Term
|
Definition
| ___ are absorbitive heterotrophs (digest outside their body) |
|
|
Term
| Invaders that are nucleic acid surrounded by protein capsule |
|
Definition
| Viruses are not living cells but ____ |
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|
Term
| Bacteria, fungi, small animals (eg parasitic worms), viruses, toxins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Self markers are found on all cells except |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Non-self molecule or organism recognized by immune system as such |
|
|
Term
| Major histocompatibility complex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. Phagocytes (consume things w/ no markers) 2. Skin 3. Mucous in respiratory tract 4. Acid in stomach 5. Acidic secretions from vagina |
|
Definition
| 5 non-specific immune responses |
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Term
|
Definition
| We have ___ markers on our cells to identify them as "self" |
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Term
|
Definition
| Proteins are manufactured in the |
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Term
|
Definition
| Proteins are packaged for exocytosis in the ____ |
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|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When a phagocyte eats a foreign substance it becomes a _______ |
|
|
Term
food vacuole digested fragments of the antigen MHCII markers |
|
Definition
| Phagocytes digest antigens in their ______ & puts ______ on its surface in _____ |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Mature lymphocytes possess ______ that match with antigens |
|
|
Term
| the B cells' immune receptors match the presenter cells' MHCII markers that have the foreign protein fragments incorporated |
|
Definition
| B cells become activated B cells when |
|
|
Term
divide repeatedly clones immune receptors specific to that antigen |
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Definition
| Once B cells activate, they _____ to form _____, which have ______ |
|
|
Term
plasma cells make billions of copies of immune receptors & put them into blood & lymph as antibodies |
|
Definition
| When B cells mature they become _____, which ______ |
|
|
Term
| Receptors attach to markers on antigen, coating it, slowing it down, which encourages phagocytosis |
|
Definition
| Antibodies _______ and encourage _____ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| _____ is when antibodies coat antigens |
|
|
Term
| presented with antigen fragments |
|
Definition
| Helper T-cells become activated when |
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|
Term
| cytokines which attract macrophages |
|
Definition
| Helper T cells secrete ______ which _____ |
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|
Term
|
Definition
| Programmed cell death is ____ |
|
|
Term
| viral infections but not bacterial ones |
|
Definition
| Cytotoxic t-cells are involved in ____ but not _____ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| During development, apoptosis is needed to get rid of _____ |
|
|
Term
| apoptosis in corrupted cells |
|
Definition
| Cytotoxic t-cells initiate ______ in _______ |
|
|
Term
| Selection of B cells has occured; each generation of B cells's immune receptors are a better fit for the antigen markers |
|
Definition
| Antibodies have good match for antigen markers because |
|
|
Term
4 strands, 2 heavy and 2 light, disulfate bond |
|
Definition
| An antibody has _____ strands of protein, ____ and ____, held together by ______ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The macrophage binding sites is located at the _______ of an antibody |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
_____ of heavy and light chains are constant, _____ of the chains are variable |
|
|
Term
1. Neutralization (blocks virus binding sites, coats bacteria) 2. Agglutination (clumping together of antigens) 3. Precipitation of soluble antigens (1-3 trigger opsonization, thus enchancing phagocytosis) 4. Complement fixation (works on celluler antigen eg bacteria not virus, complement proteins in blood activate and make hole in bacteria's cell membrane, lysing the cell) |
|
Definition
| 4 aspects of antibody function |
|
|
Term
| memory b-cells and memory t-cells |
|
Definition
| After infection, _____ and ____ remain for faster response in case of future reinfection |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| If you have _____, then you possess memory B and T cells for that antigen, thus can kill the antigens off quickly before you get sick |
|
|
Term
| stimulate cytotoxic T cells and B cells need chemicals produced by helper T cells |
|
Definition
| Helper T -cells help ____ and ____ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cytotoxic T cells eliminate body cells when its immune receptors detect _____ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ______ is passed down from mother to offspring to fight off antigens |
|
|
Term
