| Term 
 
        | 
What organisms are responsible for Endocarditis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Streptococcus Viridians - S. Aureus (MSSA) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
  
What organisms are responsible for CNS issues?   |  | Definition 
 
        | - S. Pneumoniae - N. Meningitis - H. Influenzae |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
  
What organisms are responsible for Community acquired respiratory tract infections?   |  | Definition 
 
        | - S. Pneumoniae - H. Influenzae - Atypical Organisms |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
  
What organisms are responsible for Hospital acquired respiratory tract infections?   |  | Definition 
 
        | - MRSA - Pseudomonas Aeruginosa |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
  
What organisms are responsible for Gastrointestinal Infections?   |  | Definition 
 
        | - Enterococcus spp. - Enteric gram negatives - Gram negative anaerobes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What organisms of found in an early Diabetic Ulcer? |  | Definition 
 
        | - MSSA - Streptococcus spp. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
What organisms of found in a Late Diabetic Ulcer? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Pseudomonas Aeruginosa - MRSA - anaerobes - Gram negatives |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
What organisms of found in a Genitourinary Infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Enteric Gram negative (E. Coli) - STD's: Neissera, Chlamydia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
What organisms of found in skin/soft tissue infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Streptococcus sp. - S. Aureus (MSSA) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name the most common gram positive bacteria |  | Definition 
 
        | - Staphylococcus Aureus (MSSA, MRSA, GISA) - S. Pyogenes - Streptococcus Pneumoniae (PRSP) - Enterococcus Faecium (VRE, LR-VRE) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name the most common Gram Negative bacteria |  | Definition 
 
        | - Pseudomonas Aeruginosa - Acinetobacter - Klebseilla   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name the most common Enterobacteriacea |  | Definition 
 
        | - E. Coli - Enterobacter - Citrobacter - Serratia - Proteus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special about Cephalosporins? |  | Definition 
 
        | - No Enterococcus spp. coverage - Dosed less frequently - Some MSSA activity, a little bit of gram (-), NO CNS PENETRATION in this gen. - 2nd Gen, Zo likes to SEW during surgeries - Cefuroxime ROX skin infections - In 3rd gen, Tax and Triax are very taxing on Strep Pneumoniae |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cefotaxime and Ceftriaxone are drug of choice for what? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some differences between Cefotaxime and Ceftriaxone? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ceftriaxone: Dosed q24 hours, q12 hours in CNS infection Cefotaxime: Older, dosed q8 hours   Both have S. Aureus coverage |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special about Ceftazidime and Cefipime? |  | Definition 
 
        | - They are PRIME when it comes to Pseudomonas coverage.   - No reliable staph coverage - Cefepime dosed BID, 2g IV q8h for Pseudomonas   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is important regarding Imipenem, Meropenem, and Doripenem? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Extremely broad spectrum - Covers MSSA, B. Fragilis, and Pseudomonas - Does NOT cover Corynebacterium jeikieum and Stenotrophomonas |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are Cabapenems formulated with?  What does this do, and what are common side effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Coformulated with Cilastatin (inhibits dehydropeptidase-1), to decrease nephrotoxic metabolites - Of the three, Imipenem has highest incidence of seizures (1.5%). -Risk factors are old age, renal problems, and history of seizures - Dosed q6-8h, unless renal problems |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What's special about Ertapenem? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Once-a-day Carbapenem - 1g q24 hours - Broad spectrum, but not for pseudomonas or enterococcus - For intra-abdominal and skin infections - No inhibition of P450 system or glycoprotein transport. - Dosage adjustment if clearance <30, T 1/2 = 4 hours |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Aztreonam's (Azactam) spectrum? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Only effective against gram negatives - Good for Pseudomonas - NOT equivalent to Gentamycin - No synergy, no effect on gram positives or mycobacteria   Azactam is EXACT only against gram negatives |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the differences between the different hypersensitivity rxn's? |  | Definition 
 
        | Type I - Immediate Hypersensitivty Type II - Cytotoxic antibodies, IgG, IgM bind to renal/blood cells Type III - Immune complexes, IgG and IgM bind to circulating antigens, serum sickness, 7-14 days after initiation Type IV - Cell mediated, T-cell dependent, WBC recruitmant leading to inflammation, dermatitis.   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are other severe rxn's of B-lactam sensitivities? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Stevens-Johnson syndrome - Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis - Multi-Organ involvement   -Happens in 10% of population, rash in 1-3%, skin test can detect it in 60% of cases |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What about Staph. Aureus? |  | Definition 
 
        | - 20% of pop. always colonized, 60% intermittent carriers, and 20% never carry the organism - MRSA emerging b/c of acquisition of mecA gene that encodes PBP2 (CA-MRSA emerged differently) - multiple virulence factors - Vancomycin drug of choice |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Glycopeptide-Intermediate Staph Aureus and Glycopeptide Resistant Staph. Aureus   Higher doses of Vancomycin don't necessarily help, but they do INCREASE toxicity....this is bad |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some examples of Coagulase Negative Staphylococci, and what is the main treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | - S. Epidermidis, S. Saprophiticus, S. Hemoliticus, S. Luteus - Vancomycin is drug of choice |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is enterococcus sp.? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Normal gut flora, either in the form E. Faecalis (90%), or E. Faecium (10%) - Multidrug resistant strains are emerging from E. Faecium and are referred to as VRE |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special about Vancomycin? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Powerful gram positive coverage for resistant organisms - Not as effective as anti-staphylococcal penicillins - Potential to select for VRE - Oral agent for C. Difficile - Dosed 1g IV q8-12h or 15mg/kg IV q12h |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Quinupristin/Dalfopristin |  | Definition 
 
        | - Approved for Vancomycin resistant E. Faecium - Active against MRSA, MSSE, Streptococci spp. - Only mix with D5W - Monitor for myalgia and arthralgia, may cause increase in LFT's. - 7.5mg/kg q8h, no renal issues, does not penetrate CNS |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some common side effects of Linezolid? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Serotonin Syndrome - Thrombocytopenia and anemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | - Creates channels that rapidly depolarize the bacterial membrane.  Rapidly bacteriacidal - Active against MRSA, VRE - Gram positive organisms only - 4-6 mg/kg qd - Skin and skin structure infections - Skeletal muscle toxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What's special about Tigecycline? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Drug class Glycylcycline, which are Tetracycline analogs - Activity against multi-drug resistant acinetobacter spp. - Evades Tet (A-E,K) efflux pumps  - Not active against MDR effluxes, which are in Pseudonomas and Proteus - 100mg x 1 dose, then 50mg IV q12h   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What's special about ceftobiprole? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Activity like Cefepime but also covers MRSA   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which special drugs have long half-lives, and thus can be given once a week? |  | Definition 
 
