Term
| Beer's law states that the darker the color produced, the more light absorbed in the specimen; the more light absorbed, the _____. |
|
Definition
| Higher the concentration of the analyte. |
|
|
Term
| Carbohydrates are organic compounds of: |
|
Definition
| Carbon, Hydrogen and Oxygen |
|
|
Term
| What is the normality of a solution of sodium hydroxide (molecular weight=40) containing 20 grams in 100mL of solution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If test results are within +2 standard deviations, the ratio of test results beyond the +2 limit will be 1 out of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To make a 1:5 dilution of serum sample, dilute: |
|
Definition
| 1.0mL of serum + 4.0mL of diluent |
|
|
Term
| Osmolality of a solution is determined by measuring: |
|
Definition
| Freezing point depression |
|
|
Term
| Most methods for the determination of blood creatinine are based on the reaction of creatinine and: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ketone bodies include acetoacetic acid, acetone, and: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alkaline phosphatase is greatly elevated in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Blood glucose levels are directly regulated by the hormone: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In Taenia saginata, the larval stage develops in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A flotation method for concentration of ova and cysts uses: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The infective stage of the hookworm is the: |
|
Definition
| Filariform larva with pointed tail |
|
|
Term
| Most of plasma thyroxine (T4) is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The end product of purine metabolism is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An RBC exhibiting hypochromia would be described as being: |
|
Definition
| Markedly pale in central color |
|
|
Term
| As a general rule, when a blood cell matures: |
|
Definition
| The cell decreases in size |
|
|
Term
| The type of anemia usually associated with severe burns is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hansel's stain is appropriate for: |
|
Definition
| Nasal secretions for eosinophils |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Clot retraction can be employed as an indicator of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antihuman serum globulin reagent: |
|
Definition
| Is produced in laboratory animals |
|
|
Term
| Blood group A individuals have: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Optochin is used to help identify: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The etiologic agent of chancroid is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fibrinogen determinations are performed on: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What dye may be used for staining protein bands following electrophoresis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What instrument is used in the clinical laboratory or in reference labs to detect beta and gamma emissions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Safranin in a gram stain is used as a: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Freezing point depression measurements are part of which urine test procedure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dilute normal urine is usually what color? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids are the three major biochemical compounds of human metabolism. What is the element that distinguishes proteins from carbohydrate and lipid compounds? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does Benedict's reagent test for in urine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Albumin, alpha1, alpha2, beta and gamma globulin are electrophoretic fractions of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The major cation found in the extra cellular fluid is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Sodium is responsible for the maintenance of: |
|
Definition
| Osmotic pressure of body fluids |
|
|
Term
| When using a buffer with a pH of 8.6, each of the serum proteins in an electrical field migrates toward: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When six or more consecutive daily values are distributed on one side of the mean but maintain a constant level, it is known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The degree that a procedure deviates from a known value or from a calculated mean value is known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Supravital staining of red cells with a deficiency of G-6-PD will demonstrate the presence of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When using white blood cell pipettes for performing a white cell count, what ratio is blood diluted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The principle involved in some automated blood cell counters is based on the: |
|
Definition
| Size of the particle being counted |
|
|
Term
| During the maturation of a blood cell, the nuclear chromatin pattern becomes: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An elevated leukocyte count with increased numbers of neutrophilic granulocytes usually indicates: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| On most automated cell counters, background counts are made using: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Brilliant cresyl blue or new methylene blue are stains used for counting: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The distance between the ruled surface and cover slip of the hemacytometer is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Enterobius vermicularis is a: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Leukemia may be suspected when a manual hematocrit determination reveals: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cerebral spinal fluid from patients with post-cerebral hemorrhage appears what color? |
|
Definition
| Light yellow or straw colored |
|
|
Term
| On an automated blood cell counter, the two parameters affected by a high background count would be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The ketone test area on a dip stick is impregnated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A donor who recently tested positive for HBsAg should be deferred for how long? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which hemoglobin determination method is recommended by the International Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards and the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To determine if a patient is A1 or A2, the blood is typed with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a patient has been sensitized, which test would be used to help identify the antibody that is attached to the patient's cells in vivo? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which test differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other types of Staphlococci? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The organism that can cause rheumatic fever and/or glomerular nephritis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The quantity of inactivated serum used for a qualitative VDRL test is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following influence glomerular filtration except:
A-Decreased renal blood flow and cardiac failure
B-Cardiac failure and renal or urinary calculi
C-Renal or urinary calculi and decreased renal blood flow
D-Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction |
|
Definition
| D. Hyperglycemia and renal tubule malfunction |
|
|
Term
| When performing automated cell counts, most automated cell counting instruments count NRBCs with what cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Unconjugated bilirubin is also known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is characteristic of any antigen?