| gamaglobulin and immunoglobulin (Ig) |
|
Definition
| Two other names for antibody |
|
|
Term
variable part of chain light part of chain |
|
Definition
| In antibodies, millions of shapes are possible for the ______ and only six different constant regions representing six different Igs are located _____ |
|
|
Term
| IgM and then IgG (after about a week) |
|
Definition
| First two Igs secreted w/ first exposure to antigen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ig found in milk and saliva |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ig found in small #s, constant region for B-cell immune receptor |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ig involved in inflammation and allergies |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Upon second time exposure to an antigen, this is produced right away |
|
|
Term
mast cell membranes WBCs moved out of blood into tissue membranes, histamines, dilation & inflammation (brings in more WBCs) |
|
Definition
| IgE insert themselves into _____, which are ______, and they secrete ______, which causes ______ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
V segment has ___ copies for variable regions of heavy chain, D-segment has ___ J-segment has ____ Constant has _____ |
|
|
Term
36,000 (300x20x6) 1,200 4.32x107 |
|
Definition
_____ possible combos for variable H chain ____ combos for variable L chain Total possible combos |
|
|
Term
Red bone marrow bone marrow thymus gland |
|
Definition
B & T cells form in ____ B cells mature in _____ T cells mature in ___ |
|
|
Term
Dendritic cells, Macrophages & b cells MHCII |
|
Definition
______, ____ and ____ can be presenter cells Presenter cells have _____ proteins to activate helper T cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Helper Tcells have ___ protein that allows them to bind to presenter cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cytotoxic T-cells have ____ proteins that attach to _____ proteins on _____ |
|
|
Term
Interleukin 1 (a cytokine), helper T-cells Interleukin 2, cytotoxic t-cells & b-cells |
|
Definition
| Macrophages give off ____, that activates ____, which give off _____ that acts on ____ & ____ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ____ leave blood to enter tissue spaces & lymph to become macrophages |
|
|
Term
1. microglia 2. alveolar macrophages 3. histocytes 4. Kupfer cells |
|
Definition
Names of site specific phagocytes: 1. in CNS 2. in lungs 3. in spleen & lymph nodes 4. in liver |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Passage of white blood cells through intact capillary pores into tissue |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The movement of a phagocyte toward an inflammed area, following the concentration levels |
|
|
Term
Interferons cause neighboring cells to interfere w/ viral replication & act as nonspecific stimulus for macrophages |
|
Definition
| ____ are given off by body cells that are infected by a virus. These cause _____ |
|
|
Term
Natural killer cells immune receptors, MHCI markers on cell is abnormal or absent |
|
Definition
| _____ cells are non-specific cell destroyers (have no ______. They do so if ______ |
|
|
Term
| A, B, AB, O (no surface marker) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Type A= anti-B antibody Type B= anti-A antibody Type AB = no antibodies Type O = anti-A and anti-B |
|
Definition
| Antibodies present for each blood type |
|
|
Term
Rh Rh- (aka A-) Rh+ (aka A+) |
|
Definition
| _____ marker can cause problem for mothers & fetuses if mother is ___ and first and second fetus are _____ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When anti-Rh antibodies cross placenta & attack fetal RBCs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ___ is given to A- mothers w/ A+ fetuses to suppress immune response to baby |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Horse blood was used to treat this sickness |
|
|
Term
Basophils & mast cells, histamine release, relaxation, constriction bronchioles |
|
Definition
| _____ & ____ cause which causes ______ in smooth muscles of arterioles and _____ in smooth muscles of ______ |
|
|
Term
less, less more fluid movement |
|
Definition
| Dilation causes _____ resistance & ____ pressure, allowing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ____ is the accumulation of WBCs, mostly macrophages |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Histamine is released when ____ on mast cells react w/ pathogen |
|
|
Term
1. High pressure to localize (keep blood there) 2. Allow WBCs to attack specific location |
|
Definition
Swelling of an infection allows for: 1. 2. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| An allergen causes T-helper cells to secrete ____, which stimulates B-cells to make ____ rather than _____ |
|
|
Term
| histamine by mast cells and B-cells |
|
Definition
