Term
| Hepatic Blood Supply is ___% of cardiac output. |
|
Definition
| Hepatic Blood Supply is 25% of cardiac output. |
|
|
Term
| Where does the hepatic blood/oxygen supply come from? |
|
Definition
Hepatic Artery
25% of blood supply
50% Oxygen supply
Portal Vein
75% of blood supply
50% of Oxygen supply
|
|
|
Term
| At what pressures do the hepatic artery and portal vein supply the liver with blood? |
|
Definition
Hepatic artery - at mean aortic pressure
Portal vein - at 6-10mmHg |
|
|
Term
What are the tributaries of the Portal Vein?
T/F Portal HTN causes all of these tributaries to back up/become engorged. |
|
Definition
Inferior Mesenteric Vein
Superior Mesenteric Vein
Splenic Vein (supplied by pancreatic veins)
Gastric Vein
Esophageal Vein
True; this causes things like esophageal varices
|
|
|
Term
| Regulation of hepatic blood flow is designed to do two things: |
|
Definition
Supply adequate oxygen and substrate for the livers intrinsic needs
To allow the liver to serve its purposes for the rest of the body (supplies blood to be "cleaned") |
|
|
Term
Intrinsic Regulation controls _______ in the liver itself and includes 2 mechanisms; List them:
Extrinsic regulation of liver blood flow is controlled by 2 mechanisms: |
|
Definition
Intrinsic regulation controls regional microvasculature in the liver itself
hepatic buffer system
metabolic regulation
neural (mostly SNS)
humoral (epi, glucagon etc) |
|
|
Term
Is there any intrinsic regulation of portal venous flow?
|
|
Definition
| No none; all intrinsic regulation mechanisms occur with hepatic artery flow |
|
|
Term
What does the body do if there is a decrease in blood flow to the liver from portal vein (75% of normal bld supply)?
What is max response?
What is this mechanism called?
|
|
Definition
Increases hepatic artery flow in response to decreased portal vein flow.
Maximum response is 100% increase in hepatic artery flow in response to 50% decrease in portal vein flow.
Hepatic Buffering system
|
|
|
Term
Metabolic Regulation of liver blood flow
Decrease portal blood ___ & ___ content or increased ____ cause & increase in ______ flow.
This type of regulation is most active in the _______ state, much less so in the ____ state. |
|
Definition
Metabolic Regulation
Decrease portal blood pH & O2 content or increased PCO2 cause & increase in hepatic artery flow.
This type of regulation is most active in the postprandial state, much less so in the fasted state.
|
|
|
Term
Hepatic Buffer Response
What is secreted all of the time in the sinusoids and as portal flow decreases then less of this substance is washed out of the liver and thus hepatic arterioles dilate and this increases blood flow to liver. |
|
Definition
Adenosine is secreted all of the time in the sinusoids and as portal flow decreases then less of this substance is washed out of the liver and thus hepatic arterioles dilate and this increases blood flow to liver.
|
|
|
Term
| When is metabolic regulation most active? |
|
Definition
In the Postprandial state
Less active in the fasted state |
|
|
Term
Extrinsic Regulation - Neural
What is Portal Venous pressure dependent on? |
|
Definition
Dependent on the diff in pressures across the:
Splanchnic arteriolar tone
Portal venules
Post-sinusoidal tone (Hepatic Veins)
[image] |
|
|
Term
| Hepatic arterial beds contain which adrenergic receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Portal venous beds contain which adrenergic receptors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T/F Dopamine also has a large effect in the liver.
|
|
Definition
False it is insignificant here
|
|
|
Term
What does glucagon do to the vasculature of the liver?
It accomplishes this effect by? |
|
Definition
Glucagon produces long-lasting arteriolar dilation.
Antagonizing arterial constriction from other responses |
|
|
Term
| So...if a liver is walking down the street and Angiotensin II jumps out from the bushes...what will happen? |
|
Definition
Marked constriction of arterial & portal vasculature
Reduced mesenteric outflow
Reduced total hepatic blood flow |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of Vasopressin on portal vein blood flow? |
|
Definition
Intense vasoconstriction of splanchnic arterial vessels while decreasing portal venous resistance,
= Marked decrease in Portal Vein blood flow |
|
|
Term
Esophageal Variceal bleeding can be treated by high doses of __________ to reduce portal hypertension & bleeding?
What is the more common treatment for esophageal varicies? |
|
Definition
Vasopressin
More common tx is Octreotide/sandostatin
(inhibits glucagon's vasodilation effect)
|
|
|
Term
| Which ANS system predominates in the liver? |
|
Definition
| Sympathetics predominate over Parasympathetics |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of Hepatic SNS stimulation? (3) |
|
Definition
Hepatic vascular resistance increases
Hepatic blood volume decreases
Blood glucose increases
(increased gluconeogenesis, increased glycogenolysis) |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of hepatic parasympathetic innervation? |
|
Definition
Blood glucose decreases
(increases glycogen synthesis, increases glucoses uptake) |
|
|
Term
| How much of the total blood volume does the liver hold? |
|
Definition
| 10-15% of the total blood volume |
|
|
Term
| How much blood is provided to the body by the autotransfusion mechanism of the liver, how does this occur? |
|
Definition
| 80% of hepatic blood volume (400-500ml) can be transferred to central circulation within seconds, this occurs d/t intense SNS stimulation |
|
|
Term
| How do anesthetic agents predispose patients to circulatory decompensation? |
|
Definition
| They suppress the SNS and attenuate the response of transferring hepatic blood volume to central circulation. |
|
|
Term
Impaired vasoconstrictive responses due to severe liver disease also exacerbates hypotension from hypovolemia. T/F
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The liver synthesizes all coagulation factors except? Where are these 3 factors produced? |
|
Definition
III - tissue thromboplastin (vascular wall)
IV - Ca++ (diet)
VIII:vWF (vascular endothelial cells) |
|
|
Term
| What are the vitamin K dependent factors produced by the liver (6)? |
|
Definition
II - prothrombin
VII -Proconvertin
IX - Christmas factor
X - Stuart-Prower factor
Protien C
Protien S |
|
|
Term
| The synthesis of ______ in the liver modulates platelet production? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are modultors of fibrinolysis and clotting produced by the liver? (3)
|
|
Definition
Antithrombin III
Protein C and S
Fibrinolytic Factors (TPA and urokinase)
----------The liver is therefore important not only in production of clotting factors, but in modulating their consumption by producing fibrinolysis factors. |
|
|
Term
T/F all liver derived coagulation factors have short T1/2 lives?
