Term
| Menopause ________ sensitivity but _________ working receptors, thus __________ effectiveness of opioids |
|
Definition
| Menopause increases sensitivity but decreases working receptors, thus decreases effectiveness of opioids |
|
|
Term
| Estrogen makes opioid receptors work better or worse during pregnancy? |
|
Definition
| Estrogen makes opioid receptors not work as well during pregnancy. |
|
|
Term
True or False
The increased pain sensitivity in menopause does not correct even with hormone therapy |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Describe what estradiol does to the following
____ # of opioid receptors
______ response to opioids
______ levels of beta-endorphins in brain, pancreas, and liver |
|
Definition
Estradiol....
increases # of opioid receptors
decreases response to opioids
decreases levels of beta-endorphins
in brain, pancreas, and liver |
|
|
Term
| What enzyme metabolizes most anesthesia drugs in women? Is it increased or decreased? |
|
Definition
| Increased CYP3A4 levels in women. |
|
|
Term
| How does the menstrual cycle affect anesthesia in women? |
|
Definition
| There are minimal to no changes in sensitivity to anesthetics or duration of action. |
|
|
Term
| When can you test women for HCG for pregnancy? Serum vs urine |
|
Definition
Serum, radioimmunoassary: 24-72 hours post conception
Urine, antibody agglutination: 10-12 days post conception |
|
|
Term
| Describe the blood supply to the vagina...non pregnant and in the 3rd trimester |
|
Definition
Normal non-pregnant: 5% of CO = 50-100 mL/min
3rd trimester: 10-12% of CO = 600-700 mL/min |
|
|
Term
| What nerves supply the vagina, what nerves supply the cervix & uterus? |
|
Definition
Sacral nerves supply the vagina.
Thoracolumbar supply the cervix and uterus. |
|
|
Term
| What three things can a D&C be performed for? |
|
Definition
- Dysfunctional bleeding
- Diagnosis of potential cancers
- Evacuate uterus (incomplete abortion)
|
|
|
Term
| Describe the anesthetic differences between the exocervix and the endocervix. |
|
Definition
Exocervix - Relatively insensitive: low density pain sensing nerves that may require IV sedation
Endocervix - Dilation of endocervix is very painful, requires analgesia
|
|
|
Term
| Do you wait for blood before taking patient back? (Pregnant/labor/bleeding) |
|
Definition
No you do NOT wait. The uterus only stops bleeding by contracting...get whatever is holding it open out of there!
If patient pale, but young/healthy, take to OR. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| No viable fetus, but uterus hasn't started its evacuation process yet (no bleeding) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| No viable fetus, but bleeding has started |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Uterus has passed the products of conception. |
|
|
Term
| What is considered "birth" in TX? How many weeks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is more painful? Missed abortion or incomplete abortion? |
|
Definition
A missed AB is more painful, if the cervix is already partially open, it is less painful to dilate.
A missed AB has not started dilating yet, thus it will be more painful. |
|
|
Term
| What meds are best for cramping pain? |
|
Definition
| NSAIDs are better than opioids for cramping pain. |
|
|
Term
What occurs at
8 weeks of pregancy?
12 weeks?
20 weeks? |
|
Definition
8 weeks - CO changes, ETCO2, could use an LMA/IV sedation
12 weeks - Aspiration risk, needs ETT, must go to sleep
20 weeks - PIH, aortocaval compression |
|
|
Term
| How do endogenous prostagladins work? |
|
Definition
| Endogenous prostaglandins act by increasing intracellular free calcium in the uterus. This enhances the action of oxytocin. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| PGEs are used to soften the uterus and speed spontaneous D&C process. |
|
|
Term
| What are three effects of PGEs, and what are some of its S/E? |
|
Definition
PGEs cause bronchodilation, decrease in SVR, and an increase BP secondary to increased CO.
PGEs can cause N/V, fever, and diarrhea. |
|
|
Term
| Where is oxytocin produced, and what hormone is it 2 amino acids away from? |
|
Definition
| Oxytocin is produced in the posterior pituitary gland, and is 2 amino acids away from ADH. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Oxytocin makes the uterus contract. It is used after D&C to decrease bleeding. It's more common to give oxytocin after the D&C. |
|
|
Term
| What type of solution do you use with oxytocin? What are two main s/sx of oxytocin? |
|
Definition
Use ISOTONIC solution with oxytocin.
Oxytocin is associated with TACHYCARDIA and hypotension. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ergot rapidly produces tetanic contractions of the uterus, which decreases bleeding after D&C |
|
|
Term
| What type of agonist is ergot? |
|
Definition
| Ergot is an alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist. |
|
|
Term
| What are some main S/E of ergot? Who is it contraindicated in? |
|
Definition
Ergot typically causes Increased BP and increases PA pressures.