| An overproduction of ____ by ______ is produced in an allergic reaction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Systemic allergic reaction causing dangerously low BP (b/c of vasodilation in all vessels) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Occurs when severe vasodilation of smooth muscles causes vasoconstriction in smooth muscles in airways |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When cells are not recognized as self and are attacked by own immune system |
|
|
Term
| Diabetes Type I, pancreas |
|
Definition
| Disease marked by early onset in childhood, lowered insulin production, T cells attack of ____ cells |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Disease marked by t-lymphocytes killing liver cells infected with a virus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Disease marked by infection of lungs by bacteria & macrophages end up killing lung cells |
|
|
Term
| the disease quickly mutates, such as sleeping sickness |
|
Definition
| Sick/well cycles during an illness usually means that |
|
|
Term
1. T-dependent antigens 2. T-independent antigens |
|
Definition
1. Need T-cells for response 2. Vigorous response w/o T-helper cells |
|
|
Term
1. Ventilation (bulk flow) 2. External respiration (diffusion) 3. Circulation (bulk flow) 4. Internal respiration (diffusion) |
|
Definition
| Respiratory gases are moved in 4 steps: |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| All airway structures below the trachea are called the ___ |
|
|
Term
| Nose/nasal passage (external nares)->mouth/oral cavity->pharynx (internal nares)->larynx (anterior contains vocal cords)->trachea (next to esophagus)->primary, secondary, tertiary bronchi->bronchioles->alveolar ducts->alveoli (clustered into alveolar sacs) |
|
Definition
| Respiratory passage order |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| inspiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is _____ than alveolar pressure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Expiration occurs when atmospheric pressure is ____ than alveolar pressure |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inner membrane lining of sac that adheres to surface of lung |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Outer membrane lining of sac that adheres to the thoracic wall and diaphragm |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Space between visceral & parietal pleurae that contains a thin layer of fluid that keeps both membranes in contact w/ each other |
|
|
Term
1. Thoracic cavity expands (intercostal muscles contract, diaphragm is lowered) 2. Parietal pleurae is stretched, which 3. Stretches visceral pleurae 4. Lungs are thus stretched, lowering pressure of alveoli |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. Rib cage rebounds after external intercostals relax 2. Diaphragm relaxes and rebounds to dome shape 3. Elastic lung helps exhalation |
|
Definition
| During passive respiration: |
|
|
Term
1. Contract internal intercostals to depress rib cage 2. Contract abdominal muscles to force viscera up against diaphragm |
|
Definition
| During active respiration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Phospholipid that reduces surface tension of water layer |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ____ is the attraction b/w water molecues that tends to ____ volume of alveoli |
|
|
Term
| Resting tidal volume (TV) |
|
Definition
| Amt of air inspired or expired/breath during normal respiration |
|
|
Term
| Inspiratory reserve volume |
|
Definition
| Amt of air that can be inspired beyond resting tidal inspiration |
|
|
Term
| Expiratory reserve volume (ERV) |
|
Definition
| Amt of air that can be expired beyond a resting tidal expiration |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Amt of air left in lungs after a max expiration |
|
|
Term
| Vital capacity (IRV+TV+ERV) |
|
Definition
| Max amt of air that can be expired after max inspiration |
|
|
Term
| Total lung capacity (IRV+TV+ERV+RV) |
|
Definition
| Total vol of lung after max inspiration |
|
|
Term
| Inspiratory capacity (IRV+TV) |
|
Definition
| Max amt of air that can be inspired after a normal expiration |
|
|
Term
| Functional residual capacity (ERV+RV) |
|
Definition
| Amt of air remaining in lungs after a normal expiration (ERV+RV) |
|
|
Term
| Minute volume (tidal volume x breaths/min) |
|
Definition
| Amt of air moved through respiratory system/min |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cartilaginous flap that prevents food from entering trachea |
|
|
Term
| Flow = (Difference in pressure)/(resistance) |
|
Definition
| Formula relating flow, pressure, and resistance |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| During development surfactant is produced after the ____ month of gestation |
|
|
Term
poor alveolar ventilation smooth muscles of pulmonary arterioles vasoconstrict |
|
Definition
| If arterioles that run through interstitial space is low in O2 and high in CO2, then that means there is _____ and thus _____ |
|
|
Term
poor circulation smooth muscles of of bronchioles dilate |
|
Definition