Which coagulation factor has the shortest half life and what is its 1/2 life? |
|
Definition
True
Factor VII (Proconvertin)
T1/2 of 4 hours |
|
|
Term
| What may be a useful monitor/test of acute liver failure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If you've been on Coumadin and I give you Vit K to reverse its effect and your PT/INR doesn't normalize; this may indicate __________________? |
|
Definition
| This may indicate underlying hepatic dysfunction |
|
|
Term
The liver synthesizes and secretes 3 endocrine substances:
It biotransforms:
It also inactivates 5 substances: |
|
Definition
Synthesis and secretion of:
IGF - 1
Angiotensinogen
Thrombopoietin
Biotransformation of:
conversion of T4 to T3
Inactivation of: Corticosteroids
Aldosterone
Estrogen, androgens
Insulin
Anti-diuretic hormone |
|
|
Term
Bilirubin is the end product of _________?
What % is derived from Hgb breakdown. |
|
Definition
Heme degradation
75% derived from hemoglobin breakdown |
|
|
Term
KNOW What are the steps of bilirubin excretion? (5)
___% of conjugated bilirubin is absorbed in intestine & returns to liver via ______, where it is sent back through bile to small intestine. |
|
Definition
- Bilirubin binds to albumin & is transported to liver
- In liver, Albumin is removed from unconjugated bilirubin
- Then bilirubin is conjugated primarily with glucuronic acid
- Conjugated bilirubin is excreted into bile
- Passes into intestine, where it is converted to urobiliongen and excreted
10% of conjugated bilirubin is absorbed in intestine & returns to liver via portal vein, where it is sent back through bile to small intestine. |
|
|
Term
| Dietary carbohydrate arrives in liver via what vessel? |
|
Definition
The Portal Vein
(makes sense b/c this receives blood from gut) |
|
|
Term
| What are the postprandial metabolic functions of the liver? |
|
Definition
| Insulin mediated hepatic extraction of glucose from the portal vein ----- Excess glucose converted to glycogen |
|
|
Term
How much glucose can the liver store? How long could this supply the body with glucose in the fasted state?
|
|
Definition
Glucose is converted to glycogen ----- the Liver can store about 75 gms of glycogen ---- 24hrs
|
|
|
Term
| What are the fasting hepatic metabolic functions? |
|
Definition
Initially glucagon mediated glycogen breakdown
Then muscle & fat catabolism & gluconeogenesis |
|
|
Term
| In chronic liver disease, what is hyperglycemia primarily due to? |
|
Definition
Portosystemic shunting
(glucose is not taken into the liver to be stored because of portal system congestion and instead it goes straight back into the systemic circulation via a shunt per lecture) |
|
|
Term
What causes the hypoglycemia that is more common then hyperglycemia in advanced liver disease? (3)
What other liver condition may cause hypoglycemia? |
|
Definition
Impaired glycogen storage
Impaired glycogenolysis
Impaired gluconeogenesis
Lg hepatocelllular CA d/t glucose uptake by tumor |
|
|
Term
| The liver makes fatty acids from excess? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Then what does the liver do with the fatty acids? |
|
Definition
Esterfies FFA to form
Triglycerides
Cholesterol
Phospholipids |
|
|
Term
| How are fatty acids transported to adipocytes in other parts of the body? |
|
Definition
| Packaged into lipoproteins for transport |
|
|
Term
| T/F the liver is capable of synthesizing the essential amino acids? |
|
Definition
| False only non-essential amino acids ----- Essential a.a. must come from your diet |
|
|
Term
| Proteins are degraded into amino acids in the hepatic _________. |
|
Definition
| Proteins are degraded into amino acids in the hepatic lysosomes. |
|
|
Term
| After proteins are broken down, what are the amino acids used for? (3) |
|
Definition
Glucose production (gluconeogenesis)
Lipid metabolism (lipoproteins)
Further deaminated to keto-acids, glutamine, or ammonia |
|
|
Term
| The byproduct of amino acid or protien breakdown by the liver is ammonia. Ammonia is converted to ___ in the liver and then is excreted by the _____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With liver dysfunction what does the failure of ammonia degradation in the liver lead to? |
|
Definition
| Increasing serum ammonia levels and hepatic encephalopathy |
|
|
Term
| How much of the protien produced by the liver is albumin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Albumin makes up ___% of the plasma protiens |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F The primary determinant of colloid oncotic pressure is Albumin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whats the half life of endogenous Albumin? Exogenous? |
|
Definition
20 days (thus not a good marker to determine acute liver function)
16hrs = exogenous albumin
|
|
|
Term
| Where is Psuedocholinesterase made? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Psuedocholinesterase is required for the degradation of what four drugs used in anesthesia?
Is it okay to use Suc with liver disease? |
|
Definition
Succinylcholine
Mivacurium
Ester local anesthetics
Esmolol
YES - just may last a bit longer, but shouldnt be a big deal |
|
|
Term
| What are Kupffer cells? How much of the liver is made up of Kupffer cells? |
|
Definition
Tissue macrophages which filter toxins, bacteria, debris from GI tract (an immune tissue)
10% of hepatic mass |
|
|
Term
The impairment of Kupffer cell function is often a precursor to ______ and _______.
|
|
Definition
The impairment of Kupffer cell function is often a precursor to Sepsis and Multi-organ failure. Particularly following splanchnic ischemia or severe GI pathology
|
|
|
Term
| Protiens made by the liver do what to the volume of distribution of a drug? |
|
Definition
| Decrease the volume of distribution of drugs --- decrease free drug concentrations |
|
|
Term
| The sum of all processes used by liver to eliminate a drug from the body is? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hepatic Biotransformation is metabolism of drug by hepatocytes into _____, _________ substances for excretion in _____ or _____.
|
|
Definition
Hepatic Biotransformation is metabolism of drug by hepatocytes into inactive, water-soluable (polar) substances for excretion in urine or bile.
|
|
|
Term
| What do Phase 1 reactions in the liver do to drugs? What enzymes facilitate these reactions? |
|
Definition
render drugs more polar for excretion by...