        | Stenavancin, Telavancin, Oritavancin, Ranbezolid, Dalbavancin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special about Aminoglycosides? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Very active against Pseudonomas, action goes A > T> G - Need aerobic environment for uptake - Excellent in sepsis Never monotherapy except for UTI - Nephrotoxic in eldery, dehydration, long therapy, and concomittant NSAIDS, Cyclosporine, Vancomcyin, amphoterericin B, Furosemide - Vestibular and auditory ototoxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special about Fluoroquinolones? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Similar gram negative coverage - Levofloxacin biggest spectrum, improved gram positive coverage - Indicated for Staph and Pseudonomas - Cover atypicals such as Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Ricketssia, Legionela - Cipro for res. UTI, infectious diarrhea, dosed BID.  Levo dosed once a day, used for MDR TB.   - Primary side effects tendinitis and tendon rupture, cipro least likely for QT problems, Gatifloxacin most likely for blood sugar problems |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name some examples of Atpyical bacteria |  | Definition 
 
        | - Chlamydia - Mycoplasma (M. Pneumonia, M. Hominis, M. Feremetans) - Legionella (severe L. Pneumophila) - Rickettsia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special regarding Macrolides? |  | Definition 
 
        | - All have P450 interactions with the exception of Azithromycin - In terms of dosing, goes E -> C -> A (A is dosed once a day) -  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special regarding Azithromycin? |  | Definition 
 
        | - 60 hours half-life - Gram (+), so Strep.  Throat - Not for UTI's, but OK for STD's - 2gm po for GC - 1gm po for chlamydia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What's special regarding Tetracyclines? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Doxycycline used for CAP and some atypicals - Minocycline used for acne |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special regarding Metronidazole? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Gram (-) anaerobic activity - Drug of choice for C. Difficile - Metalic taste, peripheral neuropathy, avoid alcohol. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special regarding Clindamycin? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Lincosamide - Gram (-) anaerobe activity - Decent for MSSA and MRSA - can lead to pseudomembranous collitis - Excellent bone, but NOT CNS, penetration |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special regarding Bactrim? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Broad Spectrum - Good with MRSA - OK for second trimester - Best prophylaxis for PCP (Pneumocystic something Pneumonia) and Toxoplasmosis - Cheap |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special regarding Nitrofurantoin? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Only for UTI's - Includes VRE-cystitis, urethritis - Contraindicated at 38-42 weeks gestation - Precautions in lung problems, peripheral neuropathy, and false positive urine glucose tests |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special about Colistin? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Polymixin E either IV or inhalation - For managing multi-resistant Pseudomonas - For cystic fibrosis patients - 1 Mu (33mg) by neb. bid x 90 days - Nephrotoxicity associated with IV route  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special about Fosphomycin? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Single 3 gram dose to be dissolved in water - Preg. category B - Broad spectrum and good with certain strains of Pseudomonas |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Lowest antimicrobial concentration that prevents visible growth of an organism after 24 hours of incubation in a specific growth media |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does MIC NOT account for? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Time course of an antimicrobial therapy - Rate of bacterial kill - Dose-kill response relationship - Post-Antibiotic Effect |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which classes of antibiotics are capable of concentration-dependent killing, and which ones are time dependent? |  | Definition 
 
        | Fluoroquinolones and Aminoglycosides - Concentration dependent, maximize exposure   Carbapenems, Cephalosporins, and Penicillins - Time dependent, optimize duration of exposure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the optimal Cmax:MIC ratio of Aminoglycosides? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which has a higher probability of toxicity in aminoglycoside dosing.....ODA or TD? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Traditional dosing, as opposed to once daily dosing |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which, according to a new study, would be the most effective therapy for Community-acquired Pneumonia.  Levofloxacin 500mg x 10 days, or Levofloxacin 750mg x 5 days |  | Definition 
 
        | Levofloxacin 750mg x 5 days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are three ways to maximize T > MIC in Beta Lactam drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Increase dosing frequency (shorten interval) - Increase duration of infusion - Select agent with lower MIC's |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some Key Concepts in Aminoglycoside Therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1.  Typically used in combination with other gram (-) and gram (+) antibiotics 2.  Dosing intervals are depedent on renal function 3.  Nephrotoxicity typically increases after 5 days of therapy 4.  Renal function is confounded by age, weight, Scr when using Cockcroft-Gault 5.  Aminoglycoside PK are highly variable 6.  Blood samples for concentration determination must be drawn post-distribution 7.  TD means low peak concentrations and detectable troughs 8.  HDODA refers to relatively high peak concentrations and undetectable concentrations after 24h |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you find the T 1/2 ? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you find the Vd in non-obese patients? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 
How do you find the Vd in obese patients (> 30% above IBW)? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 
nVd = 0.3 L/kg (IBW) + 0.1 (TBW-IBW)  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        |   
  
How do you find the Vd in patients with a 3rd space? (edema, ascites, etc.)?     |  | Definition 
 
        |  Vd = 0.3 L/kg (IBW) + 1 L/kg    
   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        |   How do you find the Vd in  obese patients with a 3rd space? (edema, ascites, etc.)?   |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 
nVd = 0.3 L/kg (IBW) + 0.1 (TBW-IBW) + 1 L/kg   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you estimate clearance? |  | Definition 
 
        | 
 
nElimination (Clearance) 
 nCLcr = (140-age) X weight (IBW) (X 0.85 female)  72 X SCr 
 IBW = 50 + (2.3 X #” above 5’) – males  IBW = 45 + (2.3 X #” above 5’) – females 
 *Use ABW if patient is obese (IBW + 0.4(TBW-IBW))  Assume that CL= CLCr 
 nKe = 0.01 + (0.003 X CLcr) or CL / Vd  nT1/2= 0.693/Ke or (0.693 x Vd)/CL  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Complete the following calculations: IBW, TBW, CL, Vd, and T 1/2.   Patient: 73 yo male, SCr= 1.4 mg/dL, 5’8”, 180 lbs |  | Definition 
 
        |   nIBW= 50 + 2.3 • (68-60)= 68.4 kg nTBW= 180/2.2 =81.8 Kg n(TBW/IBW)= 1.2 (20% above IBW) 
 nVd= 0.3 L/kg • (68.4 kg)= 20.5 L nCL= (140-73 )• (68.4)/ (72 • 1.4)= 45.5 mL/min = 2.73 L/hr nT½ = 0.693•20.5/2.73  = 5.2 hours |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the goal of the Peak:MIC relationship in regards to Fluoroquinolones and Aminoglycosides? |  | Definition 
 
        | Plasma concentration greater than or equal to 10-12 times the MIC |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long is the PAE in Aminoglycosides, and when is it enhanced/effective? |  | Definition 
 