It's contraindicated in unstable heart DZ and PIH. |
|
|
Term
| If a patient has an extreme HTN response to ergot, how should you manage it? |
|
Definition
Treat with an alpha blocker, which blocks/relaxes the vessels, not the heart.
Use hydralazine, NTG, NTP.
Labetalol has alpha/beta effects.
Clonidine and phenoxybenzamine can be used as well (not first line). |
|
|
Term
| How high can MAC be and pitocin still be effective? |
|
Definition
| MAC can be up to 1.5 and pitocin will still be effective. |
|
|
Term
| If the cervix has been ripened with PGEs, what is a good form of pain control? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe a hydatidiform mole. |
|
Definition
| A abnormal proliferation of placenetal tissue, but no fetus. |
|
|
Term
| How is a hydatidiform mole diagnosed? |
|
Definition
It's diagnosed by a rapid increase in beta HCG, way more than the placenta needs.
Hormonal changes outpace a normal pregnancy, patient is hormonally further along in pregnancy than weeks stated. |
|
|
Term
| How long must a patient with hydatidiform mole wait to become pregnant again? Why? |
|
Definition
| They must wait 1 year, because of risk for choriocarcinoma. |
|
|
Term
| What are some anesthetic management issues with hydatidiform mole? |
|
Definition
Hyperemesis = dehydration
PIH, anemia
Thyrotoxicosis - HTN, sweating, increased ETCO2, tachycardia, widened pulse pressure |
|
|
Term
| What type of induction and drugs would you use for a patient with hydatidiform mole? |
|
Definition
ETT and RSI.
Use propofol or etomidate. |
|
|
Term
| What type of fluid is used in hysteroscopy? |
|
Definition
A sugar solution/hyponatremic, does not conduct electricty. Usually glycine or dextran
Keep track of fluid absorption.
|
|
|
Term
What should you do at the following levels of fluid absorption in hysteroscopy?
1000 mL
1500 mL
2000 mL |
|
Definition
1000 mL - Continue operation
1500 mL - End operation ASAP
2000 mL - Stop operation |
|
|
Term
| What is a tubal occlusion? |
|
Definition
A tubal occlusion is a sterilizing, irreversible procedure.
A coil is inserted into the tube which causes tissue irritation, in a few weeks, nothing will pass through the tubes.
No incisions, not a lot of fluid, fast and easy. |
|
|
Term
What wavelengths are the
CO2
Nd Yag
Dye
KTP diode
Argon
lasers used at and what eyewear color do you need? |
|
Definition
CO2 = 10600 = Vaporize tissue = Clear
Nd Yag = 1064 = Deep tissue, TURP, stones = Clear
Dye = 580s = Skin pigment, tattoes = Blue
KTP diode = 532 = Coag/ablation = Orange
Argon = 514 = coagulation = Orange |
|
|
Term
| What special equipment do you need for condylomas? |
|
Definition
Condylomas require you to wear a SPECIAL mask. When condylomas are vaporized, they become a live fungal spore. Vacuum is used to collect spores.
CO2 laser is used for condylomas. |
|
|
Term
| What laser is used for liver lacerations?What wavelength lasers can damage retinas? |
|
Definition
Argon is used for liver lacerations.
Wavelengths 400-1400 can damage retinas. |
|
|
Term
True or false
Blood is is typically underestimated in hysterectomies. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some positioning problems with hysterectomies and why? |
|
Definition
| Lithotomy + trendelenburg, + insufflation of abdomen leads to problems breathing and ETT migration, nerves at risk. |
|
|
Term
| What is a s/sx of ovarian and uterine cancer? |
|
Definition
| Uterine and ovarian cancer can cause ascites, a large belly filled with fluid (NOT A MASS) |
|
|
Term
| What are some complications of maligannt processes? |
|
Definition
| Low protein states, anemia, hypovolemia |
|
|
Term
What does chemotherapy do?
What is bleomycin and why don't we like it? |
|
Definition
Chemotherapy disrupts hematopoiesis, causes resistance to infection, myocardial, renal and hepatic function
Bleomycin can cause impressive pumonary fibrosis that can be worsened with high O2 concentrations. |
|
|
Term
| What is a anesthetic tip/technique in cancer cases in GYN surgery? |
|
Definition
| Don't paralyze heavily up front (may open and close quickly if cancer has progressed and there is nothing they can do). |
|
|
Term
| What are three things you can use to check if your patient is dry? |
|
Definition
| SVV/Vigileo, pulse oximetry, and art line |
|
|
Term
| When will you know that an anemic patient will need more O2 carrying capacity? |
|
Definition
Saturation will still be 100% if patient is anemic (down to Hb of 5). They saturate easier because they have no competition for those sites.