Oxidation
Reduction
N-dealkylation
Most involve cytochrome P450 enzymes |
|
|
Term
What occurs during phase II reactions?
What enzymes are required? |
|
Definition
Water solubility of the compound is enhanced
Requires transferase enzymes |
|
|
Term
| What is Intrinsic Clearance? |
|
Definition
The fraction of drug metabolized or extracted during a single pass through the liver
|
|
|
Term
What is the basis of classification of drugs as having low to high hepatic extraction ratios?
What is clearance determined by with a high hepatic extraction ratio drug? |
|
Definition
the drug's Intrinsic Clearance; is it high or low
Hepatic Blood Flow
(as BF increases the rate of clearance increases linearly...low hepatic extraction ratio drugs are not affected much by liver BF per graph in handout) |
|
|
Term
| What is clearance determined by with a low hepatic extraction ratio drug? |
|
Definition
Clearance relatively independent of hepatic BF
Clearance much more effected by increased free fraction/fraction unbound to proteins
(i.e. hypoalbuminemia)
(they have a linear relationship with free fraction; more free fraction = increase effect of drug and more extraction by the liver per graph and lec.) |
|
|
Term
Reduced hepatic blood flow prolongs the T1/2 and increases the effects of which drugs?
Give an example of anesthetic that decreases liver blood flow and thus may prolong extraction and metabolism of some drugs. |
|
Definition
Those with High Hepatic Extraction Ratios
*linear relationship*
IAs |
|
|
Term
| What is the result of hypoalbuminemia regarding drug action? |
|
Definition
Increased drug effect (more free drug)
More rapid clearance of low HER drugs
*linear relationship* |
|
|
Term
| The volume of distribution of some drugs will be increased by _______________ and _______. |
|
Definition
| The volume of distribution of some drugs will be increased by hypoalbuminemia and ascites. |
|
|
Term
Portosystemic shunting allows orally administred drugs to partially bypass the liver. What is the result?
What is the bottom line with administering drugs with liver dysfunction? |
|
Definition
Increased systemic effect
Prolonged duration of action
titrate carefully |
|
|
Term
List examples of
Low hepatic extraction ratio drugs (3)
Intermediate (2)
High (9) |
|
Definition
Low hepatic extraction ratio drugs (3)
Alfentanyl
Diazepam
Thiopental
Intermediate (2)
Midazolam
Vecuronium
High (9)
Bupivacaine
Lidocaine
Etomidate
Propofol
Ketamine
Labetalol
Fentanyl
Morphine
Sufentanyl |
|
|
Term
Liver func. tests don't give a dx of a specific hepatic disease...so what are they even good for?
What are the 3 categories of dysfunction?
|
|
Definition
They can identify a category of dysfunction
- Hepatocellular
- Hepatobiliary
- Hepatic synthesis
|
|
|
Term
What are tests that will indicate hepatocellular damage?
|
|
Definition
Transaminases
AST (SGOT)
ALT (SGPT)
|
|
|
Term
AST is located...?
ALT is located...? |
|
Definition
AST is in many tissues
*less specific
Heart
Muscle
Kidney
Brain
ALT is primarily in liver |
|
|
Term
| What is indicated by mild elevations (<3 fold) in AST/ALT? |
|
Definition
Fatty liver
Nonalcoholic steatohepatitis
Drug toxicity
Chronic viral hepatitis |
|
|
Term
| What is indicated by larger increases (3-22x) in AST/ALT? |
|
Definition
Acute Hepatitis
Exacerbation of chronic hepatitis |
|
|
Term
| What is indicated by the largest increases in AST/ALT? |
|
Definition
Drug or toxin-induced hepatocellular necrosis
Severe viral hepatitis
Ischemic hepatitis secondary to shock |
|
|
Term
| Are AST and ALT levels good prognostic indicators of hepatocellular damage? why? |
|
Definition
Nope - decreasing levels may indicate recovery from injury or few surviving hepatocytes left
Note: These enzymes increase in circulation with damage to the hepatocytes b/c they leak out of the damaged cells |
|
|
Term
| AST/ALT ratio of ___ is typical in alcoholic liver disease |
|
Definition
AST/ALT ratio >2 is typical in alcoholic liver disease
|
|
|
Term
| AST/ALT ratio of __ is more common with viral hepatitis? |
|
Definition
AST/ALT Ratio <1 is more common with viral hepatitis
|
|
|
Term
| When might we see high levels of LDH with liver disease? Is LDH a good indicator of liver function/disease? |
|
Definition
| Heaptocelluar necrosis -- But has very low specificity for liver disease and is not particularly useful |
|
|
Term
What is GST?
Where is GST found? |
|
Definition
Glutathione S-Transferase - a phase II enzyme
Many tissues, but isoenzyme B specific to liver |
|
|
Term
| GST is a useful marker of progression or resolution of liver injury d/t its _________? |
|
Definition
| GST is a useful marker of progression or resolution of liver injury d/t its short T1/2 of 90 minutes |
|
|
Term
Where is GST found in the highest concentration?
What is significant about this area? |
|
Definition
In Centrolobular (zone 3) hepatocytes
These are most susceptible hypatocytes to ischemic injury and toxic drug metabolites |
|
|
Term
| Where is alkaline phophatase found? |
|
Definition
| Many organs -- Primarily liver & bone in healthy people |
|
|
Term
| An elevation of Alkaline Phosphatase disproportianate to AST and ALT levels is indicative of what? |
|
Definition
Obstruction to bile flow
May be elevated during normal pregnancy |
|
|
Term
| What the freakin heck is 5'-Nucleotidase (5'NT)? |
|
Definition
| An alkaline phosphatase specific to liver disease, so used to assess whether an elevated AP is of hepatic origin. |
|
|
Term
What is the most sensitive test for biliary tract disease?