| If arterioles that run through interstitial space is high in O2 and low in CO2, then that means there is _____ and thus _____ |
|
|
Term
1. Nose, mouth, & pharynx (lg on hairs, 10u or more on mucous) 2. Walls of bronchi, bronchioles, alveolar ducts (3-10u) 3. Alveoli (>0.3u particles diffuse into blood or are suspended in aerosols and exhaled) |
|
Definition
Purification of air occurs at (sizes of particles settled here): 1. 2. 3. |
|
|
Term
1. Swallowing of mucous (moved upward by cilia to pharynx) 2. Sneezing |
|
Definition
| Particles on respiratory tree are eliminated by: |
|
|
Term
1. Engulfed by lymphocytes 2. Remain permanently encapsulated on surface |
|
Definition
| Particles on alveoli are eliminated by: |
|
|
Term
21% O2 0.03% CO2 78% N2 1% Argon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ppO2 = 159 mmHg ppCO2= 0.3 mmHg |
|
Definition
| Partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in atmospheric pressure (760 mmHg) |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Inpired air at the lungs is _____ degrees Celsius and contains _______ water vapor (saturated w/ water vapor). Thus, ppO2 of air that reaches lung is ____ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Amt of gas dissolved in a liquid is called |
|
|
Term
1. solubility of gas in liquid 2. temp (colder = more soluble) 3. Partial pressure of gas in air phase in contact w/ liquid (high pressure = more soluble) 4. Saliinity (saltier = less soluble) |
|
Definition
| At equilibrium, amt of gas in soln depends on: |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Gas tension of 3 ml O2/liter |
|
|
Term
1. ppO2=159mmHg, ppCO2=0.3mmHg 2. ppO2=150mmHg 3. ppO2=105mmHg, ppCO2=40mmHg 4. ppO2=120mmHg, ppCO2=32mmHg 5. PO2=40mmHg, PCO2=46mmHg 6. PO2=100mmHg, PCO2=40mmHg |
|
Definition
ppO2 & ppCO2 of air: 1. Entering nose 2. Entering lungs 3. In alveoli 4. Exhaled 5. Arterial blood to lungs 6. venous blood leaving lungs |
|
|
Term
1. Small amt is dissolved 2. 98% is attached to hemoglobin in RBCs |
|
Definition
| Oxygen content of blood is: |
|
|
Term
1. Made of 4 protein globins (2 alpha, 2 beta), each surrounds 1 heme 2. Each heme contains iron that binds to an O2 molecule 3. Binding is reversible and depends on pO2 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| It is difficult for first O2 molecule to attach to Hb, but heme-heme interaction allows 2nd, 3rd, & 4th oxygens to attach easily |
|
Definition
| Why sigmoid shape od O2 saturation vs. PO2 graph? |
|
|
Term
increased 2,3-DPG, lower pH (Bohr shift), higher temp allows for decreased Hb affinity for O2 (easier unloading of O2 at tissues) |
|
Definition
| In oxygen disassociation curve, shift right is caused by _____, ____ and ____, which _____ |
|
|
Term
1. Only 1 heme instead of 4 2. No heme-heme interaction; so affinity for O2 is high (shift left) 3. Found in striated muscle cells (skeletal/cardiac) to enhance diffusion of O2 thru cytoplasm to mitochondria |
|
Definition
| Myoglobin characteristics: |
|
|
Term
| Carbonic anhydrase, carbonic acid H2CO3 |
|
Definition
| Enzyme in RBC that helps form CO2 into ___ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Carbonic acid dissociates into |
|
|
Term
| bicarbonate diffuses out of RBC down concentration gradient, allowing Cl- to move in |
|
Definition
| The Chloride Shift occurs when |
|
|
Term
| plasma and blood cell cytosol |
|
Definition
| CO2 dissovles in ___ and ____ |
|
|
Term
| buffer the H+, thus reducing Hb affinity for O2 |
|
Definition
| Because carbonic acid dissociates, hemoglobin must ____, thus |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| When CO2 binds to globin part of Hb it is known as |
|
|
Term
| medulla, higher centers in pons |
|
Definition
| Respiratory receptors are in _____, rate is controlled by _____ |
|
|
Term
1. Peripheral receptors (detect CO2, H+ in blood) -aortic bodies -carotid bodies 2. Central receptors in medulla (detect CO2, H+ in CSF) |
|
Definition
| 2 types of chemoreceptors, what they detect, & where located |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Reflex that inhibits overinflation of the lungs (inhibits inspiration centers in the medulla) Lack of stretching during expiration inhibits expiratory centers |
|
|
Term
Helps regulate resting ventilation in newborns; Not functional in adults at resting tidal volumes, but involved in respiratory control at high tidal volumes |
|
Definition
| Stretch receptors _____ and ____ |
|
|
Term
remain constant in blood rate and depth of ventilation increase |
|
Definition
| During exercise, PO2 and PCO2 _____ in blood because ______ |
|
|
Term
1. Neural control b/c rate increases immediately 2. Chemical message as well b/c ventilation remains elevated after exercise ceases |
|
Definition
| Cause of ventilation rate changes |
|
|
Term
1. Hb loading may be impaired 2. Hb unloading is enhanced (2,3 DPG production stimulated by low PO2) 3. Amount of O2 in blood unchanged b/c bone marrow produces more Hb and RBCs |
|
Definition
