Term
(Refer to figure 35 and 35A)
At which point does the BUJ.BUJ3 arrival begin? |
|
Definition
At the BUJ VORTAC.
STAR/DP |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 41 and 41A)
At which point does the AQN.AQN2 arrival begin? |
|
Definition
ACTON VORTAC
STAR/DP Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 41 and 41A)
Which frequency would you anticipate using to contact Regional Approach Control? (ACTON TWO ARRIVAL) |
|
Definition
125.8
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 41 and 41A)
On which heading should you plan to depart CREEK intersection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 72)
At which location or condition does the IGN.JUDD2 arrival begin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 55)
Using an average groundspeed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 2,400 ft MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,000 ft MSL at the FAF? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is true regarding STARs? |
|
Definition
STAR's are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service? |
|
Definition
Course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR? |
|
Definition
When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests no STAR.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 29)
What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field? |
|
Definition
363 ft MSL
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 29)
Using a groundspeed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 36A)
What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively for the S-33 approach procedure? |
|
Definition
1,240 ft MSL; 1 SM
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 41, 42, and 42A)
Approaching DFW from Abilene, what frequencies should you expect to use for regional approach control, control tower, and ground control respectively? |
|
Definition
125.8; 124.15; 121.8
A/FD Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 42A)
Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency? |
|
Definition
Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 42 and 42A)
What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L? |
|
Definition
15 ft
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 42A)
What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY/36L approach? (Use 120 knots groundspeed) |
|
Definition
635 feet per minute.
Rate of Descent Table |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 60A)
What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4? |
|
Definition
46 ft MSL
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 73)
What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure? |
|
Definition
1,800 ft MSL
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 73)
At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight? |
|
Definition
When reaching 374 ft MSL indicated altitude.
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 73)
Using an average groundspeed of 90 knots on the final approach segment, what rate of descent should be used initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure? |
|
Definition
480 ft per minute
Rate of Descent Table |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 73)
What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6? |
|
Definition
174 ft MSL
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 73)
Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International? |
|
Definition
ALSF2 and HIRL
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 74 and 80)
Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 27? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 80)
How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 27R (Billings Logan) approach procedure? |
|
Definition
Four
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 80)
What is the TDZE for landing on RWY 27R? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts? |
|
Definition
1,000 ft within a 25-NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate? |
|
Definition
A procedure turn is not authorized.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 119)
The final approach fix for the precision approach is located at |
|
Definition
Glide slope intercept (lightning bolt)
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 120)
Refer to the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is |
|
Definition
7,500 ft MSL
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 120)
The symbol on the planview of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 121)
During the ILS RWY 30R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slop interception is |
|
Definition
2,500 ft MSL
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 121)
During the ILS RWY 30R procedure at DSM, what MDA applies should the glide slope become inoperative? |
|
Definition
1,320 ft
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 122)
The missed approach point of the ATL S-LOC 8L procedure is located how far from the LOW |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 123)
What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure? |
|
Definition
One VOR receiver and DME.
IFH |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 123)
The symbol on the planview of the VOR/DME-A procedure at 7D3 represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 126)
What landing minimums apply for a 14 CFR part 91 operator at Dothan, AL using a category C aircraft during a circling LOC 31 approach at 120 knots? (DME available) |
|
Definition
MDA 860 ft MSL and visibility 1 and 1/2 SM
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 126)
What is the ability to identify the RRS 2.5 stepdown fix worth in terms of localizer circle-to-land minimums for a category C aircraft? |
|
Definition
Decreases MDA by 20 ft
IFH |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 128)
What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart? |
|
Definition
It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 130)
Why are the procedure turn restrictions on the LDA RWY 6 approach at Roanoke Regional? |
|
Definition
Remain within 10 NM of CLAMM INT and on the north side of the approach course.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 130)
What are the restrictions regarding circle to land procedures for LDA RWY/GS 6 approach at Roanoke Regional? |
|
Definition
Circling not authorized NW of RWY 6-24
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 130)
At what minimum altitude should you cross CLAMM intersection during the S-LDA 6 approach at Roanoke Regional? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 130)
How should the pilot identify the missed approach point for the S-LDA GS 6 approach to Roanoke Regional? |
|
Definition
Arrival at 1,540 ft on the glide slope.