BUT what makes it un-useful? |
|
Definition
GGT (Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase)
un-useful b/c found in so many tissues it lacks specificity |
|
|
Term
| The GGT has been largely replaced by ____. |
|
Definition
| The GGT has been argely replaced by 5'NT, d/t its better specificity to hepatobiliary issues. |
|
|
Term
| What do Bilirubin levels assess? |
|
Definition
Severity of jaundice
*we look at conjugated and unconjugated levels* |
|
|
Term
| High unconjugated bilirubin levels (what level mg/dl) indicates what, highest levels (mg/dl) indicate? |
|
Definition
1-4mg/dl
Excessive production (hemolysis) or Defective conjugation
>5mg/dl
Liver disease |
|
|
Term
Conjugated Bilirubin elevation indicate? (2)
Conjugated bilirubin levels of ___ or greater can cause renal damage & compound situation. |
|
Definition
impaired hepatic excretion
extrahepatic obstruction (ie bile duct)
liver is conjugated as it should but it cant get it out
>35mg/dl
|
|
|
Term
| How is hepatic synthetic function (livers ability to synthesize things) measured? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Decreasing serum albumin levels in the absence of some other cause implies _______? Other non-liver cause are? |
|
Definition
Worsening of chronic liver disease
burns
nephrotic syndrome
poor nutrition
fluid retention
|
|
|
Term
T/F Albumin (endogenous) is only a long term measurement of function b/c half life is 20 days.
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are useful markers in acute hepatocellular injury?
May not see a change in above markers with mild or even moderate liver injury b/c? |
|
Definition
PT/INR
(d/t short 4 hr 1/2 life of Factor VII)
b/c the body has excess factors floating around and it takes awhile to deplete them per Anderson |
|
|
Term
What screening test is ultrasound used for?
|
|
Definition
Hepatic disease
Cholelithiasis (gallstones)
Biliary Tract disease |
|
|
Term
| What is the best technique for diagnosis of Biliary tract obstruction and Cholelithiasis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides a better anatomic definition than ultrasound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is ERCP and why is it used? |
|
Definition
Endoscopic Retrograde CholangioPancreatography
Endoscopic guidance of a catheter through the ampulla of Vater (sphincter of Oddi) to inject contrast into the pancreatic duct & common bile duct (both which empty from sphincter of Oddi into sm intestine)
Technique of choice when choledocholithiasis (stone in common bile duct) is suspected b/c a sphincterotomy can be done at the same time & the stone can be removed. |
|
|
Term
What type of bilirubin would be elevated with a common bile duct obstruction?
Tx sphincter of Oddi spasms with ____ per lec.
What is the only way to know the specific nature of hepatic damage? |
|
Definition
Conjugated (liver is still doing its job, the bilirubin is just not getting into GI tract for elimination d/t obstruction)
Glucagon
Liver Biopsy |
|
|
Term
| What is the other name for the sphincter of Odi? What ducts make up common bile duct? Which other duct empties into common bile duct at sphincter of Odi? |
|
Definition
ampulla of Vater
common hepatic duct and cystic duct
pancreatic duct
|
|
|
Term
| Picture of common bile duct |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When are percutaneous liver biopsies contraindicated?
What biopsy technique is safer when the coags are out of whack?
T/F Liver biopsies can also be done open? |
|
Definition
Platlets less than 60,000
PT more than 3 secs greater than control
Transjugular
True |
|
|
Term
| How many Americans have some form of hepatobiliary disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many americans have Hep B/C? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Up to ___% of those with Hepatitis C may go on to Cirrhosis. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| _____% of those who consume large amounts of alcohol will develop Severe alcoholic liver disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Acute viral hepatitis reported in the US
HAV?
HBV?
HCV?
HDV and HEV?
|
|
Definition
HAV - 20%
HBV - 50%
HCV - 30%
HDV and HEV - seen more in 3rd world countries along with HAV
|
|
|
Term
What is the most common blood-borne infection in the U.S?
This accounts for ___% of chronic liver disease?
Chronic liver disease will develop in __% of Hep B positive pts & __% of Hep C positive pts. |
|
Definition
HCV
This accounts for 40% of chronic liver disease
Chronic liver disease will develop in 1-5% of Hep B positive pts & 75% of Hep C positive pts. |
|
|
Term
| What are predictable, dose-dependent causes of drug induced hepatitis? (3) |
|
Definition
Acetaminophen
Carbon tetrachloride (dry cleaner)
Amanita Phalloides (mushroom) |
|
|
Term
| What are unpredictable, non dose-dependent causes of drug induced hepatitis?(5) |
|
Definition
NSAIDS
Volatile Anesthetics
Antibiotics
Antihypertensives
Anticonvulsants |
|
|
Term
| What was the IAs most commonly associated w/ occurrence of fulminant heaptitis leading to death? What was ratio? |
|
Definition
Halothane
1/35000 - Kind of alot
*Note only 1/3000 were nonfatal |
|
|
Term
What is the biggest risk factor for Hepatitis associated with Halothane?
List 4 other risk factors: |
|
Definition
Prior exposure to Halothane (10x more frequent in those with multiple exposures)
female
obesity
Hispanic
Adulthood
(most over 50, children resistant) |
|
|
Term
| When was Halothane induced hepatitis seen in children? |
|
Definition
| only following multiple exposures |
|
|
Term
| What are the classic symptoms of Halothane Hepatitis...what occurs ____ days later? |
|
Definition
Fever
Chills
Anorexia
Nausea
Myalgias
Rash
Jaundice 3-6 days later |
|
|
Term
| What are the predictors of a poor prognosis with Halothane Hepatitis? (3) |
|
Definition
Overt Jaundice
Age over 40
Obesity |
|
|
Term
| Whats wierd about halothane hepatitis? |
|
Definition
Affects only a very small percentage of those exposed
Incidence & severity unrelated to dose |
|
|
Term
What are the clues to the mechanism of halothane hepatitis?
What do we think is the mechanism? |
|
Definition
Idiosyncratic
Prior exposure common
Delayed onset
Antibody production
Eosinophilia
Circulating immune complexes
Antibodies that bind to antigens from halothane treated rabbits
Occupational exposure (Pediatric anesthesiologists have higher serum autoantibodies than controls. Levels are higher w female pedi anesthetists.)
Allergic or immunologic
|
|
|
Term
T/F there are currently no reports of halothane hepatitis from occupational exposure.
Why is there a risk for hepatitis with IAs exposure?
List the IAs in order from most to least metabolized with metabolite: |
|
Definition
True
metabolism & production of fluoroacetyl metabolites
H>E>I>D>S (0 fluoroacetyl metabolites for S) |
|
|
Term
Volatile Anesthetics and Hepatic Blood Flow
Which IAs has the most cardiovascular & respiratory depression and the greatest reduction in hepatic arterial flow?
|
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Volatile Anesthetics and Hepatic Blood Flow
Which other IAs has a marked reduction (30%) in hepatic blood flow? |
|
Definition
| Desflurane -- This IAs may also decrease splanchnic and hepatic oxygen reserves |
|
|
Term
Volatile Anesthetics and Hepatic Blood Flow
Hepatic blood flow and oxygenation are well preserved with which IAs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which IAs is best for preserving blood flow & O2 to liver?
