| Term 
 
        | Which ion mediates phase 0 of the purkinje cells? Phase 1 Phase 2 Phase 3 Phase 4 |  | Definition 
 
        | [image] Phase 0: Na+ in Phase 1: K+ out Phase 2: Ca++ in Phase 3: K+ out (Ca in) Phase 4: Na and Ca in, K goes out |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does Class I do as a whole? |  | Definition 
 
        | Blocks Fast Na+ channels Local anesthetic effects Binds open or inactive state |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is dose dependent and which class is this referring to? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dose dependence: if HR increases, Class I can bind easily since more Na channels are in the open or inactivated state (which it binds best to). |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does class I affect Vmax and what does this in turn do to slope of phase 0 in AP of the PK cell? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decreases Vmax of depolarization Decrease the slope of phase 0 of PK AP |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does Class 1a bind to and how does it dissociate? |  | Definition 
 
        | Binds to open channels and dissociates slowly |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of Class 1a on PK and PM cell APs? |  | Definition 
 
        | PK cells: Decreases slope of phase 3 (blocking K channels too). This prolongs repolarization 
 PM cells: Decreases slope phase 4, so threshold for depolarization also increases [image] |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the Class 1a drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Quinidine Procainamide Disopyramide   (Pretty Darn Quick) or (Quit procrastinating in climing the pyramid) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Quinidine used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Supraventricular and ventricular arrhythmias |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Is it bad to use high doses of quinidine? If so, why? |  | Definition 
 
        | YES- can cause fatal arrhythmias, including Torsades de Pointes- prolonged QT interval |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What can increase the risk of Torsades de Pointes? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Chinconism and which drug can cause this? |  | Definition 
 
        | Quinidine can cause this   blurred vision, tinnitus, HA, disorientation and psychosis (antimuscarinic activity)   All these Sx occur after getting wasted at a loud concert (except psychosis maybe..)   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a SE of quinidine that is not cardiac related? What is the worry with this SE? |  | Definition 
 
        | Diarrhea   Worry is that by having so much diarrhea, you are crapping out all your K and can have hypokalemia and this may induce Torsades de Pointes. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is procainamide administered? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is procainamide used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | An alternative to quinidine for various ventricular and Supraventricular arrhythmias. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Explain the metabolism of Procainamide and why fast vs slow acetylation is so important. |  | Definition 
 
        | Procainamide-> NAPA (class III K+ blocker)-> enhances procainamide's effect on phase 3 repolarization (prolonging it further). |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Explain what happens if a patient has renal failure and is taking procainamide. How can you correct this? |  | Definition 
 
        | With renal failure, NAPA can accumulate and increase risk of Torsades de Pointes.   Give lower dose of Procainamide then |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If someone comes into the ER and needs rapid IV administration of Procainamide, what is wrong with this? |  | Definition 
 
        | Rapid IV administration can cause hypotension from ganglionic block |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE of procainamide? |  | Definition 
 
        | Depression Hallucination Psychoses  Arrhythmias (PHAD- Procainamide was a "phad" until ppl realized that the crazy SE) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is disopyramide used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ventricular and supraventricular arrhtymias |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE of Disopyramide drug? |  | Definition 
 
        | Anti-muscarinic activity: Constipation Urinary retention Blurred vision dry mouth (Poop, pee, see, salivate) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does disopyramide do the contractility? What should you be careful about? |  | Definition 
 
        | It decreases myocardial cotractility despite having anti-muscarinic activity. This can lead to Heart Failure so beware if pt has pre-existing LV dysfunction. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a condition with the eye that patients taking disopyramide should beware of? |  | Definition 
 
        | Glaucoma It narrows the __?__ angle and increases the pressure.   (I don't know name..) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A diabetic pt comes into hospital also taking Disopyramide, what is your worry? |  | Definition 
 
        | Diabetics taking oral hypoglycemics should beware if on disopyramide bc can decrease blood glucose more because it increases insulin release (blocks sam Katp channels) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the main things to worry about if taking Dispyramide (summary)? |  | Definition 
 