IFH |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 131)
The control tower at BOS reports "tall vessels" in the approach area. What are the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R straight-in approach minimums for Category A aircraft |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 131)
What is the landing distance available for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R approach at BOS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 131)
During a missed approach from the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R approach at BOS, what course should be flown to the missed approach holding waypoint? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 131)
Other than VOr/DME RNAV, what additional navigation equipment is required to conduct the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R approach at BOS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category? |
|
Definition
Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.
IFH |
|
|
Term
| How can an IAH be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart? |
|
Definition
All fixes that are labeled IAF
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 131)
What determines the MAP for the straight-in VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R approach at BOS? |
|
Definition
.5 NM to RULSY waypoint.
Approach Chart LEgend |
|
|
Term
| RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration? |
|
Definition
RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
IFH, FAR 91.175 |
|
|
Term
| Aircraft approach categories are based on |
|
Definition
1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.
IFH |
|
|
Term
| Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes? |
|
Definition
Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2,400 RVR? |
|
Definition
A ground visibility of 1/2 SM
Approach Chart Legend, FAR 91.175 |
|
|
Term
| The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply? |
|
Definition
RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility.
Approach Chart Legend, FAR 91.175 |
|
|
Term
| If the RVR equipement is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR? |
|
Definition
As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM
FAR 91.175 |
|
|
Term
| An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if |
|
Definition
the NAV AIDS used for the final approach are unmonitored.
IFH |
|
|
Term
| How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field? |
|
Definition
Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to an FSS or ATC facility.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting "timed approaches from a holding fix"? |
|
Definition
The reported ceiling and visibilty minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| Prior to conducting "timed approaches from a holding fix," which one of the following is required: |
|
Definition
The airport where the approach is to be conducted must have a control tower in operation.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| When making a "timed approach" from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the |
|
Definition
holding pattern to leave the final appraoch fix inbound at the assigned time.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to |
|
Definition
Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until |
|
Definition
Established on a segment of a published route or IAP
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 124)
What options are available concerning the teardrop course reversal for LOC RWY 35 approach to Duncan/Halliburton Field? |
|
Definition
If a course reversal is required, only the teardrop can be executed.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 124)
The point on the teardrop procedure where the turn inbound (LOC RWY 35) Duncan/Halliburton, is initiated is determined by |
|
Definition
DME and timing to remain within the 10 NM limit.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 125)
If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the Lincoln VOR at 5,000 ft MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,000 ft commence? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 125)
If cleared for an S-LOC 17R approach at Lincoln Municipal from over TOUHY, it means the flight should |
|
Definition
begin final approach without making a procedure turn.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 126)
If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should |
|
Definition
begin final approach without making a procedure turn.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC |
|
Definition
Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made |
|
Definition
Only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required? |
|
Definition
When radar vectors are provided.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to |
|
Definition
minimum altitude shown on the IAP.
AIM |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 133)
How should a pilot reverse course to get established on the inbound course of the ILS RWY 9, if radar vectoring or the three IAF's are not utilized? |
|
Definition
Make an appropriate entry to the depicted holding pattern at Swan Lake OM/INT.
IFH |
|
|
Term
| A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight? |
|
Definition
The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.
FAR 91.175, FAR 91.129 |
|
|
Term
| You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach? |
|
Definition
Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| You are being vectored to the ILS approach course, but you have not been cleared for the approach. It become evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What action should be taken? |
|
Definition
Continue on the assigned heading and query ATC.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver? |
|
Definition
As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| When may a pilot make a straight-in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums? |
|
Definition
A straight-in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course become imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot? |
|
Definition
Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC
AIM |
|
|
Term
| Which of the following conditions is required before "timed approaches from a holding fix" may be conducted? |
|
Definition
If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal.
AIM |
|
|
Term
Assume this clearance is received:
"CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT."
When would the pilot be expected to commence the side-step maneuver? |
|
Definition
As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.
AIM |
|
|
Term
| Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower-than-usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be |
|
Definition
higher than actual, leading to a lower-than-normal approach.
IFH |
|
|
Term
| What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower-than-usual runway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 49)
When conducting the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at PDX, what is the MSA while maneuvering between the BTG VORTAC and CREAK intersection? |
|
Definition
6,100 ft MSL
Approach Chart Legend |
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 49)
You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054 radial at 7,000 ft. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
(Refer to figure 49)
What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX? |
|
Definition
|
|