List 2 other benefits of this IA for the liver:
When is this IA NOT best? Then which one is? |
|
Definition
Sevo best preserves blood flow & oxygen delivery to liver
1.Hepatic arterial buffer system remains intact 2.Less reactive metabolic products produced
At very high MAC level (2.0MAC)
Iso is better at these high levels *per graph slide 53-54 |
|
|
Term
| No convincing evidence that N2O causes hepatic toxicity in the absence of a precarious O2 supply-demand ratio in the liver...But!!!! |
|
Definition
| N2O increases SNS tone so may slightly reduce hepatic arterial & portal venous flow also N2O inhibits methionine synthetase potentially producing toxic effects in the liver |
|
|
Term
| Why does it suck to be a dentist? |
|
Definition
| 60,000 dentists & dental assistants found a 1.7 fold increase in liver disease (possibly d/t N2O use) |
|
|
Term
| Ketamine produces a dose-dependent increase in markers of hepatic injury. What is the mechanism? |
|
Definition
Sympathomimetic vs direct hepatotoxicity
Altered hepatic metabolism |
|
|
Term
When might Thiopental cause some hepatic dysfunction?
T/F Other induction agents appear to be safe? |
|
Definition
At doses greater than 750mg
True |
|
|
Term
Opiods produce no significant effect on liver T/F?
What is a SE of opioids that could cause liver issues?
How do you treat this SE? |
|
Definition
True as long as blood flow & oxygenation remain normal
Spincter of Oddi Spasm
(equal risk with all narcotics)
glucagon, nitroglycerin, narcan |
|
|
Term
| What are some non-pharmacologic causes of hepatitis? |
|
Definition
Sepsis and Inflammation
(hypovolemia & splanichnic hypoperfusion/ lg bacterial toxin load/ impairment of of hepatic arterial buffer response)
Hypoxia and Ischemia
(Liver is extremely sensitive to hypoxic insult; remember 25% of CO goes to liver normally and w/o that ischemic hepatitis can result) |
|
|
Term
| How might surgical stress in general effect hepatic perfusion? (3) |
|
Definition
Sympathetic nervous system stimulation
Release of vasopressin (ADH)
Activation of renin-angioensin-aldosterone sys.
all equal less liver blood flow |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of a laparotomy on hepatic perfusion? |
|
Definition
| Produces marked vasoconstriction, reducing splanchnic and hepatic blood flow |
|
|
Term
| What is the effect of a laparoscopy on hepatic perfusion? |
|
Definition
| Decreased surgical stress response but... Pneumoperitoneum decreases splanchnic & hepatic flow |
|
|
Term
| List 2 bad and 2 good effects of CABG on hepatic perfusion? |
|
Definition
Bad
Low flow, non-pulsatile perfusion
Catacholamine usage
Good
Hypothermia
Hepatic arterial buffer response helps maintain blood flow |
|
|
Term
Chronic Hepatitis implies hepatic inflammation & ______ for greater than _____ months. Classified based on: (3) |
|
Definition
Hepatic inflammation and necrosis for >6 months
Classified based on:
Cause (based on serologic testing)
Grade (degree of necrosis & inflammation)
Stage (degree of fibrosis) |
|
|
Term
What % of acute HCV progresses to chronic HCV
1.8 million of US population has HCV and it is the most common indicator for __________. |
|
Definition
85% of acute HCV progresses to chronic HCV
Most common indication for liver transplantation
*also cirrhosis per Anderson |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of chronic liver disease in U.S.? Up to ___% of americans have this disease? |
|
Definition
Fatty liver disease (non alcohol)
Up to 24% of Americans have NAFLD |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Fat accumulation in liver >5% by weight |
|
|
Term
What are the risk factors for NAFLD? (2)
Are these pts symptomatic?
Do they develop cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
Obesity (70%)
DM II (75%)
Most asymptomatic
Some develop cirrhosis (<5% per Anderson) |
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of Alcoholic liver disease? |
|
Definition
Fatty liver (steatosis)
Alcoholic hepatitis
Cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
| T/F (Alcohol) fatty liver disease may develop even after only a brief period of heavy alcohol intake. AFLD is typically long lasting and chronic. |
|
Definition
| False - it may develop after just a brief period of heavy drinking, but it is benign and resolves usually. |
|
|
Term
Alcoholic hepatitis is a precursor of ______.
It has up to a ____ fold increase in aminotransferase.
Describe the AST/ALT ratio with Alcoholic hepatitis. |
|
Definition
Alcoholic hepatitis is a precursor of cirrhosis
up to 10-fold increase in aminotransferases (ie GST)
AST typically higher than ALT (>2 ratio) |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for alcoholic hepatitis? |
|
Definition
Abstinence
Bedrest
Adequate nutrition |
|
|
Term
| Perioperative morbidity in alcohol abusers increases ___X? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What are the most frequent etiologies of Cirrhosis?(2)
|
|
Definition
Hep C
Alcoholic Hepatitis
Cirrhosis is the 12th leading cause of death in US and affects 3 million people |
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of Cirrhosis? (4) |
|
Definition
Anorexia
Weakness
N/V
Abdominal pain |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs of Cirrhosis? (5) |
|
Definition
Jaundice
Encephalopathy
Spider Nevi
Hepatosplenomegaly
Ascites
JES HA |
|
|
Term
| T/F Cirrhosis only affects the liver. |
|
Definition
| False, It affects nearly every organ system in the body. |
|
|
Term
| What are the cardiovasuclar effects of Cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
Hyperdynamic circulation
Decreased PVR
Normal to increased stroke volume
Normal filling pressures
Mildly increased heart rate
Low to normal arterial blood pressure
Total blood volume increased |
|
|
Term
| What is a cause of cirrhosis that can result in cardiomyopathy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| *What is the hallmark of end-stage cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| *Describe the steps that lead to portal HTN |
|
Definition
↑vascular resistance to portal BF (from liver) + ↑portal venous inflow from dilated splanchnic arterioles
↓
↑portal venous pressure & subsequent development of portosystemic collaterals & shunting
↓
Majority of portal venous blood bypassing the liver |
|
|
Term
How is hepatic oxygenation and BF maintained with Cirrhosis & Portal HTN?
|
|
Definition
Hepatic arterial buffer response
(remember 75% of liver BF normally comes from portal vein & 50% of oxygen) |
|
|
Term
| What are the consequences of portosystemic shunting? (6) |
|
Definition
Esophageal varices
(back up in esophageal vein)
Hepatic encephalopathy
Altered drug metabolism
(many drugs bypass liver via shunts)
Susceptibility of bacterial infection
(liver not cleaning normally, & most GI absorption going systemic before going to liver)
Ascites
Splenomegaly |
|
|
Term
| Gastroesophageal Varices are present in how many cirrhotic patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many gastroesophageal varices will bleed?