Color, pulse ox, ABG, PaO2 and SvO2 |
|
|
Term
True or false
Cancers can only cause a hyper-coagulable state. |
|
Definition
False
Cancers can cause either a hyper-coagulable or hypo-coagulable state. |
|
|
Term
| Can you do regionals with lovenox? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are nerves that can be damaged in lithotomy position? |
|
Definition
Common peroneal nerve (post), femoral, obturator, lateral femoral are prone to stretch.
Lower limb compartment syndrome due to limbs not positioned correctly. |
|
|
Term
| What are some issues of the lithotomy position? How do we manage those positions? |
|
Definition
Masked hypovolemia
Intravascualrly dry but missing s/sx because the legs are up, get a BP after the legs come down.
Candy canes are better (weight is on the foot)
Increased intrabdominal pressure. |
|
|
Term
| How long should you wait to perform a tubal ligation? |
|
Definition
6-8 weeks after pregnancy (cardiac/resp function are restored)
If they're postpartum, treat them like they're pregnant. |
|
|
Term
| What is the last instrument out in a diagnostic laparoscopy? |
|
Definition
| The uterine manipulator, make sure it is OUT of the patient before they're conscious |
|
|
Term
| What are some anesthesia implications for fertility surgery? |
|
Definition
Anxiety
Full bladder for US means recent clear liquids (probably not NPO)
Nothing we use is technically a teratogenic. Don't use Nitrous.
Fertility cases are good for TIVA. |
|
|
Term
True or false
Preop care is the same in the clinic as it is in the hospital. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Can a patient drive home after outpatient anesthesia? |
|
Definition
| No, they need a responsible adult to drive them home and stay with them through the first night. |
|
|
Term
| How long do you have to keep tonsillectomy patients? |
|
Definition
| They can bleed within 2 hours, so keep them for 4 hours. |
|
|
Term
| When do babies have to be hospitalized? |
|
Definition
If baby is pre-mature infant (<60 weeks post conceptual age), they have a high incidence of post-op resp. failure.
If family hx of SIDs, baby needs to stay overnight for monitoring. |
|
|
Term
| At what BMI should a patient be in the hospital? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What's the youngest a patient can be done outpatient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What patients can we NOT work on in outpatient settings? (8) |
|
Definition
- UNSTABLE ASA 3 and 4
- CHF
- Active substance abuse
- Poorly controlled SZ
- Uncontrolled DM (A1C >8.6)
- Uncontrolled OSA
- Sepsis/infectious DZ
- Pain uncontrolled with PO meds
|
|
|
Term
| What NMBs for outpatient setting? |
|
Definition
| Roc is SHORT acting, but females don't metabolize well, may stick around. |
|
|
Term
| Can you do MAC and regional in the outpatient setting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How to prevent PONV and N/V in patients r/t to motion sickness on the way home? |
|
Definition
| Make sure the patient can eat something before D/C. |
|
|
Term
| What are some recovery criteria? |
|
Definition
A/Ox3, stable VS for 1 hour.
Ability to ambulate unassisted
Ability to tolerate oral fluids.
Absence of significant pain/bleeding. |
|
|
Term
| What are some discharge instructions for outpatient anesthesia? |
|
Definition
Do not Drive. Do not adopt or sell any stocks within 24-72 hours.
No life change decisions within 24-48 hours. |
|
|
Term
| Are GI patients with an NGT still considered a full stomach? |
|
Definition
Yes, treat them as a full stomach because their motility is slow.