        | - PAE of 1-8 hours for Pseudonomas and most enterobacteria - Enhanced by Beta-Lactam drugs - Enhanced by high concentration and long exposure - PAE tends to be shorter in neutropenic animal models - Minimal PAE against Gram (+) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do aminoglycosides develop resistance to antimicrobials? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Transient, reversible resistance that develops within 1-2 hours after dosing and disappears within 8 hours after removal of antibiotic - Results from down-regulation of aminoglycoside uptake during the rapid energy-dependent phase of drug uptake (EDP-II) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What three toxicities are associated with Aminoglycoside use, and how can this be reduced? |  | Definition 
 
        | Toxicities: Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity, Neuromuscular Blockade Strategies: HDODA dosing, reduces nephrotoxicity.  For Ototoxicity, immediately stop therapy.  Give HDODA over 1 hour of infusion to reduce neuromuscular blockade, and treat with IV Calcium Gluconate. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What could exclude a patient from HDODA dosing? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Clearance of < 40ml/min - Enterococcus Infections - Spinal Cord Injury - Burn patients - Meningitis   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does the dosing of Amikacin differ from Tobramycin or Gentamycin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dose should be 4-5x greater than Tobramycin or Gentamycin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the initial aminoglycoside dose for an HDODA patient as opposed to a TD patient? |  | Definition 
 
        | HDODA: 4-7 mg/kg TD: 1-2 mg/kg |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How (or when) should you monitor Aminoglycoside therapy in a TD patient? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Draw levels after steady state (4-5 Half-lives or 3rd dose) - Draw levels 1 hour after end of infusion (peak) and prior to next dose (trough) - If peak is too high, reduce the dose, if trough is too high, reduce the interval   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How (or when) should you monitor Aminoglycoside therapy in an HDODA patient? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Levels should be drawn off the first dose, steady state will not be achieved in this case - Levels should be drawn >2 hours after end of infusion (alpha phase) - Second level should be drawn 10-12 hours after end of infusion - Levels do NOT reflect peak and trough (must be extrapolated) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | For either HDODA or TD, when do levels need to be repeated? |  | Definition 
 
        | Not unless..........   -Scr increases by >0.5mg/dl or 50% from baseline - Last levels are obtained >7 days - Patient's dynamic status is constantly changing |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Peak a good predictor of?   What is Trough a good predictor of?   (for Aminoglycoside therapy) |  | Definition 
 
        | Peak: Efficacy   Troughs: Renal Toxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If a patient is renally impaired, what kind of aminoglycoside therapy should they be on (TD or HDODA)? |  | Definition 
 
        | TD therapy, only once a day (this is not HDODA) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If a patient is on Hemodialysis, how should they be dosed? |  | Definition 
 
        | Aminoglycosides will be removed, and should be dosed ~ 1-2mg/kg after each dialysis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is important in regards to Vancomycin's absorption? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Used orally for Clostridium Difficile infections - Abs. not clinically significant in most cases - More significant with prolonged therapy and reduced kidney function |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | For Vancomycin, how long is the alpha and beta phase, what does this effect, and how does the drug distribute? |  | Definition 
 
        | Alpha phase - 0.5-1 hour Beta Phase - 2-20 hours   - The alpha phase can be further prolonged with renal failure, and thus makes it hard to find a true peak.    - The Vd varies from 0.5-1 L/kg, with the average being 0.7 L/kg.    - There is poor distribution to the CNS and bone matrix, and protein binding varies from 10-80% |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the metabolism and renal clearance of Vancomycin? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Small % is metabolized, ~7% - Vancomycin is both filtered and secreted renally.  - As renal function deteriorates, Vancomycin clearance decreases |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the pharmacodynamic properties of Vancomycin in regards to its activity? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Concentration dependent killing, maxed at 4 x MIC - PAE minimal - Slowly bactericidal - AUC/MIC  ratio of 400 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the medical community's thoughts on Vancomycin and nephrotoxicty? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Vancomycin nephrotoxicty was considered to be infrequent and reversible - Co-administration with aminoglycosides could increase risk of nephrotoxicity - No CLEAR relationship between exposure and nephrotoxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | According to the 2005 ATS and IDSA Guidelines, what is the standard dose of Vancomycin for hospital-acquired pneumonia (MRSA) |  | Definition 
 
        | 15 mg/kg IV q12 hours   Aim for trough concentrations of 15-20 mcg/ml |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do Vancomycin concentrations differ in Serum and Lungs? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Vancomycin does not penetrate well into lung tissue - 1g dose of Vancomycin does not achieve sustained lung concentrations > MIC for suscpetible staphlococci over a 12h dosing interval |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the recent trend in Vancomycin therapy, and possible consequences |  | Definition 
 
        | - Recent guidelines recommend trough concentrations of 15-20 mg/L - This has been adopted by many clinicians, irrespective of infection source - Toxicity is unknown, but recent studies show a strong correlation between higher  trough correlations and nephrotoxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the risk of Ototoxicity in Vancomycin therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | - No ototoxicity in animal models - Confounding factors, Mississippi Mud formulation, and limited serum data leads to unreliable data in human studies - Does appear to increase risk when added to aminoglycosides |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the problem with interpatient variability in Vancomycin therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Vd and Cl is highly variable, even in healthy patients. - In those with altered renal function, volume status, or the morbidly obese, the parameters are even more variable |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | At the VA (where Pai works?), how do they initiate Vancomycin therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Infuse slowly over 1 hour to reduce the incidence of redman syndrome - Peaks not necessary to monitor - Maintain trough levels of 10-20 mg/L (according to the 15-20 mg/L principle) - Sample blood 1 hour or less before next dose (which would be the trough) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How would you go about initiating your own Vancomycin regimen? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Use the Vancomycin nomogram to find the dose - If clearance or weight is in between boxes, round - If a patient's Cl < 30 ml/min, do 1 x 20mg/kg dose, then check a random level in 48 hours - Redose when levels are below 15 mcg/ml (or 15 mg/L) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How would one calculate the Vancomycin Ke? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ke= 0.0044 + (CrCl x 0.00083) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How would one calculate Vd in regards to Vancomycin? |  | Definition 
 
        |   Vd= 0.6-0.7 L/kg x total body weight |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the gram positive normal skin flora? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Staph. Epidermis - Staph. Aureus - Streptococcus spp. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the gram negative normal skin flora? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the Diphtheroid Normal Skin Flora? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Corynebacterium spp. - Propionbacterium spp. - Peptostreptococcus spp. - Bacillus spp. - Micrococcus spp.   *BMC PP |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the yeast normal skin flora? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Pityrosporum ovale - Candida spp. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What area of the body has the most normal skin flora, and what colonizes it? |  | Definition 
 
        | Face and neck have highest bacterial density, which is Staph. Epidermis.   The groin area and other moist regions are mostly colonized by gram negative bacilli |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two classes of skin and soft tissue infections? |  | Definition 
 
        | Primary - Single pathogen, area of previously healthy skin   Secondary - Polymicrobial, previously damaged skin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name the primary skin and soft tissue infections |  | Definition 
 