| Effects on respiration at high elevation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Taking food into digestive system via mouth |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Physical breakdown of food by chewing |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Chemical breakdown of food |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Movement of particles across the wall of the gut into the blood or lymph |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Rhythmic contractions of digestive tract that move food |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Movement of material out of the digestive tract back into the environment defecation and vomiting |
|
|
Term
| Oral cavity->pharynx->esophagus->stomach->small intestine->lg intestine |
|
Definition
| Gastrointestinal (GI) tract order |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Epithelial membranes that line cavities of body and organs that lie within those cavities |
|
|
Term
pleurae peritoneum parietal peritoneum visceral peritoneum |
|
Definition
Serous membranes in thorax are known as in abdomen are known as lines body wall lines organs |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Double layered membrane attaching gut to body wall |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Double layered membrane attaching two segments of GI tract |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Ball of food going through digestive tract |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Opening of the trachea is called the ____ which closes with pressure from the larynx and the drop of the _______ |
|
|
Term
| Gastroesophageal sphincter |
|
Definition
| Junction orifice b/w the esophagus and stomach, prevents stomach acid, chyme, bolus to come back up |
|
|
Term
alcohol and aspirin proteins & fats, acidic environment |
|
Definition
| Stomach can absorb ___ and ____. Some digestion of _____ occurs here b/c of _____ environment |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Regulates flow of material from stomach to small intestine |
|
|
Term
reflux stomach acid position of gastroesophageal sphincter is altered during pregnancy |
|
Definition
Heartburn is known as ____ and is caused by ____ This is common when ____ |
|
|
Term
| stomach, b/c it's distensible |
|
Definition
| The storage organ in the GI tract |
|
|
Term
1. goblet cells - secrete mucus 2. parietal cells- secrete HCl; helps absorb vitamin B12 (needed for maturation of RBCs) 3. chief cells- secrete pepsinogen 4. G cells - secrete gastrin |
|
Definition
| 4 types of cells in gastric mucosa of stomach & function |
|
|
Term
1. Higher affinity for O2 (shifted to left) b/c fetal Hb can't bind to 2,3 DPG 2. Allowed O2 to be transferred from maternal to fetal blood |
|
Definition
| Fetal Hb characteristics: |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| ____ binds to Hb more readily than CO2, so if exposed to it, must get blood transfusion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| amylase, which catabolizes starch |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. Denaturing proteins 2. Form pepsin from pepsinogen 3. Activate pepsin 4. Activate lipase secreted by salivary gland |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
1. Mucus (alkaline) protects lining 2. Tight junctions of epithelial cells 3. Rapid replacement of epithelial cells |
|
Definition
There is no self-digestion b/c 1-3 |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Acid tolerant bacteria that burrows under mucus and erods gastric epithelium |
|
|
Term
| cardia, fundus, body, pyloris |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bile and pancreatic ducts enter: |
|
|
Term
| G cells, stimulate parietal cells to secrete HCl |
|
Definition
| Gastrin is secreted by ____ and its function is____ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| 3 parts of small intestine |
|
|
Term
1. long tube 2. villi (each containing central lacteal surrounded by capillaries) 3. microvilli (brush border) |
|
Definition
| 3 ways that small intestine increases surface area for digestion/absorption |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Rhythymical contractions of small intestine in order to mix chyme |
|
|
Term
1. Cecum (pouch at entry pt of ileum) 2. vermiform appendix (contains lymphatic tissue) 3. ileocecal valve (prevents backflow of chyme into ileum) 4. colon (ascending, transverse, descending) 5. rectum (terminal portion) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Anal canal Internal anal sphincter External anal sphincter |
|
Definition
Terminal portion of rectum This part has smooth muscles this has striated muscles |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Strong peristaltic wave in lg intestine often stimulated by eating |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| These are absorbed in lg intesting |
|
|
Term
| lobules, triads (artery, vein, bile duct) |
|
Definition
| Liver is arranged in ____ surrounded by ____ |
|
|
Term
| hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein (from intestines) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bile canaliculi hepatic ducts, common bile duct sphincter of Oddi gall bladder, cystic duct |
|
Definition
| _____ collect bile from liver cells and drain into ____. These empty into the ___ which leads into the duodenum. When duodenum is empty, the ______ closes and bile is stored in the ____ via the _____ |
|
|
Term
1. Bile production 2. Detox of blood 3. Metabolic regulation 4. Production of plasma proteins |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Derivatives of cholesterol that emulsify fats |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Occurs when cholesterol in bile salts precipitates out of soln |
|
|
Term
Bilirubin spleen or bone marrow glucoronic acid urobilinogen, gives feces dark color and urine its yellow color |
|
Definition
Breakdown product of heme groups (minus iron), transported to liver from ___ or ____ At liver, it is conjugated w/ ____ and then bacteria in intestines convert it to ____ which ____ |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Converting of glucose from food to glycogen for storage |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Form triglycerides for storage |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Conversion of noncarbohydrates into glucose |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Production of glucose from stored glycogen |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Secretion directly into bloodstream |
|
|
Term
Acinar cells secrete inactive digestive enzymes, duct cells secrete HCO3- to neutralize acid chyme from stomach Islets of Langerhans secrete insulin and glucagon |
|
Definition
Pancreas Exocrine part & function Endocrine part & function |
|
|
Term
1. Proteases (eg trypsinogen into trypsin, which activates chymotrypsinogen and procarboxypeptidase into chymotrypsin and carboxypeptidase) 2. Amylase, lipases, nucleases (active, but need ions or bile) |
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Definition
| Enzyme activation of pancreas |
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Term
| too much stress, not enough bicarbonate secretion, overactive parasympathetic response (too much acid produced in stomach) |
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Definition
| Duodenal ulcers occur when: |
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Term
1. Pacemaker cells spontaneously depolarize, causing contraction 2. If stretching present, increased contractions (stretch receptors feedback via ANS) |
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Definition
| Intrinsic control of gastric function |
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Term
1. Cephalic phase (vagal stimulation of parietal, chief, G cells, increased stomach blood flow, salivation-- triggered by sight, taste, smell) 2. Gastric phase (G cell secrete gastrin, parietal secrete HCl, & chief cells secrete pepsinogen in presence of protein fragments) 3. Intestinal phase - Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) produced to stop emptying into duodenum if too full |
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Definition
| Extrinsic control of gastric function |
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Term
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Definition
| Secreted by duodenum in response to low pH (chyme entering from stomach) to stimulate pancreatic duct cells to secrete bicarbonate |
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Term
Cholecystokini (CCK) pancreatic enzymes by acinar cells |
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Definition
| Hormone secreted by duodenum in response to fat content, stimulating production of |
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Term
1. Secretin 2. CCK 3. Nervous input from stretched duodenum causes gall bladder to contract |
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Definition
| Bile production increases due to: |
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Term
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Definition
| Formation of large complex compounds from smaller organic materials; requires energy from ATP |
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Term
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Definition
| Breakdown of lg compound into smaller ones; liberates energy, some is stored as ATP, rest is lost as heat |
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Term
Alpha: glucagon beta: insulin delta: somatostatin |
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Definition
In islets of Langerhans: alpha, beta, and delta cells produce |
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Term
Insulin: 1. Promotes uptake of glucose into cells 2. Promotes uptake of amino acids into cells and conversion into proteins Glucagon: Promotes glycogen breakdown (to maintain glucose levels when low) |
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Definition