You don't want to be be bagging, giving NMBs, and then they aspirate. |
|
|
Term
| What is the main concern of a bowel prep? |
|
Definition
Main concern: Dehydration
Be cautious with propofol to prevent CV instability. |
|
|
Term
| How much pressure can the UES (Upper esophageal spinchter) hold? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What nerves supply the
1. Parasympathetic
2. Sympathetic
|
|
Definition
1. Parasympathetic - Vagus nerve
2. Sympathetic - T2-T6 |
|
|
Term
| The LES _______ with swallowing unlike the rest of the esophagus. |
|
Definition
| The LES relaxes with swallowing unlike the rest of the esophagus. |
|
|
Term
| In healthy patients, the LES pressure _____ in response to increased gastric pressure |
|
Definition
| In healthy patients, the LES pressure rises in response to increased gastric pressure |
|
|
Term
| What three conditions can decrease LES? |
|
Definition
1. Pregnancy (progesterone)
2. Hiatal hernia
3. Obesity |
|
|
Term
| Where is the GI pacemaker located in the stomach? |
|
Definition
| The GI pacemaker is located in the anterior portion of the gastric area. |
|
|
Term
| What are four protective airway reflexes from aspiration and pneumonia? |
|
Definition
- Laryngospasm (opens the false vocal cords)
- Cough
- Expiration reflex (during expiration, true vocal cords close, but false is open, glottis is open)
- Spasmodic panting - rapid breathing 40-60 breaths/min
- Spasmodic
|
|
|
Term
| ALL reflexes except ________ are gone when fentanyl is given. |
|
Definition
| ALL reflexes except laryngospasm are gone when fentanyl is given. |
|
|
Term
| What are three things we can do to control gastric contents? |
|
Definition
- Minimize intake (NPO)
- Increase gastric emptying
- Decrease gastric volume/acidity
|
|
|
Term
| What drugs decrease BOTH gastric volume and acidity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs decrease ONLY gastric volume, but not acidity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drugs decrease gastric acidity, but not volume? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the NPO requirements for
- Clear Liquids
- Breast milk
- Infant formula
- Light solid meal
- Heavy, fatty meal
|
|
Definition
- Clear liquids - 2 hours
- Breast milk - 4 hours
- Infant formula - 6 hours
- Light solid meal - 6 hours
- Heavy, fatty meal - 8 hours
|
|
|
Term
| Gastric emptying _____ with milk. |
|
Definition
| Gastric emptying slows with milk. |
|
|
Term
| What five things can INCREASE gastric emptying? |
|
Definition
- Metoclopramide
- Smoking
- Neostygmine (increased gastric emptying but blocked by atropine)
- Propranolol
- Na Bicarb
|
|
|
Term
| What 7 things can decrease gastric emptying? |
|
Definition
- Pain
- Laparotomy
- Narcotics
- Trauma
- Pregnancy
- Alcohol
- MI
|
|
|
Term
| What type (7) of patients can have a high resting gastric volume? |
|
Definition
- Obese
- Pregnancy
- Bedridden
- Shock
- Trauma
- Recent laparotomy (24 hours)
- Chemical interference
|
|
|
Term
| What is the onset and duration of reglan? |
|
Definition
Reglan
Onset: 1-3 min
Duration: 30-60 min |
|
|
Term
| When do you connect NGT/OGT? |
|
Definition
| As soon as you enter the OR. |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 examples of H2 blockers? |
|
Definition
- Cimetidine (tagamet)
- Famotidine (pepcid)
- Ranitidine (zantac)
|
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give decadron ______ induction due to _______ itching. |
|
Definition
| Give decadron after induction due to perineal itching. |
|
|
Term
| Sellick's maneuver is ______, not _______ pressure. |
|
Definition
| Sellick's maneuver is cricoid, not thyroid pressure. |
|
|
Term
| What is the goal of cricoid pressure? What does it reduce? |
|
Definition
| Cricoid pressure's goal is to occlude the esophagus, but it can displace the esophagus laterally, increasing risk for aspiration. |
|
|
Term
| How many newtons of pressure for cricoid pressure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much intragastric pressure to overcome cricoid pressure? |
|
Definition
Vomiting >60 cmH20
Fasciculations 40 cmH20
Fasting 18 cmH20
|
|
|
Term
| What are three contraindications to cricoid pressure? |
|
Definition
- Cricoid or tracheal injury
- Unstable C-spine (trauma, do awake fiberoptic)
- Active vomiting
|
|
|
Term
| What are 4 complications of cricoid pressure? |
|
Definition
Partial airway obstruction (most common)
Airway obstruction (most common)
Fracture of cricoid ring (rare)
Esophageal rupture (rare) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Backward
Upward
Rightward
Pressure |
|
|
Term
What are 3 things to consider when working with small bowel/colon cases?