        | - Erysipelas - Impetigo - Lymphangitis - Cellulitis - Necrotizing Fascitiis Type I and II   *LICEN (Underworld anyone?) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name the secondary skin and soft tissue infections |  | Definition 
 
        | - Diabetic Foot Infections - Pressure Sores - Bite wounds, both animal and human |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What organisms are responsible for the primary skin infections? |  | Definition 
 
        | GAS by itself - Erysipelas, Type II Necrotizing Fascitiis GAS/S. Aureus - Impetigo, Lymphangitis, Cellulitis Anaerobes/GAS - Type I Necrotizing Fascitiis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What organisms are responsible for secondary infections that are diabetic foot infections or pressure sores? |  | Definition 
 
        | S. Aureus, Streptococcus, Anaerobes, Pseudonomas |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What organisms are responsible for animal and human bite wounds? |  | Definition 
 
        | S. Aureus and Streptococci are found in both.  The differences......   Animal Bite - Pasteurella Multocida, Bacteroids spp. (We pasteurize animal milk to get rid of bacteria I guess) Human Bite - Eikenella Corrodens, Corynebacterium spp., anaerobes (Eiks! Cory bit Anna!) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Erysipelas, and how would you recognize it? |  | Definition 
 
        | - St. Anthony's fire - Superficial cellulitis with lymphatic involvement  - Effects infants, young children, elderly, those with nephrotic syndrome - Usually lower extremities and face - Caused by GAS (Strep. Pyogenes) - Bright red lesion, edematous, indurated (hardened), painful, accompanied by fever and leukocytosis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for Erysipelas? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Penicillin VK 500mg q6h x 7-10 days - If serious, use Penicillin G - If allergic rxn, use erythromycin   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is cellulitis, and how is it presented? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Infection of  the epidermis and dermis, may spread to superficial fascia - Inflammation with little or no necrosis - Caused by GAS/S. Aureus, H. Influenzae in infants, GBS in newborns, S. Epidermidis in immunocompromised pts. - Erythema and edema of the skin (painful, hot, poorly defined) - Lymphadenopathy - Malaise, fever, chills - Elevated WBC - H/O minor trauma/abrasion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the complications of Cellulitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Bacteremia (30%) - Abscess - Thrombophlebitis - Septic Arthritis - Osteomyelitis   *You'll go BATSO with all the complications |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the nonpharmacologic treatments of cellulitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Elevation, immobilization - Cool saline dressings and moist heat |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the pharmacologic treatments of mild, simple cellulitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Dicloxacillin 500 mg po q6h - Cephalexin 500mg PO QID - Erythromycin 500 mg po q6h - Azithromycin 500 mg PO QD  - Clarithromycin 500 mg po q12h - Amoxicillin/clavulanate 875/125 mg po bid or 500/125 mg po tid  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the pharmacologic treatments of moderate-severe, simple cellulitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Nafcillin/Oxacillin IV 2g q4h - Cefazolin 2g IV q8h |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the pharmacologic treatments of moderate-severe, simple cellulitis in which MRSA is the suspected pathogen? |  | Definition 
 
        | Vancomycin, Daptomycin, Linezolid, Tigecycline x 7-10 days, as with the others |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        |   Often, Cellulitis can progress to a polymicrobial infection if the patient is diabetic, or if surgical wounds are involved.  If this were a mild case, which regimen would we use? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Amoxicillin/Clav or... - Fluoroquinolone (Levo, Moxi, Gati, Cipro) + Clindamycin or Metronidazole   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Often, Cellulitis can progress to a polymicrobial infection if the patient is diabetic, or if surgical wounds are involved.  If this were a moderate-severe case, which regimen would we use? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Ampicillin combined with Gentamycin, Clindamycin, or metronidazole - Imipenem or Meropenem - Ampicillin/Sulbactam - Piperacillin/Tazobactam - FQ with Clindamycin or metronidazole |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a Necrotizing soft tissue infection, where can it infect, and what are predisposing factors? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Highly lethal infection! - Can occur on abdomen, perineum, or lower extremities - Diabetes, local trauma or infection, and recent surgery are all predisposing factors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the difference between a type I and type II Necrotizing infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | Type I - Slow onset, post surgery/trauma, gas gangrene Type II - Flesh eating, rapid spread to severe sepsis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the treatments for Necrotizing Fascitiis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Surgery! - If Type I....... 1.  Ampicillin combined with gentamycin, clindamycin, or metronidazole 2.  Imipenem or Meropenem 3.  Ampicillin/Sulbactam 4.  Piperacillin/Tazobactam 5.  Fluoroquinolones with clindamycin or metronidazole - If Type II...... 1.  Penicillin or Nafcillin/Oxacillin with or without Clindamycin     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How common are Diabetic foot infections, and what are predisposing factors? |  | Definition 
 
        | - 20% of all diabetic hospitalizations - 25% of all diabetics will experience a significant soft tissue infection - 50% of all non-trauma related amputations - Predisposing factors include: Neuropathy, PVD, Immunologic effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the presentation of a Diabetic foot infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Clinical s/s may NOT be present - Osteomyelitis could result in 30-40% of the infections - Could present as deep abscesses (arch of foot or on toes), cellulitis of dorsum (top of foot), or Mal perforans ulcers (sole of foot) - Could lead to necrotizing cellulitis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some significant points of Diabetic foot infection treatments? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Must cover gram (+), gram (-), and anaerobes! - Surgery is often required - Mild, superficial lesions (10%) of cases, only have minimal drainaged and gangrene.  So an oral agent can be used - 90% of cases, which are severe, and have systemic symptoms, require IV drugs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are oral agents to be used for Diabetic Foot infections (S. Aureus and GAS)? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Clindamycin 300mg QID - Cephalexin 500mg QID - Amox/Clav 500/125 q8h or higher strength q12h - Fluoroquinolones can be used, but should be combined with clindamycin or metronidazole |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What treatments should be used in Diabetic foot infections that are severe, but neither non-limb or life threatening? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Ampicillin/Sulbactam - Piperacillin/Tazo - Clindamycin with a gram (-) drug (3rd gen. Ceph, FQ, or Aztreonam) - Any of the above plus Vancomycin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What treatments should be used in Diabetic foot infections that are severe, and are limb AND life-threatening? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Imipenem - Meropenem - Piperacillin/Tazo - Any of the above plus Vancomycin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the three ways in which Osteomyelitis can enter bone? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Hematogenous (Bloodstream) - Contiguous (Adjoining soft-tissue) through direct innoculation, trauma, puncture wounds, etc. - Vascular insufficiency - Additionally, the disease can be either acute or chronic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the ages, sites involved, and risk factors for a hematogenous path to osteomyelitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | < 1 --> Long bones and Joints --> Prematurity, umbilical catheter/venous cutdown, ARDS   1-20 --> Long bones (Femur, Tibia, Mandible) --> Respiratory infection, sickle cell disease, puncture wounds to feet   >50 --> Vertebrae --> DM, blunt trauma to spine, UTI |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the ages, sites involved, and risk factors for a contiguous path to osteomyelitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | > 50 --> Femur, tibia, mandible --> Hip fractures, open fractures |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the ages, sites involved, and risk factors for a vascular insufficient path to osteomyelitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | > 50 --> Feet, toes --> DM, PVD, Pressure sores |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the organisms responsible for neonatal hematogenous osteomyelitis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the organisms responsible for hematogenous osteomyelitis in children < 5 years of age? |  | Definition 
 