Purpose of insulin Purpose of glucagon |
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Term
Parasympathetic input to beta cells Sympathetic input to alpha cells |
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Definition
Insulin secretion controlled by ___ Glucagon controlled by ____ |
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Term
1. Stretching of duodenum 2. Osmotic increase in contents 3. Presence of fats in lumen Also stimulates beta cells to secrete insulin |
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Definition
| GIP is produced by duodenum when (3 reasons), and it also |
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Term
After meal, 170 mg/100 ml plasma During fast 50mg % Too high = dmg cells low = not enough fuel for brain metabolism/function |
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Definition
Range of blood glucose concen If too high, then
too low, then |
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Term
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Definition
| ___ is high blood sugar levels |
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Term
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Definition
| Glucose is excreted in urine in |
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Term
Type I- beta cells of islets of langerhans are destroyed so lack of insulin Type II-decreased tissue sensitivity to insulin |
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Definition
Type I diabetes is Type II is |
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Term
Glucose becomes alpha glycerol phosphate or pyruvate, which is converted into acteyl CoA and then fatty acids. 3 fatty acids plus alpha glycerol phosphate becomes a triglyceride |
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Definition
| Synthesis of fats in adipose |
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Term
| Glucose enters, is phosphorylated, and then polymerizes |
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Definition
| Synthesis of glycogen in liver and muscles |
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Term
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Definition
| Occurs during low insulin levels during a fast when blood glucose is reserved for brain and not taken up by most tissues |
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Term
1. Fatty acids (glucagon w/o insulin stimulates lipolysis) 2. Ketone bodies (glucagon stimulates liver enzymes to form ketones from fatty acids- known as ketogenesis) |
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Definition
| During glucose sparing, skeletal muscles switch to metabolizing: |
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Term
| Glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis |
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Definition
| Glucagon stimulates these two processes during fasting |
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Term
1. Epinephrine 2. Glucocorticoids |
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Definition
| 2 types of adrenal hormones |
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Term
from medulla Similar to glucagon: glycogenolysis and lipolysis |
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Definition
| Epinephrine comes from __ and its effects |
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Term
cortex 1. Stimulated via ACTH from ant. pituitary in response to exercise/fasting 2. Promotes lipolysis and ketogenesis 3. Stimulates liver to make enzyes necessary for gluconeogenesis 4. Stimulates amino acid release from muscles (substrate for gluconeogenesis) |
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Definition
Glucocorticoids come from ____ and effects |
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Term
1. Secreted as T4, converted to active form T3 (thyroxine) 2. Stimulates cellular metabolism (inc rate of Na/K pump) 3. Acts via DNA to increase protein production-- necessary for anabolism/growth of skeleton, muscles, CNS |
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Definition
| Thyroxine characteristics |
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Term
Somatotrophin increased amino acid concen and decreased glucose conc (aka after protein meal and after a fast) |
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Definition
| Growth hormone (aka ____) secretion increase dpeends on |
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Term
promotoes anabolism of proteins promotes breakdown of adipose |
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Definition
GH is like insulin b/c and like glucagon b/c |
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Term
Stimulates liver production of intermediate hormones (somatomedins) Somatomedins stimulate chondrocytes to lay down cartilage in growth zones of bone (which later ossify) |
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Definition
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