What do these 3 things lead to? |
|
Definition
- Bowel prep = Hypovolemia
- Hypokalemia
- Peritonitis
These suppress intestinal activity x48 hours. |
|
|
Term
| What happens to the colon when you the (vagus) PSNS is innervated? When the SNS is innervated? |
|
Definition
Innervated vagus (PSNS) = ↑ motility
Innervated T6-10 (SNS) = ↓ motility |
|
|
Term
| What organs are involved in splanchnic circulation? (6) |
|
Definition
- Gastric
- Small Intestine
- Large intestine
- Pancreatic
- Splenic
- Hepatic
|
|
|
Term
| What are the 3 arteries supplying the splanchnic organs? |
|
Definition
- Celiac artery
- Superior mesenteric artery
- Inferior mesenteric artery
|
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between splanchnic and other blood circulation? |
|
Definition
| Splanchnich circulation goes to the liver before the right atrium/SVC, while other blood circulation goes DIRECTLY to the right atrium/SVC. |
|
|
Term
| What does SNS stimulation do to splanchnic blood flow? |
|
Definition
Alpha - Vasoconstriction of splanchnic circulation
Beta 2 - Vasodilation of splanchnic circulation |
|
|
Term
| How does PSNS stimulation affect splanchnic blood flow? |
|
Definition
Vagus nerve - ↑ metabolism → ↑ blood flow to organs of the body
|
|
|
Term
| What four things can cause an increase in splanchnic vascular resistance? |
|
Definition
↑ splanchnic vascular resistance
- Stress
- ↑catecholamines
- Vasopressin
- ANG 2
|
|
|
Term
| What happens if splanchnic vascular resistance is high? |
|
Definition
| If high SVR, cannot send oxygenated blood to organs: gastrin, colonic, splenic, pancreatic. |
|
|
Term
| Anemia below the ______ redirects enough blood flow from the colon to impede wound healing. |
|
Definition
| Anemia below the mid 30s redirects enough blood flow from the colon to impede wound healing. |
|
|
Term
| What does hypocapnia do to splanchnic blood flow? |
|
Definition
| Hypocapnia reduces splanchnic blood flow. |
|
|
Term
| If a COPD/obstructive disorder/normal weight is hypocarbic, what would you do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a obese patient with restrictive disorder is hypocarbic, what would you do? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does morphine do to splanchnic vascular resistance? |
|
Definition
| Morphine decreases splanchnic vascular resistance, but you shouldn't use it in colon cases. |
|
|
Term
| What type of anesthesia predisposes patient to anastomosis leak? |
|
Definition
| Epidural regional anesthesia predisposes patient to anastomosis leak. |
|
|
Term
| Should you use N2O in bowel cases? |
|
Definition
| No, do NOT use N2O in bowel cases. |
|
|
Term
| What would you want to use N2O in general anesthesia? |
|
Definition
- Able to increase MAC with a lower amount of VA (2nd gas effect)
- Patient with hypotension
|
|
|
Term
| What nerve is responsible for laryngospasm? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can you determine if a patient has sleep apnea? (3) |
|
Definition
1. Do you snore? Ask S/O.
2. Obesity
3. How many pillows do you sleep with at night? >2 = sleep apnea. |
|
|
Term
| If an OSA patient runs CPAP @ 2 L/min, what should you run their NC in the hospital at? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is important to consider for food bolus cases? |
|
Definition
Food bolus cases are considered full stomachs.
Have RSI ready - SUX, Lido, Prop, ETT. |
|
|
Term
Which cases require LMAs or ETTs?
Incisional
Umbilical
Inguinal |
|
Definition
Incisional - ETT
Umbilical - LMA
Inguinal - LMA |
|
|
Term
| How can you tell if a patient has a strangulated hernia? |
|
Definition
| Strangulated hernia = NG tube and abdominal pain |
|
|
Term
| What are two common complications associated with hernia repair? |
|
Definition
| Wound abscess and hematoma are associated with hernia repair. |
|
|
Term
| What should you expect with an inguinal hernia? How do you pre-treat it? |
|
Definition
With an inguinal hernia, if manipulating open or laparoscopic, HR will go down.
ALWAYS pretreat with robinul (0.2mg-0.4mg) |
|
|
Term
| What post-op issue is associated with inguinal hernia repair? |
|
Definition
| Post-op urinary retention. |
|
|
Term
| With insufflation of CO2, ____ and ____ both go ______. Who tends to have more bradycardia with laparoscopic cases? |
|
Definition
With insufflation of CO2, HR and BP both go down.
Women tend to have bradycardia during laparoscopic cases. |
|
|
Term
| How do you avoid coughing during emergence? |
|
Definition
- Propofol when patient already breathing on their own.
- Lidocaine, but problem is you have to give it WAY early before you wake them up, if you don't delays emergence.
- Narcotics (fentanyl) at the end when breathing on their own and gas is usually 1/2 MAC. Let them breathe 8-12 min with ETCO2 40s-40s.
|
|
|
Term
| How should you maintain patients on an LMA? |
|
Definition
Maintain patients with 1.5 MAC and fentanyl.
Titrate fentanyl to keep RR ~12
Don't give 50 mcg all at once, give 25 mcg, then additional 25 mcg after 1st NIBP. |
|
|
Term
| What are 4 things to consider for a gastrectomy? |
|
Definition
- Perioperative hypokalemia → pt not eating or may have an NG tube in place
- Pernicious anemia (B12)
- Large 3rd space blood loss
- Malnutrition
|
|
|
Term
What are 2 s/sx of gastrectomy patients?
How should you play on inducing them? |
|
Definition
Gastrectomy patients are TACHYCARDIC and HYPOTENSIVE although O2 sats are OK.
Propidate is a good combo. Give 2 cc of Prop and 2 cc of Etomidate, wait for effect, repeat PRN. |
|
|
Term
| What preop considerations should you consider for gastrectomy patients? (5) |
|
Definition
- Assess pre-existing conditions and volume status
- Pre-op beta blockers for elderly (esmolol/labetalol during induction)
- Aspiration prophylaxis
- Correct anemia
- Consider TPN
- Remind RR nurses to get a BS
|
|
|
Term
| What are 3 intraoperative considerations for gastrectomy patients? |
|
Definition
RSI if full stomach, if pt has NGT, then RSI.