        | S. Aureus, GBS, H. Influenzae Type B |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the organisms responsible for hematogenous osteomyelitis in children > 5 years of age and adults? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the pathology and etiology of contiguous Osteomyelitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Direct entrance of organisms from a source outside the body - Progressive spread of an infection from tissue to adjacent bone (fingers, toes, jaw) - Most common in adults > 50 with predisposing factors such as PVD, atherosclerossis, DM - Most common cause is S. Aureus - Vascular insuffiencies could lead to polymicrobial infections, in which case Gram (-) bacilii, Pseudomonas, anaerobes, and Gram (+) could all be involved |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the s/s of hematogenous osteomyelitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Tenderness of the infected area - Pain and swelling - Fever and chills - Decrease motion - Malaise |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the s/s of vertebrae-related osteomyelitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Non-specific symptoms - Back pain - Fever or night sweats - Low-grade fever   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the s/s of contiguous osteomyelitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Dependent upon precipitating cause - Pain at infected area - Systemic manifestations (fever, leukocytosis) - Localized tenderness - Warmth and edema - Erythema over the infection site |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In osteomyelitis, what would a radiologic scan of the area reveal? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Nothing, if done within 10-14 days of the onset of infection - 50% of the bone matrix must be removed before the lesions can even be detected - If a bone or CT scan is done, it can be detected 1 day after the onset of infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the "gold standard" of microbiologic findings in osteomyelitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bone aspiration --> gram stain and culture |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In terms of microbiologic findings in osteomyelitis, what other method, other than a bone aspiration, would be highly reliable? |  | Definition 
 
        | Specimen from undrained or unopened wound abscess   Anything from an open would or draining sinus would be contaminated |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Approach to treatment for osteomyelitis |  | Definition 
 
        | - Surgical debridement and drainage to get rid of reservoirs - Start ASAP - Maximize bone penetration - Prolong duration, 4-6 weeks in most cases |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If a newborn had an osteomyelitis infection, what would be the most likely pathogen and treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pathogen:  S. Aureus, Streptococcus, E. Coli Treatment:  Semi-synthetic penicillin plus aminoglycoside or cefotaxime |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If a child of 1-5 years of age had an osteomyelitis infection, what would be the most likely pathogen and treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pathogen:  S. Aureus, HIB, Streptococci Treatment:  Cefuroxime (not vaccinated against HIB), semi-synthetic penicillin, or cefazolin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If a child greater than 5 years of age had an osteomyelitis infection, what would be the most likely pathogen and treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pathogen:  S. Aureus Infection:  Cefazolin or semi-synthetic penicillin (nafcillin) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If an IVDU patient had an osteomyelitis infection, what would be the most likely pathogen and treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pathogen:  S. Aureus, Pseudomonas Treatment:  Cefazolin or semi-symthetic penicillin PLUS ceftazidime or Piperacillin/Tazo |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If a patient with vascular insufficiency had an osteomyelitis infection, what would be the most likely pathogen and treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pathogen:  GPC, GNB, maybe anaerobes Treatment:  Cefazolin or semi-synthetic penicillin plus Clindamycin, plus Ceftazidime or Piperacillin/Tazo |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the criteria for oral outpatient therapy in an osteomyelitis infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Confirmed Osteomyelitis - Organism identified and sensitivities determined - suitable oral agent available - compliance assured   Suitable Candidates:  Children (penicillinase resistant penicillins, cephalosporins, clindamycin); Adults w/o DM or PVD (Gram (-) osteomyelitis, cipro or levo preferred) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the etiology of infectious arthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Monoarticular vs. Polyarticular joint involvement - Hematogenous (most common), contiguous, and direct innoculation mechanisms - Mostly in patients > 16 years of age |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Besides hematogenous, what are other routes of entry for infectious arthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Deep penetrating wound - Intra-articular injections - Arthroscopy - Prosthetic joint surgery - Contiguous Osteomyelitis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the pathophysiology of infectious arthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bacteremia --> Access into join/synovial tissue --> multiple organism, purulent effusion within joint --> Leukocyte enzyme activity --> Permanent cartilage and bone damage |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the organisms responsible for infectious arthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | Most common - S. Aureus Less Common - E. Coli, Streptococcus Sexually active - N. Gonorrhoeae IVDU - S. Aureus and Pseudomonas Neonatal - S. Aureus, Streptococcus, Gram (-), H. Influenzae Type B |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the presentation of Non-Gonococcal Infectious Arthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Single joint involvement of knee, shoulder, wrist, hip, ankle, elbow - S/S include fever, elevated WBC, Hot swollen joint - Initial synovial WBC count is > 100,000 - Blood culture is + >50% |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the presentation of Gonococcal Infectious Arthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Migratory Polyarthralgia - Fever - Dermatitis (small papules on trunk/extremities) - Tenosynovitis (inflammation of the tendon sheath) - 30-40% present with hot, swollen, purulent joint (Initial synovial WBC count <50,000) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the laboratory/microbiologic findings associated with Infectious Arthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Elevated ESR and WBC - Aspiration of joint fluid yields WBC count between 50-200k, low glucose (<40mg/dL) - Gram stain and culture of synovial fluid (Non-gonococcal >> gonococcal) - Blood cultures ( " ") |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the non-pharmacological and pharmacological treatments for infectious arthritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - If gonococcal --> Ceftriaxone 1g IV qd x 7-10 days - If non-gonococcal, exact same treatment as osteomyelitis, depending on organism - Joint drainage daily for 5-7 days (open drainage?) - Joint rest |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is SIRS and how does it manifest itself? |  | Definition 
 