A-High molecular weight
B-High order of specificity
C-Foreign to animal
D-Produced by action of antibody |
|
Definition
| B. High order of specificity |
|
|
Term
| Water-soluble pigments are produced by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antihuman serum globulin (Coombs) is not used in performing: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which instruments do not measure concentrations of a particular molecule but of the total ions and molecules in general (number of moles per kilogram of water)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What method could be used to study protein abnormality? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following enzymes are present in heart muscle?
1.Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH)(LD)
2.Creatinine phosphokinase (CPK)(CK)
3.Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What test is used to measure capillary fragility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A substance that produces a prolonged prothrombin time when given orally is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which stage of the coagulation process would be affected by a deficiency of Factor VIII? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In serologic tests for syphilis, a reagin reactivity may result from an acute or chronic infection such as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The RA latex test is used as a screening test for: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the formation of urine, the function of the glomerulus is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Microscopic examination of urinary sediment discloses small, motile cells having an oval "head" with a rather long, delicate, whip-like tail. These cells are most likely identified as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Metabolic acidosis can be detected by testing urine for the presence of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cystic stage of development has not been demonstrated in which organism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The egg of the Schistosoma characterized by a pronounced lateral spine is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fungi are commonly identified on the basis of their: |
|
Definition
| Sporulation and the arrangement of spores on the hyphae |
|
|
Term
| A variety of media may be safely stored for months if care is taken to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In the 1980s, Ewing, Bergey, and the CDC divided the Enterobacteriaceae into several different tribes. Which one of the following is NOT a valid tribe under their classification scheme?
A-Escherichieae
B-Citrobactereae
C-Salmonelleae & Shigellaeae
D-Edwardsielleae |
|
Definition
| C. Salmonelleae & Shigellaeae |
|
|
Term
| Capsules are produced by virulent strains of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The modified Griess test, when positive to any degree, is virtually diagnostic of: |
|
Definition
| Significant bacteriuria (100000 organisms per milliliter of urine) |
|
|
Term
| Which media is used to isolate Staphylococcus aureus from specimens that have mixed bacterial flora such as feces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A flagellate frequently found in the urine of female patients is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organisms are described as minute, very plemorphic, sometimes coccobacillary, gram negative rods that must have media enriched with X and V factors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bordet-Gengou and Eugon agar base with fresh blood is used for the isolation of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to the Lancefield scheme of classifying Streptococcus species, the enterococci are placed in group: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A reactive fluorescent treponemal antibody (FTA-AB) test: |
|
Definition
| Confirms the presence of treponemal antibodies |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a strict anaerobe?
A-Bacillus anthracis
B-Listeria Monocytogenes
C-Clostridium botulinum
D-Nocardia asteroides |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The McLeod phenotype is associated with which antigen system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the United States, which hospital laboratory section is regulated by the FDA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What sero-marker is the first marker to become positive in Hepatitis B and is associated with the infective stage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The screening or presumptive test for the osmotic fragility of red cells is normal when hemolysis begins in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The accepted and usual time and temperature used for the inactivation of serum is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Group O patients can safely receive plasma from a donor Who is group: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rh immune globulin is given to an Rh(D) to a mother who: |
|
Definition
| Negative mother who has delivered an Rh(D) positive fetus |
|
|
Term
Which one of the following may detect a hemolytic transfusion reaction?