Consider A-line/CVP
Foley 30 ml/hr |
|
|
Term
| What are two pulmonary issues related to open cholecystectomy? |
|
Definition
Atelectasis and pneumonia 2ndary to incisional wound.
Ask for infiltrations and give own pain meds intra-op and before leaving OR. |
|
|
Term
| If a patient has a TRUE pcn allergy, would you give ancef? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cross-sensitivity with cephalosporins and beta lactam PCNS is __________ |
|
Definition
| The cross-sensitivity with cephalosporins and beta lactam PCNS is very small. |
|
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Term
| What are a couple alternatives for Ancef if patient has PCN allergy? |
|
Definition
| Clindamycin or vancoymcin. |
|
|
Term
| What concerns us about JP drains? |
|
Definition
JP drains predisposes pt to infection.
It is our responsibility to make sure JP drawn is STILL with pt when he gets to RR. |
|
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Term
| How can you test for airway edema around the ETT? (3) |
|
Definition
1. Direct laryngoscopy
2. Drop the cuff and ventilate...if you hear air, edema has decreased.
3. If spontaneous RR, listen...if pt was difficult airway and multiple attempts, give decadron to reduce inflammation/swelling. |
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Term
| Post-op complications in mastectomy pt's are greater with...(3) |
|
Definition
1. Smokers
2. >65
3. Obesity |
|
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Term
| What are three things to worry about in mastectomies? |
|
Definition
1. Anxiolytics
2. Positioning complications
3. Field avoidance (operating field may be near airway) |
|
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Term
| What are some preoperative implications to worry about in mastectomys? (4) |
|
Definition
1. Thoracic nerve injuries
2. Optimal operating conditions
3. N/V prophylaxsis, ABX,
Give decadron @ beginning and zofran @ the end
4. D/C anticoagulants |
|
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Term
| What type of LMA or ETT should you use in a radical mastectomy? A breast biopsy? |
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Definition
Breast biopsy - LMA OK, wait for results, may need to switch for ETT if radical mastectomy indicated.
Radical mastectomy - ETT Always! |
|
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Term
| Smokers have ______ _______ issues due to ______________. |
|
Definition
| Smokers have wound healing issues due to vasoconstriction. |
|
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Term
| Where is the spleen located and describe its blood supply. |
|
Definition
| The spleen is located in the upper quadrant of the abdomen, and is supply by the splenic artery coming from the celiac plexus. |
|
|
Term
| What are (3) physiologic functions of the spleen? |
|
Definition
1. Blood filtering
2. Immune processing - IgM
3. Platelet storage |
|
|
Term
| What are (4) reasons to do a splenectomy? |
|
Definition
1. Thrombocytopenic purpura
2. Sickle cell dz
3. Splenic trauma
4. Hodgkin disease |
|
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Term
| What are 3 things to be concerned about in an emergent splenectomy? |
|
Definition
1. RSI!!
2. Consider H&H (may be diluted 2ndary to fluid boluses and active bleeding. Make sure blood is available in the OR before pt is in room)
3. Hemodynamic instability (have crystalloids available) |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 major things to worry about in a splenectomy? |
|
Definition
1. Major blood loss
2. Trauma of pancreatic tail and stomach |
|
|
Term
| What are 4 preoperative implications of a splenectomy? |
|
Definition
1. Gastric decompression (ask surgeon for OGT/NGT)
2. Stress steroids (hydrocortisone 100 mg IV for stress of surgery)
3. Treat infection
4. Correct abnormal blood coagulation |
|
|
Term
| What are 4 anticipated problems/concerns with a splenectomy? |
|
Definition
1. Bleeding
2. Bronchopneumonia (from atelectasis due to incisional pain)
3. Thrombotic complications
4. Atelectasis |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 preoperative considerations for an elective splenectomy? |
|
Definition
1. Pneumococcal vaccine 1 month prior to surgery (vaccine not necessary in emergent cases)
2. Hematologic assessment
3. Blood readily available |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 things to do preoperatively to prevent sickle cell crisis? |
|
Definition
1. Prevent dehydration (IV during NPO)
2. Warm the room
3. Have blood ready if needed |
|
|
Term
| What are 6 things to do intraoperatively with sickle cell patients? |
|
Definition
1. Standard ASA monitors
2. Continue hydration (1.5X maintenace)
3. O2 sat >95% (FiO2 50-100%)
4. Pain control
5. Maintain normothermia
6. Transfuse if necessary (avoid Hgb >11) |
|
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Term
|
Definition
| Rapid desensitization of receptors to a certain drug. Ephedrine is notorious for causing a tachyphylaxis effect. |
|
|
Term
| What is the average lifetime risk for colorectal Ca? What are the 1st and 2nd reasons for bowel resections? |
|
Definition
Average lifetime risk of 6% for colorectal Ca.