        | SIRS stands for Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome and has multiple characteristics including...... - T > 38 Celsius (100.4F) or <36 Celsius (96.8F) - HR > 90 beats/min - RR > 20 breaths/min or PaCO2 < 32 torr - WBC > 12,000 cells/mm3, <4,000 cells/mm3, or 10% immature (band?) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | The SIRS secondary to infection, when there is a known or suspected infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Sepsis with signs of organ dysfunction in 1 or more of the following systems: - Cardiovascular - Renal - Respiratory - Hepatic - Hemostasis - CNS - Unexplained metabolic acidosis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Sepsis with hypotension, despite fluid resuscitation, along with the presence of perfusion abnormalities.  Patients who are on inotropic or vasopressor agents may not be hypotensive at the time perfusion abnormalities are measured |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | This stands for Multiple Organ Dysfunction Syndrome, and is classified as the presence of altered organ function requiring intervention to maintain homeostasis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Compensatory Anti-inflammatory Response Syndrome is a physiologic response to SIRS that is considered secondary to the actions of anti-inflammatory cytokine mediators |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some causes of non-infectious SIRS? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Tissue injury - Malignancy - Neurologic injury - Metabolic abnormalities - Therapy (?) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the etiology of SIRS? |  | Definition 
 
        | - 90% bacterial in origin - Gram (+): S. Aureus, S. Epidermis, S. pneumoniae, E. Faecalis - Gram (-): E. Coli, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas - Other causes, such as fungi - Organism only identified in ~ 50% of cases |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the biochemical events of Sepsis |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the signs of early sepsis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Fever or hypothermia - Rigor, chills - Tachypnea - N/V - Hyperglycemia - Myalgias - Proteinuria - Hypoxia - Leukocytosis - Hyperbilirubinemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the signs of late sepsis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Lactic Acidosis - Oliguria - Leukopenia - DIC - Myocardial depression - Pulmonary edema - Hypotentension (shock) - Azotemia - Thrombocytopenia - ARDS - GI Hemorrhage - Coma |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sepsis can often lead to organ failure in the following: Brain, Lungs, Kidneys, Heart, Liver, GI   What are the consequences of each? |  | Definition 
 
        | Brain - altered mental status to coma Lungs - respiratory stress syndrome Kidneys - Oliguria, acute tubular necrosis Heart - Ventricular Failure Liver - Hepatocyte dysfunction GI - Increased Gut Permeability |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Innapppropriate initiation of clotting - Clotting factor and platelet consumption - Activation of Fibrinolytic Pathways - Hemorrhage |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the main priorities in the treatment of Septic Shock? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Maintain vascular volume and circulation - Support of vial organs (e.g, ventilation) - Resolve source of infection - Hemodynamic and physiologic monitoring |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the primary goals of septic shock therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Timely diagnosis and identification of pathogens - Rapid elimination of the source of infection - Early initiation of aggresive antimicrobial therapy - Interruption of pathogenic sequence leading to septic shock - Avoidance of organ failure  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the key pieces of information needed in the diagnosis and identification of organisms in Septic Shock? |  | Definition 
 
        | - HPI - PE - Culture!!:  2 sets of Blood cultures, urine culture, sputum - Labs:  CBC, Chemistry 7, Coagulation parameters, arterial blood gas, serum lactate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the most common sites of infection involved with septic shock? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1.  Lung 2.  Bacteremia 3.  Abdominal 4.  Soft Tissue 5.  G-U |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When eliminating the source of the infection in septic shock, what steps must be taken? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Surgery - Catheter or foreign body removal - Drainage of abscess - Debridement of dead/necrotic tissue |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In treatment of septic shock, what is your empiric antibacterial selection like? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Broad - Prompt - Maximize Pharmacodynamics:  Enhance killing and likelihood of positive outcome, minimize potential for toxicity, prevent development of resistance   *Delayed treatment has been linked with higher incidence of mortality |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In terms of sepsis, name treatments for both the community-acquired and hospital-acquired forms of a UTI infection |  | Definition 
 
        | CA:  Cipro or Levo HA:  3rd Gen celphalosporin, Cipro, Levo   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In terms of sepsis, name treatments for both the community-acquired and hospital-acquired forms of a respiratory infection |  | Definition 
 
        | CA:  Ceftriaxone + either Clarithromycin, Azithromycin, or Fluoroquinolone (Levo, Moxi, or Gemi)   HA:  Piperacillin or Cefipime + Tobramycin or Cipro |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In terms of sepsis, name treatments for both the community-acquired and hospital-acquired forms of an Intra-Abdominal infection |  | Definition 
 
        | CA:  Amp/Sulbactam, or Ciprofloxacin + Metronidazole   HA:  Piperacillin/Tazo or Carbapenem |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In terms of sepsis, name treatments for both the community-acquired and hospital-acquired forms of a Skin/Soft Tissue infection |  | Definition 
 
        | CA:  Vancomycin or Linezolid or Daptomycin   HA:  Amp/Sulbactam or Carbapenem |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In terms of sepsis, name treatments for both the community-acquired and hospital-acquired forms of a cather-related infection |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In terms of sepsis, name treatments for both the community-acquired and hospital-acquired forms of an unknown infection |  | Definition 
 
        | Piperacillin/Tazo or Cefipime or Iminpenem/Meropenem + Gentamicin + Vancomycin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In regards to the antimicrobial therapy for Sepsis that was just reviewed, how long is the duration? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Duration is 10-14 days - "Step Down" oral therapy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In terms of adjunctive therapy for Sepsis, name the hemodynamic, oxygen, and nutritional supports |  | Definition 
 
        | Hemodynamic:  Fluid therapy, Vasopressor Therapy, Inotropic therapy   Oxygen: Supplemental oxygen, Mechanical ventilation   Nutrional Support:  Increase protein, low carbs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the goals, agents, and complications of fluid support in septic shock? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Rapid fluid resuscitation is best initial intervention - Goal is to maximize CO by increasing LV preload through tissue perfusion - Titrate in regards to HR, BP, Urine output - Agents to use are isotonic crystalloids or colloids, with 0.9% NaCl most freq. used, pt. may require 10 L in first 24 hours |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When should inotropic and vasopressor therapy be initiated in sepsis patients, and what agents should be used? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Should be initiated when fluid resuscitation is inadequate - Inotropes control cardiac output (Dobutamine and Dopamine) - Vasopressors affect mean arterial pressure (Norepinephrine, PE, Epinephrine) - Dopamine is a less favorable choice b/c of tachycardia, myocardial ischemia, and infarction.  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the only promising immunotherapy treatment for use in Septic shock?  How does it work? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Activated Protein C (APC) - Anticoagulant that controls development of microthrombi - Inactivates factors Va and VIIIa - Enhances Fibrinolysis - Anti-inflammatory effects - Levels substantially decreased in sepsis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | In what APACHE group did APC show the greatest reduction in mortality in regard to septic shock? |  | Definition 
 
        | APACHE II:  25-30   APC:  23% Mortality Rate Placebo:  39% Mortality Rate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the most common pathogens that cause CNS infections? |  | Definition 
 