A-Urine porphyrins
B-Serum haptoglobin
C-Post-transfusion red blood count and hemoglobin
D-Pre-transfusion bilirubin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is credited with proposing the most readily acceptable theory of ABO inheritance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During the crossmatch procedure, a negative result on the addition of Coombs control cells indicates that the: |
|
Definition
| Antiglobulin reagent is inactivated, neutralized, or not added to the test |
|
|
Term
| What analyte is measured by the Jaffe method? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the normal life span of a red cell in circulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The presence of leukocytes in urine is known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonnorrhoeae produces: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to AABB standards, fresh frozen plasma should be infused within what period of time after thawing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which test monitors heparin therapy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The addition of ____ will increase the shelf life of red blood cells? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Precipitation is the term applied to: |
|
Definition
| Aggregation of soluble test antigens |
|
|
Term
| The persistent survival of microorganisms on a surface of the human body is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Adult male normal RBC count: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The linked HLA genes on each chromosome constitute a(n): |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A donor has the genotype hh,AB. What will be his red cell phenotype? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The stage of the amoeba that is motile, feeding and reproducing: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Direct measurement of specific gravity: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The western blot is a confirmatory test for the presence of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum storage temperature for red blood cells, frozen is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum storage temperature for red blood cells is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The optimum storage temperature for cryoprecipitated AHF is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cryoprecipitated AHF contains ____ units of Factor VIII. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Once thawed, fresh frozen plasma must be transfused within: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The blood component that contains the most Factor VIII concentration relative to volume: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Most blood group systems are inherited as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The phenotypes that will react with
anti-f: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The red cell antigens that are found on glycophorin-A: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Resistance to malaria is associated with which blood group? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The test that is currently used to detect donors who are infected with the AIDS virus is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In an automated cell counter, the WBC results reads "+++". What is the appropriate action to take next? |
|
Definition
| Make a dilution of the sample and repeat |
|
|
Term
| The principle energy source for mature red blood cells is: |
|
Definition
| Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) generated from anaerobic glycolysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the normal adult, the spleen acts as a site for: |
|
Definition
| Removal of imperfect and aged cells |
|
|
Term
| The term "shift to the left" refers to: |
|
Definition
| Immature cell forms in the peripheral blood |
|
|
Term
| Amoeba that causes amoebic dysentery: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Plasmodium spp. is spread by the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The majority of the urinary reabsorption occurs in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is responsible for erythrocyte deformability and maintaining cell shape? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An injury may occur if incorrect technique is used when preforming what test? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The lowest concentration of school antibiotic that inhibits growth of a test organism is the: |
|
Definition
| Minimum inhibitory concentration |
|
|
Term
| A physician suspects that a patient may have pancreatitis. Which assay should he order? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| India ink performed on a CSF is useful in diagnosis of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions? |
|
Definition
| Unable to determine without further testing |
|
|
Term
| Why is incubation omitted in the direct antihuman globulin test? |
|
Definition
| The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo |
|
|
Term
| Acquired immunity can result from: |
|
Definition
| Vaccination and contracting a disease |
|
|
Term
| The most important buffer pair in the plasma is the: |
|
Definition
| Bicarbonate/carbonic acid |
|
|
Term
| The optimum storage temperature for platelets is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| According to AABB standards, platelets must be: |
|
Definition
| Gently agitated and stored at room temperature |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A determinant capable of stimulating an immune response only when bound to a carrier |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A soluble mediator produced by lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
| What does EMIT stand for? |
|
Definition
| Enzyme Multiplied Immunoassay Technique |
|
|
Term
| Which globin chains compose hemoglobin A1? |
|
Definition
| Two alpha chains and two beta chains |
|
|
Term
| Sudan III will confirm the presence of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Detects presence of abnormal clotting in the blood: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tinea pedis is also called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Perl's Prussian Blue is a stain used to detect: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name for RBCs of different sizes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Programmed cell death is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which glucose method is considered to be the reference method? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Test that measures Coumadin therapy: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Heparin inhibits clotting by: |
|
Definition
| Enhancing the action of antithrombin |
|
|
Term
| How does PTH affect bone? |
|
Definition
| Increase CA and Phosphate release |
|
|
Term
| A positive DNase would be seen with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the "gold standard" for drug confirmation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Infection responsible for the most deaths worldwide: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the liquid state, plasma must be stored at: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Test used to monitor heparin therapy: |
|
Definition
| Activated partial prothrombin time (aPTT) |
|
|
Term
| After absorption, codeine is rapidly metabolized to what compound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Heinz bodies are found when hemoglobin: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what area of the bone marrow does hematopoiesis take place? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the term for cell movement through blood vessels to a tissue site? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Fibrin strands are cross linked and the fibrin clot is stabilized by the activity of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the third month of gestation, what is the primary site of hematopoiesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The quantity of inactivated serum used for a qualitative VDRL test is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A mother is Rh(D) negative. The father is homozygous Rh(D) positive. ALL of their children will be: |