        | Anti-muscarinic activity (poop, pee, see, salivate) Heart failure Glaucoma Diabetes (hypoglycemia)     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do class 1b bind to and how do they recover? |  | Definition 
 
        | open and inactivated, but prefer inactivated. Recover rapidly |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How are PK cells and PM cells affected in class 1b drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | PK cells: increases slope phase 3, thereby decreasing AP time and decreasing repolarization time   PM cells: Same as Class 1a Decreases phase 4 slope and increases threshold |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is lidocaine used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ventricular arrhtymias Also has local anesthetic effect |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why is lidocaine not used for atrial arrhythmias? |  | Definition 
 
        | Atrial APs are too short and channels aren't open long enough for lidocaine to penetrate   Atrial arrhythmias are usually not in ischemic tissues, which would be partly depolarized (more time spent in inactivated state)- ischemic tissue is ventricles and non-ischemic tissue is atrial |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How should lidocaine be administered? |  | Definition 
 
        | Slow IV because of extensive 1st pass metabolism.   Fast IV causes arrhythmias or seizure** |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE of lidocaine? |  | Definition 
 
        | nystagmus tremors slurred speech dysarthria altered consciousness |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is mexiletine used for?   How is it administered? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ventricular arrhythmias   Orally. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is phenytoin used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | ventricular and digoxin-induced arrhythmias   seizures |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What channels does phenytoin block? |  | Definition 
 
        | Blocks Na+ and some Ca++ influx. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE of phenytoin? |  | Definition 
 
        | Gingival hyperplasia Enzyme induction- drug interactions Hirsutism- give eflornithine (inhibits ornithine decarboxylase involved in hair growth) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does class 1c bind to and how it its recovery? |  | Definition 
 
        | Open channels   Recover is very slow |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some effects of class 1c having slow recovery?   What is this drug generally used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Makes these Rx more dangerous. Class 1c are associated with excessive mortality or non-fatal cardiac arrest.    Used for life threatening situations |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does Class 1c affect PM and PK cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | PK cells: decreases slope of phase 0, increasing time for depolarization   PM cells: Same as for Class 1a/1b: decr slope phase 4 and incr threshold |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the Class 1c drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Flecainide Propafenone   (Probably Free ;p) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the class 1b drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Lidocaine Mexiletine Phenytoin  (Please Lick Me!) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is flecainide used for?   How administered? |  | Definition 
 
        | Paroxysmal A-fib Paroxysmal SVT AV reentrant tachy other SVTs   Oral |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does Flecainide block? |  | Definition 
 
        | Na+ channels Ryanodine Ca channels in SR and prevents arrhthmogenic Ca rel from SR.   Useful if genetic defect in Ryanodine Ca channels whcih causes CA polymorphic ventr tachy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does propafenone block? |  | Definition 
 
        | Na channels Produces significant Beta block (Class II activity) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is propafenone used for and how is it administered? |  | Definition 
 
        | A-fib A-flutter paroxysmal SVT other ventricular arrhythmias   Oral |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is propafenone metabolized? |  | Definition 
 