        | 80% of all bacterial meningitis cases are caused by S. Pneumoniae and N. Meningitidis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Describe the pathophysiology of a CNS infection.  What is colonized, and by what?  To what extent? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Mucosal Colonization of the fimbriae kind (H. Influenzae, N. Meningitidis) and polysaccharide (S. Pneumoniae) - Survives Intravascularly, about 103CFU/ml - Contains antigens - Invasion of Meningeal and subarachnoid space - Disruption of BBB |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the clinical presentation of Meningitis in adults compared to children? |  | Definition 
 
        | Adults:  HA, fever, stiff neck, (nuchal rigidity), photophobia, altered mental status, obtundation, seizures, vomitting   Children:  Lethargy, confusion, somnolence   Infants:  Irritability, altered sleep, vomitting, high pitched scream, decreased oral intake |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is the CSF examined, and what is different when Meningitis is present? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Lumbar puncture is performed - Flows unidirectional down the spinal cord - Infants 50 ml, Children 100 ml, Adults 150 ml - Normally clear, 50-60% of serum glucose, pH 7.4, and less than 5 wbc's per cubic mm - When infected, WBC count skyrockets to 400-100,000 per cubic mm, protein is 80-500 mg/dL, glucose is less than half of serum, differential is neutrophilic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are factors that improve antibiotic  penentration in Meningitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Low molecular weight - Non-ionized - Low protein bound - Lipophilic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the empiric regimens for Meningitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Ceftriaxone 2g IV q12h OR... - Cefotaxime 2g IV q6h + Vancomycin 1g IV q12h (use when incident of penicillin resistant S. Pneumoniae is > 5%) -  Therapy should be initiated within 30 minutes of presentation, continued for 48-72 hours - If neonate, eldery (>60 y/o), or alcoholic, add ampicillin 2g IV q4h, as there is an increased chance of Listeria Monocytogenes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When does Dexamethasone need to be administered?  Dose? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Needs to be administered before Antibiotics - Inhibits production of pro-inflammatory cytokines, namely TNF and IL-1 - Improves CSF parameters in bacterial meningitis - For Pediatric patients, 0.4mg/kg q12h x 2 days (may decrease hearing loss?) - Adult patients, 10mg q6h x 4 days (is this per kg?) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of organism is Neisseria Meningitis, and what do we use to treat it? |  | Definition 
 
        | - High dose Penicillin IV Penicllin G 200k-300k u/kg/day divided q4h x 7 days - Prophylaxis should be adminstered within 24 hours, Rifampin is drug of choice Adults: 600mg q12 hours x 4 doses Children 1 month -12 years: 10mg/kg q12h x 4 doses Children < 1 month: Half of the above dose |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of organism is Streptococcus Pneumonia, and how is it treated?? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Gram (+) Diplococcus - Most common cause of Meningitis in adults - Seen commonly in children - Treat with 3rd gen cephalosporin x 10-14 days - Use Cefotaxime 2g q4-6h, children 200 mg/kg q6h - Ceftriaxone 2g q12h, children 100mg/kg q12-24h - Vancomycin if resistant to b-lactams   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When should Pneumovax and Prevnar be used? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Pneumovax is over age of 2 - Prevnar if under age of 2 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of organism is H. Influenzae, and what is the treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Gram (-) Coccobacillus - Could manifest as a rash - 30-40% are ampicillin resistant - Use Ceftriaxone or Cefotaxime - For prophylaxis for adults, 600mg qd x 4 days.  In children over 1 month, 20mg/kg/d x 4 days.  If under 1 month, half this. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind  of an organism is L. Monocytogenes, and what is the treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Gram (+) bacillus - Effects neonates and immunocompromised people - DOC is IV Ampicillin 2g q4h x 14-21 days, for adults.  Children are 200-400 mg/kg/day divided q4-6h - Aminoglycoside 5-7 mg/kg/day x 10 days must be added to this |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Although an infrequent cause of Meningitis, what would be the treatment for Gram Negative Bacilii? |  | Definition 
 
        | - IV Ceftazidime plus Gentamicin x 3 weeks if Pseudonomas present - Adults 2g q8h - Children 150mg/kg/day divided q8h |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is cryptococcus neoformans, and how is it treated? |  | Definition 
 
        | - A yeast - From inhalation of spores -
AmB + 5-FC considered to be tx of choice, 2-4 weeks of induction therapy followed by fluconazole 400 mg QD for 4 weeks. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What organisms are responsible for an uncomplicated UTI? |  | Definition 
 
        | - E. Coli (85%) - S. Saprophyticus (5-15%) - Klebsiella Pneumonia, Proteus spp., Pseudomonas, and enterobacter (5-10%) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What organisms are responsible for complicated UTI's? |  | Definition 
 
        | - E. Coli (50%) - Klebsiella Pneumonia, Proteus spp., Pseudomonas, and enterobacter, staphylococci, enterococcus, Candida spp. - Enterococcus Faecilis (2nd most common HA UTI pathogen) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the clinical presentation of a lower UTI? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Dysuria - Urgency - Increased Frequency - Nocturia - Suprapubic Heaviness |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the clinical presentation of a Upper UTI? |  | Definition 
 
        | - More systemic - Includes Flank pain - Costovertebral tenderness - Abdominal pain - Fever - N/V - Malaise |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the diagnostic criteria for significant bacteriuria? |  | Definition 
 
        | - In a symptomatic female or catheterized patient, CFU's that exceed 102 or 103 
 - In an asymptomatic patient, CFU's that exceed 105 - Any growth of bacteria on suprapubic catheterization in a symptomatic patient |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is uncomplicated cystitis, the pathogen responsible, and the main treatment? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Most common form of UTI in women of child-bearing age or those sexually active - Pathogen responsible is mostly E. Coli (>90%),  but can be S. Saprophyticus - Treatment is 3 days, and is either bactrim DS BID, or Cipro (BID) or Levo (qd)250-500 mg |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for Acute Pyelonephritis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Same as acute cystitis, only treatment is for 14 days, as this could range from mild-moderate-severe |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How would you treat a pregnant woman for a UTI? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Try for at least 3 days - DOC Amoxicillin 500mg TID x 7 days, or same dose/dir. with Keflex - Avoid Tetracyclines and FQ's - Avoid Sulfonamides during 3rd Trimester - Follow up should be after 1-2 weeks of therapy and during regular intervals during gestation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long would you treat Complicated Cystitis for? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is significant about Catheterized patients and UTI's? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Most common cause of HA infection - Bacteria could be introduced straight into the bladder - Should be treated as a complicated UTI - Prevention is best way to treat |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is asymptomatic Bacteiuria? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Presence of significant bacteria in urine in absence of signs or symptoms of UTI - 2 consecutive urine cultures must must go same organism in about 1,000 CFU/ml. - Management in regards to age, pregnancy status, and planned urologic procedure must be taken into account |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What STD's are characterized by genital ulcers? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Genital Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) - Syphillis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What STD's are characterized by urethritis and cervicitis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Chlamydia Trachomatis - Neisseria Gonorrhoeae |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | - HHV 1 and HHV 2 - Lesions not present in everyone - 50% of first episode is HSV -1 - Viral becomes almost dormant at times, detection is tough - Genital shedding always occurs - 2 types of infection are first episode and recurrent infection, which requires episodic therapy and suppressive therapy - First clinical episode involves multiple painful lesions, pain and discomfort shedding and sx last a while - In recurrent episodes, symptoms are severe, shedding lasts 4 days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What it syphillis caused by, what are its symptoms, and what are the treatments? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Pathogen is Treponema Pallidum - Classified as primary, secondary, latent, or tertiary. - Primary is incubatin, secondary is 2-8 weeks, latent is 4-10 weeks, and tertiary is 10-30 years - As syphillus progresses, it becomes more noticeable systemically   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the preferred syphillus treatment for early, secondary, or early late phase? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Benzathine Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM X 1 dose - Follow up serology for primary/secondary is quantitative nontrepenomal tests at 6 and 12 months, while for early latent a 3rd test at 24 months is added |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the treatment for syphillis in the late latent stage? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Benzathine Penicillin G 2.4 million units IM x 1 dose per week x 3 weeks   - Quantitative nontrepenomals test at 6, 12, and 24 months |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the preferred treatment for neurosyphillis? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Aqueous procaine penicillin G 2.4 million units IM daily plus probenecid 500mg QID both x 10-14 days - Aqueous crystalline Penicillin G 18-24 million units IV divided every 4 hours x 10-14 days - CSF exam q6 months until normal |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If a syphillis patient is allergic to PCN, what treatment should be given? |  | Definition 
 