|
Definition
| Heterozygous Rh(D) positive |
|
|
Term
| According to Landsteiner, when a specific antigen is present on blood cells, the corresponding antibody is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cell/antibody mixtures used in tube testing to determine ABO group should be centrifuged for: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A trophozoite of Entamoeba histolytica usually contains: |
|
Definition
| Red blood cells in the cytoplasm |
|
|
Term
| In using a urinometer to measure specific gravity, the correction factor for each 3°C higher or lower than calibration temperature is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A protein formed by the liver in the presence of vitamin k |
|
|
Term
| The most potent plasminogen activator in the contact phase of coagulation is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Mitosis results in ____ chromosomes as the original. |
|
Definition
| Two cells with the same number of |
|
|
Term
| What forward typing reagent can be used to confirm group O units before placing them in inventory? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the assay of lactate dehydrogenase (LD), which product is actually measured? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Regarding thyroid hormones, the primary secretory product of the normal thyroid gland is in the form of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Increased TSH, decreased T3 and decreased T4 with presence of goiter indicates: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Curvature in the top surface of a liquid |
|
|
Term
| Lymphocytes become transformed when they are: |
|
Definition
| Being stimulated by an antigen |
|
|
Term
| From what precursor is Creatinine formed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the anticoagulant of choice for the collection of blood gases? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common cause of posttransfusion hepatitis can be detected in donors by testing for: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDFN) differs from Rh HDFN in that: |
|
Definition
| Rh HDFN is clinically more severe than ABO |
|
|
Term
| An individual has been sensitized to the k antigen and has produced anti-k. What is the most probable Kell system genotype? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The patient is group A. Which cryoprecipitate units would be appropriate to use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which component is indicated for a patient when the physician is concerned about increasing the oxygen carrying capacity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The MIC result recorded in antimicrobial testing is defined as: |
|
Definition
| The lowest antimicrobial agent concentration that completely inhibits visible bacterial growth |
|
|
Term
| Before unconjugated bilirubin can react with Ehrlich diazo reagent, what must be added? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Platelets interacting with and binding to other platelets is referred to as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which procedure should be followed when one cross matched unit out of five is INCOMPATIBLE at the antiglobulin (AHG) phase? |
|
Definition
| Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the incompatible unit |
|
|
Term
| The ideal capillary blood collection site on a newborn is: |
|
Definition
| The plantar surface of the heel |
|
|
Term
| A citrated blood specimen is to be collected from a polycythemia patient. The anticoagulant should be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The specimen of choice for a manual WBC differential count is whole blood collected in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A platelet count was performed on an automated instrument. The platelet count was low. Upon examination of the smear, the platelet estimate is normal. What could be the cause? |
|
Definition
| Abnormally large platelets were counted as RBCs |
|
|
Term
Below are the results of the history obtained from a prospective female blood donor:
Age-16
Temperature-99.0°F (37.2°C)
Hct-36%
History-Tetanus toxoid immunization 1 week previously
How many of the above results excludes this donor from giving blood for a routine transfusion? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chemicals with the designation ____ are suitable for use in most clinical chemistry laboratory analyses. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a blood sample is separated by centrifugation, the liquid component is separated from cells. The "serum" is the: |
|
Definition
| Liquid component with no clotting factors in it |
|
|
Term
| A serum sample from an individual who has eaten a fatty meal 2 hours before having his blood drawn might appear: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A person who is a vegetarian would likely have a ____ total lipid concentration compared with an individual who is not a vegetarian. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What destroys the red cells in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)? |
|
Definition
| Increased susceptibility to complement |
|
|
Term
| How is it genetically possible for a child born to two Rh positive parents to phenotype as D-negative? |
|
Definition
| Both parents are heterozygous D-positive |
|
|
Term
| In an emergency situation, Rh-negative blood is transfused in an Rh-positive patient with the genotype CDe/CDe. The first antibody most likely to develop is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whole blood collected from a donor should remain at what temperature before the separation and preparation of platelet concentrates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient's red cells are agglutinated by anti-B, but not by anti-A. This person would have which ABO phenotype? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A hepatitis B virus carrier is defined as a: |
|
Definition
| Hepatitis B surface antigen-positive person who has liver disease as a result of a previous hepatitis exposure |
|
|
Term
| The reproducibility of a test when it is run (repeated) several times is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most common etiologic agent in uncomplicated community-acquired urinary tract infection is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antinuclear antibody (ANA) tests are performed to help diagnose: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When testing a patient for HIV, what test is used as confirmation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what temperature range is the ABO antigen-antibody reaction best observed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If an individual is type O, what is their ABO genotype? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often can a person make a blood donation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is reverse grouping omitted in the neonatal period for ABO testing? |
|
Definition
| Newborns do not produce their own antibody until about 4 months |
|
|
Term
| A bleeding time is used to evaluate the activity of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The anticoagulant of choice for coagulation studies is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Howell-Jolly bodies are composed of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Myeloid metaplasia refers to: |
|
Definition
| Extramedullary hematopoiesis |
|
|
Term
| Heroin is synthesized from what drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The major class of immunoglobulin found in adult human serum is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Metabolic acidosis is characterized by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A classic presentation of someone infected with C. tetani is: |
|
Definition
| Extreme spasms of the muscles along the spinal cord |
|
|
Term