        | CYP2D6   This is absent in 7% pts, so can exaggerate effects and toxicity (mostly GI) if pt doesn't have this |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of NE on heart? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1) incr cAMP->activate PKA->phosph a1 subunit of Ca channels->incr Ca++ influx->incr myocardial contractility   2)Phosph Troponin-> incr sensitivity of contractile prots to Ca   3)Facilitates Ca capture by ryanodine-R on SR-> incr Ca available for release   4)Incr Ca entry increases automaticity-> delayed after-depolarizations. Via the Na/Ca exchanger, one Ca moves out for every 3 Na moving in->net influx of 1 charge per exhange. *Beta blockers inhibit all this*       |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Beta blocker blocks which receptor that causes the therapeutic effects of antiarrhythmetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | B1- receptor that's on the heart    B2- on vasculature and bronchioles and no effect arrhythmias |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does Class II affect PK cells and PM cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | PK cells: NO EFFECT 
 PM cells: Phase 4 slope is decreased, so it takes longer to reach threshold (but threshold doesn't change) Phase 3 slope is decreased, prolonging repolarization -AP is wider [image] |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | WHat is the main goal of beta blockers? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decrease 02 demand on th heart by preventing the effects of endogenous CAs. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the non-selective beta blockers?   Which are the B1 selective beta blockers? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acebutalol   Propranolol (non selective)    Esmolol (APE- ooh ooh ahh ahh)   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is propranolol used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | It blocks b1 and b2.   Supraventricular arrhythmias  ventricular arrhythmias indcued by CAs digoxin-induced arrhtymias |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Decreases HR and contractility This decreases CO and leads to reflex vasoconstriction to maintain BP |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is an undesirable effect of propranolol |  | Definition 
 
        | Since it's non-selective, it also blocks B2 and leads to bronchoconstriction and causes resp crisis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is acebutaolol used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Premature ventricular contractions |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which Beta blocker has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acebutalol- limits its use   (think Acebutalol is kinda like ASSbutalol and it has ISA which if say fast sounds like an english person saying ASS) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is esmolol given? WHY? |  | Definition 
 
        | IV ONLY bc its rapidly metabolized by plasma esterases |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What other beta blockers ares used for arrhythmias but are not FDA approved? |  | Definition 
 
        | Metoprolol Atenolol Pindolol   (MAP)   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of blocking K channels? |  | Definition 
 
        | Inhibit K outward current and this prolongs the plateau and the AP.   This increases the refractory time and decreases risk of reentry, but increases risk of Torsades |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do Class III K blockers affect PK and PM cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | PK cells: decreases slope phase 3, prolongs repolarization (similar to class 1a)   PM cells: NO EFFECT |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the Class III drugs? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bretylium Amiodarone Dronedarone   Dofetilide Sotalol Ibutilide (BAD DIS- K)   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the affect of amiodarone? |  | Definition 
 
        | Has properties of all 4 classes: Class I: decr rate firing of pacemaker Class II: antagonism of beta receptors Class IV: AV block and bradycardia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which drug is linked with thyroid hormone? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amiodarone   It has I and is related to thyroid hormone. Can cause hyper-hypothyroidism |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is amiodarone's dominant effect? |  | Definition 
 
        | Prolongation of the Ap which decreases risk of reentry. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Amiodarone's T1/2 and why? |  | Definition 
 
        | T1/2=50 days   It's lipophilic and accumulates and is slowly eliminated   Increases risk of toxicity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is amiodarone used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Refractory supraventricular and ventri arrhythmias |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the BBW with Amiodarone? |  | Definition 
 
        | Fatal acute pulmonary toxicity -cough -dyspnea -bronchospasms -infiltrates -hemoptysis -alveolar hemorrhage -resp failure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE of amiodarone |  | Definition 
 
        | hypo/hyperthyroidism Corneal deposits Hepatotoxicity peripheral neuropathies photodermatitis (blus skin and ears-smurffs) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does amiodarone inhibit? (enzyme?) |  | Definition 
 
        | Cyp3A4 Cyp2C9  P-glycoprotein |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is dronedarone used for? which drug is it similar to, except for what? |  | Definition 
 
        | Used for Afib/Aflutter Analog of amiodarone but without the I. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which channels does dronedarone block? |  | Definition 
 
        | Properties of all 4 classes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the CAUTION and SE of dronedarone |  | Definition 
 
        | CAUTION- increases risk of CV events including 2x incr risk of death in pts w/ Afib   SE: N,V,D, abdl pain, asthenia (weakness). Rare, but severe liver injury could require liver transplant |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the Rx interactions of Dronedarone? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cyp3A4 (same as amiodarone) Cyp2D6 P-glycoprotein (same as amiodarone) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Bretylium used for and how is it administered? |  | Definition 
 