        | Primary, Secondary, Early latent - Doxy 100mg BID x 2 weeks, Tetracycline 500mg QID x 2 weeks.   If in late latent stage, give x 4 weeks |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | - Most frequently reporter - Obligate intracellular parasite --> endocervical for women, urethral for men - Sx are primarily discharge, for both genders can lead to Reiter's syndrome, Epididymitis for men and pelvic inflammatory disease for women - Azithromycin 1g po x 1 dose, or doxycycline 100mg bid x 7 days - If patient pregnant, Erythromycin base 500mg QID x 7 days, or Amoxicillin 500mg TID x 7 days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | - Caused by Neisseria Gonorrhoeae (gram negative diplococci) - Same as with previous STD, urethra for men and endocervical area for women, characterized by discharge - Treatment is Ceftriaxone 125mg IM (if pregnant also) once - Cefixime 400mg PO once is also option |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name the Most Common Gram Positive Bacteria |  | Definition 
 
        | S. Aureus (MSSA, MRSA, GISA), S. Pyogenes, Streptococcus Pneumoniae, Enterococcus Faecium (VRE, LR-VRE) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name the most common Gram (-) bacteria |  | Definition 
 
        | Pseudomonas Aeruginosa, Acinetobacter, Klebseilla   (Enterobacteriacea): E. Coli, Enterobacter, Citrobacter, Serratia, Proteus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in a pharyngitis infection? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in a Bronchitis, Otitis, or Acute Sinusitis infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | H. Influenzae, Strep. Pneumoniae, Moraxella Catarrhalis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in a chronic sinusitis infection? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in a epiglotitis infection? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in a CA Pneumonia infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | S. Pneumoniae, H. Influenzae, M. Catarrhalis, atypical organisms |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in a HA pneumoniae infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | S. Aureus, Pseudonomas, resistant gram (-) rods |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in a CA UTI infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | E. Coli, other gram (-) rods |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in a HA UTI infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | Resistant gram (-) rods, enterococci |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in a cellulitis infection? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in a IV Catheter site infection? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in a Surgical Wound infection? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in a diabetic ulcer infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | S. Aureus, Gram (-) aerobic rods, anaerobes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in an intra-abdominal infection? |  | Definition 
 
        | B. Fragilis, E. Coli, Enterococci |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most likely organism I would find in an osteomyelitis/septic arthritis infection? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special in regard to Penicillins? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Low cost - easy administration - Excellent tissue penetration - Favorable therapeutic index - Destroyed by b-lactamases - Besides allergic rxn, could cause neutropenia and thrombocytopenia, interstitial nephritis, autoimmune hemolytic anemia - Effective against GAS and it's sibs, Viridians Strep., and syphillis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special in regard to Aminopenicillins? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Like penicillins except a little more gram (-) coverage, better at enterococcus and listeria - Still sensitive to B-lactamases, not 100% reliable for E. Coli, Moraxella, H. Influenzae, and Gonorrhea - Amo absorbed better than Amp, so Amo only PO while Amp is both |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special about aminopenicillins with a b-lactamase inhibitor? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Increased coverage against b-lactamase producing organisms (S. Aureus, E. Coli, Klebsiella, anaerobes, bacteroids) - Good for polymicrobial infections - Amp/Sul has fixed concentration of 1.5 g - Augmentin has fixed conc. of Clav, but 250-750mg of Amox. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special about anti-pseudonomal penicillins? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Pseudonomas is particulary dangerous, grows easily, minimal nutrient requirements - Can present as Pneumonia, UTI, Osteomyelitis, Otitis, Endocarditis - Usually treated with two drugs - Have extended gram (-) coverage - Good anaerobic coverage - Destroyed by SOME b-lactamases (H. Influenzae, M. Catarrhalis   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special in regard to Ticarcillin and Piperacillin? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Less active than ampicillin against streptococcus and enterococcus - High NA+ content can cause a TICK in patients with renal and heart problems - Piperacillin has same G (+) coverage as Amp.  - Both are stable for continuous confusion - Piperacillin has the superior pseudonomas coverage |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special in regard to anti-pseudonomal penicillins with b-lactamase inhibitors? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Does not change pseudo coverage - Increases coverage of MSSA, H. Influenze, Klebsiella, bacteroids - Piper/Tazo is broadest spectrum   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is special in regard to Penicillinase resistant Penicillins? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Covers both coagulase positive and coagulase negative Staph. - No MRSA coverage - No dose adjustment for renal dysfunction for Nafcillin, monitor for LFT's and interstitial nephritis - Pretty much same for Oxacillin - |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the different mechanisms of antibiotic resistance? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Enzymatic inactivation - Efflux pumps - Changing in antibiotic binding site - Change in permeability - Mutations - Acquisition of DNA elements |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which microorganisms have Beta-Lactamase activity? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Gram (-) anaerobes, such as B. Fragilis - Gram (-) aerobes, such as H. Influenzae, M. Catarrhalis, E. Coli, Enterobacter, Klebsiella - MSSA |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which organisms acquire resistance through a change in protein binding site? |  | Definition 
 
        | - Streptococcus Pneumoniae - Enterococcus - MRSA |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which organisms use an efflux pump for resistance? |  | Definition 
 | 
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