___% that are fatal?
T/F most will not rebleed if controlled with medications. |
|
Definition
1/3
30% are fatal
False, most will rebleed |
|
|
Term
What is the management of Gastroesophageal Varices? (5)
|
|
Definition
Fluid resuscitation/blood replacement
Airway protection
Octreotide (synthetic somatostatin - blocks glucagon's vasodilatory effects)
Endoscopic band ligation or sclerotherapy
TIPS
|
|
|
Term
| What are the factors involved in pulmonary dysfunction due to cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
Interstitial and airway edema
(dec albumin production = increased edema)
Mechanical effects of ascites
(dec FRC)
Pleural effusions
Hepatopulmonary Syndrome
(dyspnea & hypoxia with liver disease; worse when upright) |
|
|
Term
| What is the triad of Hepatopulmonary Syndrome? |
|
Definition
1. Chronic liver disease
2. Intrapulmonary Vascular Dilations
Vascular dilations result in arteriovenous communications & hypoxia
3. Increased alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient
d/t pulm edema from vascular congestion |
|
|
Term
What is the most common major complication in cirrhosis?
|
|
Definition
| Ascites - 50% develop ascites within 10 years |
|
|
Term
| 50% of cirrhotics with ascites die within ___ yrs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The pathogenesis of ascites is poorly understood but involves ____ and ____ retention and ______. |
|
Definition
Na+ and H2O
hypoalbuminemia |
|
|
Term
| What is the management of ascites? (5) |
|
Definition
Na restriction & gentle diuresis
(if you diuresis too fast may cause RAS activation and subsequent renal issues; plus these pts don't tolerate losses in BV very well d/t lack of liver reservoir fx)
Paracentesis
Peritoneal-venous shut
TIPS
Transplant |
|
|
Term
| What brings on spontaneous bacterial peritonitis? |
|
Definition
| Develops secondary to translocation of bacteria from the intestines (incr. permeability in walls) to lymph nodes and subsequent bacteremia |
|
|
Term
| What is the tx for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis? |
|
Definition
Cefotaxime (3rd generation cephalosporin)
Long term antibiotic prophylaxis |
|
|
Term
Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis
1/3 of cases develop what other organ dysfunction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis
Mortality? With and without renal dysfunction? |
|
Definition
54% with renal dysfunction
9% without renal dysfunction |
|
|
Term
| What is hepatorenal syndrome? |
|
Definition
↓Renal perfusion & GFR seen with cirrhosis
|
|
|
Term
| Characteristics of Hepatorenal Syndrome (4) |
|
Definition
Intense renal vasoconstriction
Low GFR = hypoperfusion
Preserved renal tubular function
Normal renal histology
(no injury to kidney tissue at first it is just a perfusion issue per lec) |
|
|
Term
Describe the pathophysiology of hepatorenal syndrome
(5 steps) |
|
Definition
Decreased portal vein blood flow to liver
↓
Prostacyclin, nitric oxide, glucagon, adenosine
↓
Splanchnic arterial vasodilation (metabolic/buffer system)
↓
Reduced effective blood volume
(d/t pooling in portal system -- also d/t acities fluid shifts)
↓
Activation of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and sympathetic stimulation
↓
Intense renal vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| What are two situations in cirrhosis that can cause acute renal failure & acute tubular necrosis? |
|
Definition
1. The livers role as a blood reservoir is impaired so even modest blood loss can produce severe hypotension and lead to acute ischemic injury
2. Obstructive Jaundice & elevated levels of conjugated bilirubin contribute to renal toxicity (>35mg/dl).
*so diuresis gently and stay on top of fluid needs* |
|
|
Term
| What is the occurance of thrombocytopenia w/ liver dx? |
|
Definition
| 50% - liver normally makes thrombopoietin which stimulates platelet production |
|
|
Term
What are the 2 major coagultion disorders with cirrhosis?
What is the specific cause of each? |
|
Definition
Disorders of clotting factors & vit k (decreased synthesis)
Thrombocytopenia (backed up in spleen and incr destruction) |
|
|
Term
| What is the biggest cause of thrombocytopenia with Cirrhosis? List 4 other contributing factors: |
|
Definition
Portal hypertension-induced splenomegaly with seqestration of up to 90% of circulating platletes in spleen
1. Increased destruction by immune mechanisms
2. Low-grade DIC
3. Sepsis
4. Bone marrow suppression by ehtanol, folate deficiency |
|
|
Term
| What contributes to hypoglycemia and acidosis w/ cirrhosis? (2) |
|
Definition
1. Glycogen depletion (d/t poor nutritional state) &
interference with gluconeogenesis (by ETOH)
2. Impaired conversion of lactic acid to lactate & then to
glucose
|
|
|
Term
| What is a terrible thing that happens to men w/ cirrhosis? |
|
Definition
| Gonadal dysfunction - Feminization, gynecomastia, shrinkage of testes and prostate |
|
|
Term
| How do endocrine disorders associated with cirrhosis affect women? |
|
Definition
Oligomenorrhea
Amenorrhea
"men become women and women become men per Dr. Anderson" |
|
|
Term
| Describe hepatic encephalopathy. |
|
Definition
Reversible, metabolic encephalopathy
Ranging from minimal personality changes or sleep disturbances to confusion, lethargy, coma
30-60% of cirrhotics |
|
|
Term
| What are precipitators of Hepatic Encephalopathy? |
|
Definition
Large dietary protein load = inc ammonia
GI Bleed
Constipation
Diuretics
Azotemia
(dec renal perfusion = incr. nitrogen waste products ie BUN and urea)
Surgery & anesthesia |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important factor in causing HE? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the possible mechanisms of the global depression seen in hepatic encephalopathy? (4) |
|
Definition
Increased availability of agonist ligands of GABA receptors, so called natural benzodiazipines
(Improvement in mental status with flumazenil)
Disruption of blood-brain barrier
Neurotoxic compounds
Impaired cerebral energy metabolism |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for HE? |
|
Definition
Prevention
Lactulose
Neomycin
Zinc
Liver Transplant |
|
|
Term
| How does lactulose treat HE? |
|
Definition
Not broken down in the intestine
Produces mvmt of ammonia from blood to bowel
Cathartic (cleansing/purging) |
|
|
Term
| How does Neomycin treat HE? |
|
Definition
| Reduces urease-producing bacteria in gut |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Two enzymes needed for converstion of ammonia to urea are zinc dependent |
|
|
Term
| What is the 3rd most frequent cause of death from CA? |
|
Definition
Primary Hepatocellular Carcinoma
2.4/100,000 in U.S. |
|
|
Term
When does primary hepatocellular carcionoma occur?
