lead will inspect areas for damage

(B CO SOP)
Term
What is the procedure in the event of shore power loss on Rugge with the 10KW generator backup ?
Definition
Perform GCS electrical power fail emergency procedure. 10K TQG PMCS will be verified. All shelters will verify RH coords before putting their UA into RH (primary off, secondary recv only). ACs will verify AV is following RH logic. Shelter with power will land avs in order.
Term
When will a TAB A be initiated?
Definition
initiated by the MC as soon as possible after a safety or maintenance related issue that causes a change to the scheduled mission aircraft, a delay or cancellation of a mission, an anomaly, or an in-flight emergency.

(B co. SOP TAB R-20)
Term
In accordance with the Bravo Company PAP, during the accident phase, what are the responsibilities of the operator?
Definition

Imm notify MC

Notify ATC

Monitor ACFT position and last known heading

Report final position/heading to MC

Prepare statement of events

Term
Who is delegated with the assembly of the DART?
Definition
Rugge MC

(B. CO PAP)
Term
What class of accident will personnel report to the Medical Center for urine and blood testing and who will provide transportation?
Definition
MADATORY FOR ALL Class A-C, D and E at the discretion of the commander.

Company 1SG or escort

Term
Only designated mission essential personnel will approach within ____ of an AV that has been inspected for flight ops?
Definition

50 FT

B Co SOP

Term
How often will Crash Drills be conducted?
Definition
Monthly, both on day and night shifts
Term
What consequences will result from the use of equipment identified as unserviceable or unready?
Definition
Military/DAC cms will be designated RL3. Contractor personnel will be referred to the GFR for retraining.

(B. CO SOP)
Term
Unsecured headgear is not authorized within ____ feet of Hubbard, Rugge and Pioneer runways?
Definition
100'

(B. Co. SOP R-22)
Term
What is the primary purpose of the debriefing?
Definition
to discuss and identify problem areas or situations encountered during the mission.

(B co. SOP TAB R-15)
Term
What is the definition of a map?
Definition
Graphic representation of a portion of the earth's surface drawn to scale, as seen from above
Term
What does MGRS stand for?
Definition
Military Grid Refference system

(FM 3-25.26 4-12)
Term
MGRS grids consist of three parts, what are they?
Definition
Grid zone designation, 100,000 meter square, and grid coordinants

(FM 3-25.26 4-12)
Term
Identify the components of the following MGRS grid: 12RWV5200099450
Definition
12R is the Grid zone designation
WV is the 100,000m grid
5200099450 is the grid coords.
(FM 3-25.26 4-12)
Term
How many grid zones is the world divided into?
Definition
60
Term
What is the average height and width of the grid zone designators?
Definition
6 degrees wide, 8 degrees high.

(FM 3-25.26 4-13)
Term
What are the major terrain features?
Definition
Hill, Valley, Saddle, Ridge, Depression
Term
What are the minor terrain features?
Definition
Cliff, Draw, Spur
Term
What are the supplementary features?
Definition
Cut, Fill
Term
What are the 7 colors used on a military map?
Definition
Black, Red-Brown, Blue, Green, Brown, Red and Other

(FM 3-25.26 3-6)
Term
What does the color "Black" indicate on a map?
Definition
Black indicates cultural (man-made) features such as buildings and roads,
surveyed spot elevations, and all labels

(FM 3-25.26 3-6)
Term
What does the color " Red-Brown" indicate on a map?
Definition
The colors red and brown are combined to identify cultural features, all
relief features, nonsurveyed spot elevations, and elevation such as contour lines on red-light
readable maps.

(FM 3-25.26 3-6)
Term
What does the color 'Brown' indicate on maps?
Definition
Brown identifies all relief features and elevation such as contours on older
edition maps and cultivated land on red-light readable maps.

(FM 3-25.26 3-6)
Term
What does the color "Blue" indicate on a map?
Definition
Identifies hydrography or water features

(FM 3-25.26 3-6)
Term
What does the color " Green" indicate on a map?
Definition
Vegetation with military significance

(FM 3-25.26 3-6)
Term
What does the color "Red" indicate on map?
Definition
Cultural features, such as populated areas, main roads, and boundaries on older maps

(FM 3-25.26 3-6)
Term
How accurate does a 4-6-8 digit grid give you?
Definition

4- w/in 1,000 meters

6- w/in 100 meters

8- w/in 10 meters

 

Term
What level of accuracy does a 10 digit MGRS grid give you?
Definition
1 square meter
Term
What is a 'base line' on a map?
Definition
a starting point or 'zero' and a point of refference

(FM 3-25.26 6-1)
Term
What are the 3 types of 'base lines'
Definition
True north, Magnetic north and Grid north
Term
What are the three types of contour lines?
Definition

Index

Intermediate

Supplementary

Term
Define True north
Definition
A line from any point on the earth's surface to the north pole. All lines of longitude are true north lines.

(FM 3-25.26 6-1)
Term
Define Magnetic North
Definition
The direction to the north magnetic pole, as indicated by the north-seeking needle of a magnetic instrument.

(FM 3-25.26 6-2)
Term
Define Grid North
Definition
The north that is established by using the vertical grid lines on the map.