        | IV for life threatening V-tach, V-fib |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of bretylium? |  | Definition 
 
        | Prolongs AP thru ion channel effects   Displaces NE: initially increases NE release and contractility with a transient incr BP and potential ventr arrhythmias. This is followed by decr in BP as NE is depleted |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What activity does Sotalol have? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What activity of sotalol is more apparent in lower doses? at higher doses? |  | Definition 
 
        | LOW: Class II- beta block   HIGH: effects on AP  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is sotalol used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Supraventricular and ventr tachyarrhythmias |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a dangerous cardiac risk with sotalol? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is ibutilide and what is its main effect? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ikr blocker   Actiavtes slow inward Na channels |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is ibutilide used for? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a cardiac SE of ibutilide? |  | Definition 
 
        | Prolongs QT interval   monitor carefully |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is dofetilide and what is it used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Pure Ikr blocker (no extracardiac effects)   Used to convert Afib/flutter |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should you not give dofetilide with? |  | Definition 
 
        | Thiazide Diuretic   it will increase dofetilide's level and cause significant prolongation of QT interval |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are Class IV antiarrhythmetics? what do they block? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ca channel blockers   
specifically L-type slow Ca++ channels.  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what state of the channel do the class 4 bind to? what is this helpful in preventing then? |  | Definition 
 
        | open channels   Thus, are more effective against reentrant SVT |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where do these class IV drugs target best? What part of the heart? |  | Definition 
 
        | AV node because slow Ca channels predominate in the AV node causing depolarization?? |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the overall effect of Class IV? |  | Definition 
 
        | Slow HR and terminates SVTs by causing partial AV block |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the effects of Class IV drugs on PK and PM cellS? |  | Definition 
 
        | PK cells: NO EFFECT 
 PM cells: Decreases phase 4, 0 and 3 slope Prolongs depolarization and repolarization and elongates the AP. [image] |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the Class IV drugs? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Explain the worry about IV vs Oral administration for verapamil. |  | Definition 
 
        | The L racemate is more potent than the D, but L undergoes more 1st pass metabolism.   A certain amt given IV prolongs the PR interval more than the same amt given orally so be careful. (bc oral causes 1st pass and metabolism) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a major SE (non-cardiac) of verapamil |  | Definition 
 
        | CONSTIPATION more notable with verapamil than other Ca channel blockers bc it has high affinity for GI sm.   *Treat this bc if strain to poop (valsalva), can increase o2 consumption of heart and since there is an increase in intrathoracic pressure the volume going back to heart decreases, so could cause an MI |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Where does verapamil work? What about diltiazem? |  | Definition 
 
        | More selective for heart   Acts on heart and vascular sm |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should you watch for with diltiazem? |  | Definition 
 
        | Decreased BP from vasodilitation Decrease in contractility
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why do the Ca channel blockers not affect Skeletal MM? |  | Definition 
 
        | Ca channels affect all ca channels, but skeletal mm gets most of its Ca from the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum, therefore blocking the extracellular Ca channels and decreasing influx of Ca into the skeletal mm cell will not affect its function bc it's getting its Ca from elsewhere. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the Miscellaneous antiarrhythmetics? |  | Definition 
 
        | Digoxin Atropine Aenosine Magnesium   (DAAM- imagine a goat saying Dam..) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Digoxin used for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Afib Aflutter   Also used for CHF (Rx increases contractility) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Digoxin's MOA to prevent arrhythmias? |  | Definition 
 
        | its vagomimetic (mimics parasympathetics)   a) inhibits stmpathetics b)vagal stimulation-> incr ACh release-> incr K efflux-> hyperpolarized SAN-> closes Ca++ channels-> Decr Ca influx-> decreased slope 0 in AVN-> and this slows ventricular contraction  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Digoxin better at? Ventricular arrhythmias or Atrial arrhythmias? |  | Definition 
 