|
|
Definition
Usually follows cirrhosis
Worldwide - large majority follow viral hepatitis
U.S. - 30-40% after viral hepatitis |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for primary hepatocellular carcinoma? |
|
Definition
Liver transplant
Few patients have a surgically resectable tumor at the time of presentation |
|
|
Term
When does pregnancy-related liver disease present?
What is this type of liver disease called?
What syndrome is commonly seen with it? |
|
Definition
3rd trimester or immediately post-partum
Actue Fatty Liver of Pregnancy
HELLP |
|
|
Term
Characteristics of Acute Fatty Liver of Pregnancy
Severe?
Recovery?
Tx? |
|
Definition
Rarely severe
Most recover fully
Treatment: Expedite delivery
(without delivery pt will go into acute liver failure and die without transplant per Stolting) |
|
|
Term
What is HELLP?
When may this be seen?
What is tx? |
|
Definition
Hemolysis
Elevated Liver Enzymes
Low Platelets
Liver disease of Pregnancy
(caused by ischemic hepatocellular necrosis that will continue until baby is delivered)
Expedite delivery |
|
|
Term
| What in our pre-op history will indicate acute liver failure? |
|
Definition
Nause/Malaise
↓
Rapid onset of jaundice
↓
Altered mental status
|
|
|
Term
List exam findings that would make you suspicious of hepatic disease (9)
|
|
Definition
- Icterus (jaundiced sclera)
- jaundice
- ascites
- spider angiomata
- petechiae
- asterixis (push hand back and if it flutters = liver issues)
- gynecomastia
- splenomegaly
- palpable enlarged liver
|
|
|
Term
| If there is no history or physical exam suggestive of liver disease should we draw labs looking for it? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| T/F If hepatic disease is known or suspected you should draw labs to quantify degree of dysfunction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What should we do if we have abnormal labs in the absence of history or physical exam findings?
(previously healthy non-liver diseased pt) |
|
Definition
| Delay surgery to avoid catching someone in the early, undiagnosed stages of liver disease - Not always practical |
|
|
Term
T/F Acute hepatic disease, regardless of the etiology, increases perioperative morbidity and mortality
Elective surgery should be postponed if the patient is known to have _____ hepatic disease.
|
|
Definition
True by 2-3X
acute hepatic disease |
|
|
Term
When do you investigate and elevated AST/ALT?
If greater than 2X normal what should you do?
If second test still >2X norm then if ALT>AST consider _____ and if AST>ALT consider ______.
T/F a formal evaluation with these pts will be required before surgery can proceed? |
|
Definition
When it is greater than 2X normal
(if less than 2X then proceed with surgery)
Repeat test
ALT>AST (ratio <1) = viral hepatitis
AST>ALT (ratio >2) = ETOH/drug abuse
True
|
|
|
Term
If pt with elevated AST/ALT and abnormal INR then consider ______ dysfunction and ____ surgery.
Biliary disease is indicated with what abnormal labs?
When is it ok to proceed with surgery? |
|
Definition
hepatobiliary dysfuction
delay (needs workup)
If Alkaline phosphatase elevated >2X norm with abnormal GGT and bilirubin
If AP up <2X and normal GGT and Bilirubin then you can |
|
|
Term
What risk factors are taken into account when assessing the severity of hepatic disease?
If a pt has 7-8 of these risk factors they have a ____% risk for complications. |
|
Definition
- Child-Pugh factors
- Ascites
- Cirrhosis (other than primary biliary)
- Serum creatinine
- COPD
- Preop infection
- Preop upper GI bleed
- Higher ASA physical status
- Intraop hypotension
- Higher surgical severity score
100% |
|
|
Term
| List components of Child-Pugh (1972) Periopertiave Risk Assessment Tool: |
|
Definition
Serum Albumin
Serum Bilirubin
Ascites
Encephalopathy
PT/INR |
|
|
Term
| Preoperative concerns include... |
|
Definition
Extent of liver disease
Age
Coexisting disease
Type, location, duration of surgery |
|
|
Term
| Which surgeries are associated with the highest risk of death with liver disease? |
|
Definition
| GI and Emergency surgeries |
|
|
Term
| How might our benzos need to be adjusted? |
|
Definition
There is increased cerebral uptake of benzodiazipines
Consider decreased doses
Careful titration |
|
|
Term
| What are the components of the Meld Score? What is this score used for? |
|
Definition
Creatinine
bilirubin
INR
prioritization of liver transplants
meld score = 0.957 x log (creatinine mg/dl) + 0.378 x log (bilirubin mg/dl) + 1.12 x log (INR) + 0.643 |
|
|
Term
| Will the duration/elimination be prolonged with use of Thiopental with liver disease? |
|
Definition
No it is a low HER drug
Elimination T1/2 unchanged in cirrhosis |
|
|
Term
Will the duration/elimination be prolonged with use of Propofol with liver disease?
|
|
Definition
Elimination profile unchanged from control
May see slight increase in recovery time/duration following infusion b/c it is a HHER drug (not significant per Ron) |
|
|
Term
Etomidate - high or low HER?