Crohn's dz is most common cause, cancer is 2nd most common cause for bowel resections. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common perioperative morbidity with bowel resections? |
|
Definition
| Prolonged ileus 5-10% - Most common reason for having an NGT in patient. |
|
|
Term
| What are 4 things to look for in a bowel resection? |
|
Definition
1. Decreased intravascular fluid (↓ K)
2. Bowel obstruction
3. Contamination
4. Development of PE |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 things to have in your room before seeing a pt for a bowel resection? |
|
Definition
1. NGT/OGT
2. Fluid warmer
3. Blood available |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between a T&S and T&C? |
|
Definition
T&S are valid for 3 months if no transfusion/pregnancy history.
T&S are valid for 3 days if pregnant or pt transfused.
T&C should only be ordered if you anticipate transfusion (requested units are taken out of inventory) |
|
|
Term
| Do you have to do an RSI if patient is obstructed? |
|
Definition
| Yes, if pt is obstructed, perform a RSI! |
|
|
Term
| Should you use N2O in bowel cases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you do if patient bucks? |
|
Definition
- Remove from vent mode (manual/bag)
- Increase volatile agent (if stable)
- Give fentanyl (if stable)
- May give relaxants after checking twitches
|
|
|
Term
| What 4 things should you expect during dissection portion of bowel resection? |
|
Definition
1. Adhesions if previous surgery
2. Hypotension during manipulation
3. Hypotension after peritoneum is opened
4. Anticipate hypotension (fluids) |
|
|
Term
| What are 4 issues during definite bowel surgery? |
|
Definition
1. Large 3rd space loss
2. Hypothermia
3. Ureteral damage
4. Suction of obstructed bowel may require additional fluids |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 post-op complications to be aware of? |
|
Definition
1. Hypoventilation from splinting
2. Hypoxemia from splinting
3. Ileus from manipulation and narcotics |
|
|
Term
| What is the cause and what are some complications of an appendectomy? |
|
Definition
Appendicitis is caused by an obstruction of the appendiceal opening.
Infection with perforation and peritonitis are complications of an appendectomy. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two main etiologies of appendectomies? |
|
Definition
Hyperplasia of submucosal lymphoid - 60%
Fecal stasis - 35% |
|
|
Term
| What are two main concerns of a laparoscopic appendectomy? |
|
Definition
1. Pneumoperitoneum
2. CO2 insufflation |
|
|
Term
| What are two considerations when inducing an appendectomy? |
|
Definition
1. Consider volume status when choosing agents.
2. Consider myopathy in children, especially in males |
|
|
Term
| What are (5) anticipated problems/concerns in appendectomies? |
|
Definition
1. Sepsis
2. Paralytic ileus
3. Atelectasis
4. Aspiration during emergence
5. Prolonged muscular blockade (aminoglycosides) |
|
|
Term
| Abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS) results from ________ intra-abdominal pressure (IAP) |
|
Definition
| Abdominal compartment syndrome (ACS) results from increased intra-abdominal pressure (IAP) |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 causes of ACS? |
|
Definition
1. Massive volume resuscitation (main cause)
2. Inflammatory state with capillary leak, fluid sequestration, inadequate perfusion and lactic acidosis. |
|
|
Term
What is IAP during spontaneous respiration? Hospitalized supine pt?
|
|
Definition
IAP 0 mmHg in spontaneous respiration
IAP 6.5 mmHg baseline in hospitalized supine pt. |
|
|
Term
| What limits the rise of IAP? |
|
Definition
| Compliance of the abdomen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the 4 grades, pressures, and management of ACS? |
|
Definition
Grade 1: 10-15 mmHg: Maintenace of normovolemia
Grade 2: 16-25 mmHg: Volume administration
Grade 3: 26-35 mmHg: Decompression
Grade 4: >36 mmHg: Re-exploration |
|
|
Term
| What is abdominal perfusion pressure? (APP) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| APP >50 = _______ complications |
|
Definition
| APP >50 = decreased complications |
|
|
Term
| What is the functional unit of the liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the blood supply of the liver? How much cardiac output dose the liver receive? |
|
Definition
Hepatic artery and hepatic vein
It receives 25-30% of the CO. |
|
|
Term
How much ml/min does the liver receive? What percentages are from the portal vein and portal artery?
Where does the liver get its oxygen from? |
|
Definition
The liver receives about 1500 ml/min of blood.
75% of blood portal vein, 25% of blood portal artery.