        | Atrial Arrhthmias=   There isn't much parasympathetic activity in ventricles.    BUT by controlling conduction thru the AV node, Digoxin controls the ventricular response to Afib and Aflutter |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What can cause increased risk of Digoxin toxicity?   What can this toxicity lead to potentially? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hypokalemia (low K)   Can lead to Torsades de Pointes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How does low K lead to digoxin toxicity? |  | Definition 
 
        | In cardiac cells, digoxin binds to phosphorylated form of NA/K ATPase.   The problem is that K promotes dephosphorylation of this pump. If there is low K, then dephosphorylation doesn't happen and you get phosphorylaton of the channel.   Phosphorylated channel promotes digoxin binding and toxicity. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What should you not mix Digoxin with and why?     |  | Definition 
 
        | Diuretic   CAuses K+ loss and if low K, will have phosphorylated Na/K pumps and lead to toxicity of digoxin.. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you treat Digoxin toxicity? |  | Definition 
 
        | Digoxin immune Fab (digibind)- an antibody to digoxin that forms a 1:1 complex w/ digoxin and is then rapidly excreted.  Give IV over 15-30 minutes   IV K- this would work bc K causes dephosphorylation of the channel that digoxin binds to. Without this channel, Digoxin has not effects. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How with Ca affect Digoxin toxicity? |  | Definition 
 
        | Makes it worse   The more Ca you have, the more Na that is brought out of the cell...   Actually I don't Know :/ |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the effect of Mg?   What if have low Mg? |  | Definition 
 
        | It competes with Ca and decreases risk of arrhythmia because basically blocking Ca channels so depolarization doesn't happen like normal.   Low Mg causes increased risk for arrhthmia because there will be no competition w/ Ca and so depolarization happens.   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Atropine used for?   How is it administered?   Why? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bradyarrhythmias IV   Atropine is a competitive antagonist of the muscarinic ACh-R, meaning that it blocks the effects of parasympathetics. It makes sense that if it's blocking Parasympathetics, which normally decr HR, it'd lead to an increased HR. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Adenosine used for and how is it administered? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the T1/2 of Adenosine?   Why is it good? |  | Definition 
 
        | T1/2= 15 seconds!!!!!   Easy to control and so decreases risk of significant SE. Yeay! |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the MOA of adenosine? |  | Definition 
 
        | Stimulates P1 purine-R-> activates Ach-sensitive K channels-> K efflux in atria and SA/AV node-> Hyperpolarization-> decreases automaticity and causes a transient AV block |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What other channel does Adenosine block? What is the result? |  | Definition 
 
        | Blocks Ca currents and increases the AV node's refractoriness |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SE of adenosine |  | Definition 
 
        | Transient asystole (lasts less than 5 sec) Scares the shit out of new doctors who have to administer it   Facial flushing, chest pain, dyspnea, N, vfib, vtach or bradycardia. Short lived SE bc T1/2 is so short |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does Adenosine interact with? |  | Definition 
 
        | Methylxanthine is an antagonizer of adenosine   a purine base found in most human body tissues and fluids and in other organisms   Methylxanthines affect not only the airways but stimulate heart rate, force of contraction, cardiac arrhythmias at high concentrations.  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        |   Sotalol Adenosine Disopyramide Propranolol Amiodarone (for refractory) Procainamide                 Quinidine Flecainide (SAD PAP- Quit Fucking) 
 
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which drugs are for V-tach? |  | Definition 
 
        | Quinidine Procainamide Diopyramide Lidocaine Mexilitine Phenytoin (digoxin induced) Propafenone Propranolol (Ca and digoxin induced) Amiodarone Bretylium Sotalol   (All the drugs that Tx SVT are here except for Flecainide and Adenosine (Ademir flees). The extra ones are bolded and make  Lick My Butt Pretty Please! |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which drugs are used to treat Afib/Aflutter? |  | Definition 
 
        | Flecainide (fib) Ibutilide Bretylium (fib-life threatening) Propafenone Dronedarone Dofetilide (converts them) Digoxin   (FIB P-DDD) Sounds like P-diddy and he "FIB"-ed us with all his name changes)- also Fib for A-fib.. DUH! |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs are used to treat reentry? |  | Definition 
 