Clearance
Elimination
Duration/Recovery |
|
Definition
High HER
Clearance unchanged in cirrhosis
Increased Vd may result in prolonged elimination of T1/2 and unpredictable recovery |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
high HER
prolly not the best d/t SNS stimulation but "do what you need to do"
|
|
|
Term
| Morphine and Demerol clearance and elimination with liver dx? |
|
Definition
| 1.5-2 fold decrease in clearance and increase in elimination T1/2 |
|
|
Term
| Alfentanyl free fraction and clearance with liver disease? |
|
Definition
Increased free fraction (less albumin)
Decreased clearance
(clearance would be increased with increase in free fraction of drug but, d/t liver disease & its effect on the CYP450 system, the overall clearance is decreased--remember low HER drugs are much more dependant on CYP450 syst) |
|
|
Term
Fentanyl
Volume of distribution
Elimination T1/2 |
|
Definition
No change in volume of distribution
Increased Elimination T1/2 d/t decreased clearance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
No significant pharmacokinetic change from control
May have slightly prolonged effect following multiple doses |
|
|
Term
| Remifentanyl - clearance in liver disease |
|
Definition
| Clearance unaltered in severe liver disease |
|
|
Term
Dexmedetomidine (precedex) with liver disease
Clearance
Elimination T1/2 |
|
Definition
Significantly decreased clearance
prolonged half-lives |
|
|
Term
| What is Rons Bottom Line on Induction Agents? |
|
Definition
| Decreases in plasma proteins may result in a increase of free drug and more significant responses to a "standard" dose of these drugs. |
|
|
Term
| What are the goals for the maintenance of anesthesia? |
|
Definition
Avoid direct drug-related toxicity
Maintain adequate hepatic perfusion and oxygenation |
|
|
Term
How are we going to avoid drug-related toxicty and maintain adequate hepatic perfusion and oxygenation?????!!!!!!!
Most important is simply....b/c blood reservoir is gone. |
|
Definition
Maintain adequate:
Cardiac output
Blood volume
Perfusion pressure
Oxygenation
Prompt replacement of fluid & blood |
|
|
Term
| Succs in hepatic disease...prolonged? |
|
Definition
Decreased plasma cholinesterase
but likely not an issue |
|
|
Term
| Mivacurium in hepatic disease - prolonged? |
|
Definition
| Decreased plasma cholinesterase will prolong action |
|
|
Term
| Atracurium/Cisatracurium with hepatic disease...? |
|
Definition
Hofman elimination
Essentially independent of hepatic & renal disease |
|
|
Term
Other NDPMR and hepatic disease...?
Dose?
Length of blockade?
Clearance?
|
|
Definition
Increase Vd so increased inital dose?
(Ron says yes, then can titrate subsequent doses with info gained with 1st dose & PNS)
Anticipate prolonged blockade
(recall all aminosteroidals are metabolized in liver/kidneys)
Markedly decreased clearance
Titrate to effect |
|
|
Term
Overall there is an increased concentration of vasodilatory substances such as _______ with liver disease, resutling in markedly reduced response to ___________.
So what should you do to treat hypotension? |
|
Definition
Overall there is an increased concentration of vasodilatory substances such as glucagon with liver disease, resutling in markedly reduced response to catecholamines.
May need increased doses of catecholamines
or
give a non-adrenergic vasoconstrictor like vasopressin |
|
|
Term
| Why is a large bore IV access a must in anything but the most peripheral cases? |
|
Definition
May encounter coagulopathy and excessive bleeding
Will not tolerate hypovolemia well |
|
|
Term
| A regional is typically well tolerated as long as 2 conditions are met: |
|
Definition
Adequate fluid loading
Absence of coagulopathy |
|
|
Term
| Remember liver disease including _________ results in decreased ability to move blood to the central circulation (autotransfusion) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| We may see jaundice postop following ______________ in the absence of liver insult |
|
Definition
We may see jaundice postop following reabsorption of surgical hematoma in the absence of liver insult
|
|
|
Term
What do large increases in serum transaminases post op reflect?
Postop liver dysfunction is ____ but rarely _____ in a previously healthy pt? |
|
Definition
Extensive hepatocellular necrosis
Postop liver dysfunction is common but rarely severe previously healthy pt. |
|
|
Term
Fulminant Hepatic Failure = A term used to describe acute liver failure in a previously healthy pt with the following criteria:
|
|
Definition
Encephalopathy within 2 weeks of developement of juandice
or
Encephalopathy within 8 weeks of initial manifestation of hepatic disease. |
|
|
Term
| Remember per the study on ASA1 pts on slide 111 that preop elevation of LFT may indicated _______ and surgery should be ______ and ______ done. |
|
Definition
new onset of hepatic dysfunction
surgery should be delayed
full workup should be done |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a form of telangiectasis characterized by a central elevated red dot the size of a pinhead from which small blood vessels radiate. Spider angiomas are often associated with elevated estrogen levels, such as occur in pregnancy or when the liver is diseased and unable to detoxify estrogens. Also called spider nevus. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Push hand back and if it flutters = liver issues |
|
|
Term
Child-Pugh Score
Class A, B, C, how many points and % surgical mortality? |
|
Definition
Class A = 5-6 pts = 10% surgical mortality
Class B = 7-9 points = 30% surgical mortality
Class C = 10-15 points = 82% surgical mortality |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal AST and ALT levels |
|
Definition
AST = 10-40 units/L
ALT = 7-56 units/L |
|
|
Term
| Describe bilirubin levels, aminotransferase levels, Alkaline phosphatase levels, and causes of prehepatic dysfunction. |
|
Definition
- unconjugated bilirubin levels will be elevated
- AST/ALT levels will be normal
- AP levels will be normal
- Causes: hemolysis, hematoma resorbtion, bilirubin overdose in blood transfusion |
|
|
Term
Describe bilirubin levels, aminotransferase levels, Alkaline phosphatase levels, and causes of intrahepatic dysfunction.
|
|
Definition
- increased conjugated fraction
- increased AST/ALT, GST
- normal or slightly increased AP
- Causes: viruses, drugs, cirrhosis, sepsis, hypoxemia |
|
|
Term
Describe bilirubin levels, aminotransferase levels, Alkaline phosphatase levels, and causes of posthepatic dysfunction.
|
|
Definition
- conjugated bilirubin is increased
- AST/ALT, GST are normal
- markely increased AP
- Cause: biliary tract stones or sepsis |
|
|
Term
| What is the portal triad? |
|
Definition
|
|