50% of O2 from portal vein, 50% of O2 from portal arteries. |
|
|
Term
| What are 5 things that can cause hepatic arterial vasoconstriction? |
|
Definition
1. Hypotension
2. Hypovolemia
3. Hypoxia
4. Hypercarbia?
5. Light anesthesia |
|
|
Term
| What are 5 essential physiologic functions of the liver? |
|
Definition
1. Bile production
2. Glycogen storage
3. Drug biotransformation
4. Coagulation (all factors are produced except VIII)
5. Vit K Deficiency due to impaired production of PT (II), VII, IX, and X |
|
|
Term
| What is removed during a whipple procedure (5)? |
|
Definition
1. Head of pancreas
2. Portion of bile duct
3. Gallbladder
4. Duodenum
5. Portion of stomach |
|
|
Term
| What procedure is done prior to a whipple surgery? |
|
Definition
| ERCP is done prior to whipple. |
|
|
Term
| Describe what happens in a liver resection during vena caval clamping/unclamping? |
|
Definition
Vena cava clamping - Increase HR and BP
Vena cava unclamping - Decrease HR and BP
Increase gas when they are about to clamp, don't overlaod on narcotics bc when they unclamp you'll be stuck with it. |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 preoperative considerations in a liver resection? |
|
Definition
1. Blood MUST be in the room.
2. Coagulopathies corrected?
3. Regional is NOT appropriate. |
|
|
Term
| What should you keep CVP at during a liver resection, what should you expect if CVP falls too low or pt is suddenly hypovolemic? |
|
Definition
Keep CVP <5 cmH2O to reduce blood loss during dissection.
Suspect air embolism if CVP falls too low or pt is suddnely hypovolemic. |
|
|
Term
| What are 2 considerations for induction of liver resection? |
|
Definition
1. RSI if ascites
2. Reduced drug doses due to hepatic/renal dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| Can you use a cell-saver in a liver cancer resection? |
|
Definition
NOOOOOO.
Cell saver is only appropriate in NON-CANCER cases. |
|
|
Term
| What is a carcinoid tumor? What can it be located (4)? Where is it commonly located (3)? |
|
Definition
Carcinoid tumor = Slow growing malignancy of chromaffin cells.
Can be located in liver, pancreas, lung, and thymus.
More commonly located in the small intestines, rectum, and stomach. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two diagnostic markers for carcinoid tumors? |
|
Definition
1. 5-hydroxyindoeacetic acid (5-HIAA) in the urine
2. CgA (Chromogranin A) in the serum. |
|
|
Term
| How does carcinoid syndrome present? (5) |
|
Definition
1. Bronchospasm (histamine release)
2. SVT and tricuspid regurgitation
3. Hypotension, decreased CO, flushing (bradykinin release)
4. Abd pain, diarrhea (serotonin release)
5. Hyperglycemia (serotonin mimics epi for glycogenolysis and glycogenesis) |
|
|
Term
| What are 5 things to look for in carcinoid syndrome? |
|
Definition
1. CV collapse due to release of vasoactive mediators.
2. Bronchospasm
3. Cardiac right heart involvement (tricuspid insufficiency)
4. Autonomic stimulation
5. Electrolyte imbalance |
|
|
Term
| What are 3 triggers of carcinoid crisis? |
|
Definition
1. Stress
2. Tumor manipulation
3. Physical stimulation |
|
|
Term
| What drug must you give if you suspect carcinoid tumor? |
|
Definition
Octreotide!!
It's a somatostatin (GH) analogue.
Should be started 2 weeks preoperatuively (do NOT stop) |
|
|
Term
| What should you check preopreatively in a carcinoid tumor pt? (5) |
|
Definition
1. Evaluate for carcinoid syndrome
2. Correct CV instability (volume)
3. Premedicate (to minimize tumor mediator release)
4. Avoid triggers (anxiety, pain, hypoxia, hypercarbia)
5. Avoid drugs that cause histamine release (ketamine, morphine) |
|
|
Term
| What should you do in a carcinoid crisis? (5) |
|
Definition
Determine the cause: manipulation or beta stimulation?
Stop the manipulation, give 100% FiO2.
Reduce volatile agent with hypotension, restore vascular volume.
Give drugs to decrease mediator release (octreotide, esmolol, avoid ephedrine due to alpha/beta stim.; use neo instead)
|
|
|
Term
| What should you give if bronchospasm in carcinoid pt? |
|
Definition
Corticosteroids, atrovent and antihistamines.
Do NOT give epi or theophylline, these worsen the bronchospasm. |
|
|
Term
| Carcinoid crisis is precipitated by ______ or _________. |
|
Definition
| Carcinoid crisis is precipitated by abrupt CV collapse or severe bronchospasm. |
|
|
Term
| What are 5 goals in carcinoid tumor surgery? |
|
Definition
1. Keep their "tanks fulls"
2. Keep patient warm
3. Normocapnia
4. Normocarbia
5. Avoid all histamine releasers |
|
|