(FM 3-25.26 6-2)
Term
What are the three types of deserts?
Definition

Mountain

Rocky Plateau

Sandy or Dune Deserts

Term
What are the five different types of terrain?
Definition

Desert

Mountain

Jungle

Arctic

Urban Areas

Term
What series of forms will be used for weight and balance for determining proper UA weight?
Definition
DD Form 365 series
Term
What weight class is Shadow?
Definition
1b
Term
How often must the weight and balance records be checked for accuracy?
Definition

at lease every 90 days

95-23, 7-6

Term
All weight and balance records shall, as a minimum, be reviewed every _____?
Definition

12 months

95-23, 7-7

Term
Each class 1b UA shall be weighed when?
Definition

(1) Overhaul or major airframe repairs have been accomplished.
(2) Modifications of 1 percent or greater of the UA’s basic weight have been applied.
(3) Any modifications or component replacements (including painting) have been made for which the weight and center of gravity cannot be accurately computed.
(4) Weight and center-of-gravity data records are suspected to be in error.
(5) The period since the previous weighing reaches 36 months for a Class 1b UA and 24 months for a Class 2 UA.

95-23, 7-7

Term
What is the maximum allowable gross takeoff weight (GTOW) of a shadow at or below 9000 FT DA?
Definition
404lbs
Term
what is the max allowable gross takeoff weight (GTOW) of a shadow between 9,000 - 10,500 ft DA?
Definition
400 lbs
Term
what is the max av weight of the IE shadow up to 10,500 ft DA?
Definition
467 lbs
Term
What form provides a record of flight operations and some maintenance/service info?
Definition
DA Form 2408-12, Army Aviators Flight Record
Term
What form provides a records of aircraft and aviation associated equipment condition status and other acft maintenance info?
Definition
DA Form 2408-13, Aircraft Satus Info Record
Term
A flight or series of flights, that take off before 2400 hours and lands after 2400 hours is credited to which day, takeoff or landing date?
Definition
The hours are credited to the date of takeoff
Term
Which form provides a place to record aircraft and aviation associated equipment for operational remarks, checks, faults, manhours, condition status symbols?
Definition
DA Form 2408-13-1
Term
What form provides a ready reference list of all periodic/recurring inspections, services, checks, and replacements?
Definition
DA Form 2408-18, Equipment Inspection List
Term
What are the four principles of Crew Coordination?
Definition

Communicate effectively and timely

Sustain a climate of ready and prompt assistance

Effectively manage, coordinate, priortize planned actions, unexpected events, and workload distribution

Provide situational aircraft control, obstacle avoidance, and mission advisories

Term
What are the four objectives in Crew Coordination?
Definition

Establish and maintain team relationships

Establish and maintain efficient workloads

Exchange mission information

Cross-monitor performance

Term
What are the basic qualities of Crew Coordination?
Definition

-Announce and Acknowledge Decisions and Actions

-Ensure that statements and directives are clear, timely, relevant, complete, and verified

-Be explicit

-Direct Assistance

-Prioritize Actions & Equitably Distribute Workload

-Situational Awareness

-Mission Changes and Updates

-Offer Assistance

Term
Class B VFR minimums
Definition

3 SM vis

Clear clouds

Term
Class C VFR minimums
Definition

3 SM

1,000 ft above

500 ft below

2,000 ft horizontal

Term
Class D VFR minimums
Definition

3 SM

1,000 ft above,

500 ft below

2,000ft horizontal

Term
Class E below 10,000 MSL VFR minimums
Definition

3 SM

1,000 ft above

500 ft below

2,000 ft horizontal

Term
Class E above 10,000 ft MSL VFR minimums
Definition

5 SM

1,000 ft above

1,000 ft below

1 SM horizontal

Term
Class G 1,200 ft or less VFR minimum
Definition

Day: 1SM, clear clouds

 

Night: 3 SM

1,000 ft above

500 ft below

2,000ft horizontal

Term
Class G more than 1,200 ft but less than 10,000 ft MSL VFR minimum
Definition

Day: 1 SM

1,000 ft above

500 ft below

2,000 ft horizontal

 

Night: 3 SM

1,000 ft above

500 ft below

2,000 ft horizontal

Term
Class G more than 1,200 above surface and above 10,000 ft MSL VFR minimum
Definition

5 SM

1,000 ft above

1,000 ft below

1 SM horizontal

Term
Define Alert Area
Definition
Contains high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity.

(AIM 3-4-6)
Term
Define Controlled Firing Area
Definition
CFAs contain activities which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The distinguishing feature
of the CFA, as compared to other special use airspace, is that its activities are suspended immediately when spotter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout positions
indicate an aircraft might be approaching the area.

(AIM 3-4-7)
Term
Define Military Operations Area (MOA)
Definition
MOAs consist of airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of
separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.

(AIM 3-4-5)
Term
Prohibited Area
Definition
Area on the surface of the
earth within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited.
Such areas are established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare.

(AIM 3-4-2)
Term
Restricted Area
Definition
area on the surface of the earth within which the
flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Restricted areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible,
hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of restricted
areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants.

(AIM 3-4-3)
Term
Warning Area
Definition
Extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast
Term
When operating in noise sensitive area (Wildlife Refuges), all Army aircraft will maintain a minimum of ____ feet about the surface.
Definition

2,000 FT

 

AR 95-23, 5-4

 

Term
According to AR 95-23, at takeoff, the aircraft must have enough fuel to reach the destination and alternate airport (if required) and have a planned fuel reserver of _____ (fixed wing)
Definition
VFR (day) - 30 mins at cruise
VFR (night) - 45 mins at cruise
Term
Destination weather must be forcast to be equal to or greater than VFR minimums at estimated time of arrival through______estimated time of arrival
Definition
1 hour
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