        | Flecainide (AV) Adenosine   (Ademir Flees.. and then reenters) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug treats Premature ventricular contractions? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which drug is used for Bradyarrhythmias? |  | Definition 
 
        | Atropine   Makes sense because Atropine is a blocks ACh-R basically blocking parasympathetics, causing incr in HR. |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which class of anti-arrhythmetics prolongs repolarization in Purkinje cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | Class Ia Class III   (Na and K blockers) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which class of antiarrhythmetics shortens repolarization in Purkinje cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | Class 1b   (Na blocker- rapid recovery) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which class of antiarrhythmetics has no effects on Purkinje cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | Class II Class IV   (Beta blocker and Ca blockers- affect nodes) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which Anti-arrhythmetic decreases phase 4 slope of the Pacemaker cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | All of them, except for Class III (which has NO EFFECT on PM cells) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrhythmetics increase the threshold for firing in Pacemaker cells?   Which ones don't affect threshold?   Which one has NO EFFECT on Pacemaker cells? |  | Definition 
 
        | Class Ia Class Ib Class Ic   Class II and Class IV   Class III    |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrhythmetic affects the slope of all parts of the depolarization graph in the Pacemaker cell? |  | Definition 
 
        | Class IV   Decr slope of 4, 0, 3 |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrhythmetic class prolongs repolarization in the Pacemaker cells? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrhythmetic Rx can induce Torsades de Pointes? |  | Definition 
 
        | Quinidine (in high doses) Sotalol Procainamide (if increased NAPA like in renal failure or if pt is a fast acetylator) Digoxin Class III- K blockers |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which Antiarrhythmetics can cause psychosis |  | Definition 
 | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which anti-arrhythmetic can be used to treat CHF? |  | Definition 
 | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetic can cause blurred vision? |  | Definition 
 
        | Quinidine Disopyramide Digoxin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetic can cause Hursitism? |  | Definition 
 
        | Phenytoin   (Penny is a hairy little girl) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetics have ISA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acebutalol amiodarone   (ASS-ISA) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetic can cause Constipation? |  | Definition 
 
        | Disopyramide Class IV- Ca channel blockers- ESP verapamil   (climbing pyramides makes you veray constipated)   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetic can cause GI problems like NVD, HA? |  | Definition 
 
        | Dronedarone Digoxin (NV, HA) Adenosine (N) Quinidine (HA)   (Dronedarone sounds like Dramamine which you take for sea sickness... so just think about those Sx) (Ademir makes me nauseous sometimes) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetic can cause heart problems? |  | Definition 
 
        | Disopyramide (heart failure) Class 1c (cardiac arrest) Dronedarone (CV events) Adenosine (asystole, vfib, vtach, bradycardia) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetic can cause toxicity? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amiodarone (highly lipophilic and accumulates) Digoxin (if low K because of phosphorylation of the Na/K pump.. remember?) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetic can cause liver problems? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amiodarone (hepatotoxicity) Dronedarone (liver damage) |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrhythmetics can cause a decrease in BP? |  | Definition 
 
        | Procainamide (if rapid IV- ganglionic block) Digoxin |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetic can cause hypoglycemia? |  | Definition 
 
        | Disopyramide Beta blockers- right? Blocks the B2 mediated stimulation of glycogenolysis and decrease blood sugar. |  | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetic can causes nystagmus? |  | Definition 
 | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetic can causes corneal deposits (halo)? |  | Definition 
 | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetics can cause dyspnea? |  | Definition 
 | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrythmetics have a BBW? What is it? |  | Definition 
 | 
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        | Term 
 
        | Which antiarrhythmetic can cause thyroid problems?   What can you give instead? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amiodarone Contains Iodine and can cause hyper-hypothyroidism (potentially fatal thyrotoxicosis)   Can give dronedarone because it's an analog of amiodarone but without the Iodine |  | 
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