| A positive indole reaction is characteristic of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary functional unit of the kidney? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Infection in the upper urinary tract is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The platelet parameter PDW refers to the: |
|
Definition
| Variation in platelet cell size |
|
|
Term
| When should semen specimens be analyzed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The description of "Medusa head" colonies on solid agar is most characteristic of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anticoagulated whole blood is the preferred specimen in determining exposure to what compound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Infection in the upper urinary tract is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The platelet parameter PDW refers to the: |
|
Definition
| Variation in platelet cell size |
|
|
Term
| When should semen specimens be analyzed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The description of "Medusa head" colonies on solid agar is most characteristic of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Anticoagulated whole blood is the preferred specimen in determining exposure to what compound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Skeletal deformations are most commonly present in which Beta Thalassemia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The hemorrhagic problems associated with scurvy are due to a deficiency of ____, which is a cofactor required for collagen synthesis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The mechanism that relays information about tissue oxygen levels to erythropoietin-producing sites is located in the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which chromatography system is commonly used in conjunction with mass spectrometry? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does Plasmodium falciparum infection result in the most serious hemolysis of the various forms of malaria? |
|
Definition
| Red blood cells of all ages are invaded |
|
|
Term
| Neutrophilia and a left shift are most often found in patients with: |
|
Definition
| Acute bacterial infection |
|
|
Term
| Which blood group system possesses the Js(b) and Kp(a) antigens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An antibody commonly associated with delayed transfusion reaction is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibodies are detected in the immediate spin crossmatch? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The myeloid progenitor cell can produce cells committed to: |
|
Definition
| Granulocytic, erythrocytic, monocytic or megakaryocytic lineages |
|
|
Term
| The TPI, VDRL, RPR, and Kahn tests are used to provide presumptive identification of what infection? |
|
Definition
| Syphilis (Treponema pallidum) |
|
|
Term
| Antibodies are produced by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which cell is capable of killing ingested microorganisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Term that describes the unique part of the antigen that is recognized by a corresponding antibody: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ molecules are usually not good immunogenic substances. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The chemical composition of an antibody is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An epitope is also termed a(n): |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In a hemagglutination test, the antigen is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemagglutination can be enhanced by increasing: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Molecules that bind to an antigen to increase phagocytosis are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immunoglobulin class contains 10 antigen-binding sites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immunoglobulin class is produced early in an immune response? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immunoglobulin class is found in mucosal linings? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immunoglobulin class is able to cross the placenta? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immunoglobulin class has the highest plasma-serum concentration? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immunoglobulin class is pentameter shaped? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immunoglobulin class activates the complement cascade most efficiently? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why are patient red cells washed before the addition of AHG reagents in the DAT? |
|
Definition
| To remove unbound serum proteins |
|
|
Term
| The blood group antibody that loses reactivity with ficin-treated panel cells: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Information regarding reagent limitations are located in the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What reagents are derived from plant extracts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What antibodies are present in polyspecific AHG reagent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The term used when two of the same forms of a gene are inherited from each parent is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What gene controls the presence of soluble H substance in saliva? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cold autoantibodies are usually of which specificity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alleles within the Lewis system include: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the adult, erythropoietin to stimulate red cell production is produced in the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An example of a crystalloid solution used to treat hypovolemia is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Hemophilia A patients are treated for bleeding with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The greatest danger to the fetus affected by HDFN is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| RhIG should be administered within how many hours of delivery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A gene that produces no detectable product is referred to as an: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alternate forms of a gene at given genetic loci ate called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A gene that can inhibit the expression of another gene is called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The phosphate, sugar, and base that constitute DNA and RNA are called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Rh genotype CDE/cDE is written in Wiener notation as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the likelihood that two heterozygous D-positive parents will have a D-negative child? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Eight units of platelets were pooled. The new expiration is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of competency assessment? |
|
Definition
| Identify employees in need of retraining |
|
|
Term
| Agglutination reactions characterized by many small agglutinates in a background of free cells would be graded in tube testing as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The HLA complex is located primarily on: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What combination of reagents is used to measure hemoglobin? |
|
Definition
| Potassium ferricyanide & Potassium cyanide |
|
|
Term
| When using EMIT, the enzyme is coupled to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Decreased hemoglobin, hematocrit, and red cell count compared to healthy people in the same demographic group |
|
|
Term
| What clinical feature of sickle cell disease accounts for the highest number of hospital admissions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The serologically detectable antibody produced in rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is primarily of the class: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The largest hematopoietic cells in normal bone marrow are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Proper steps in preparation of a platelet concentrate: |
|
Definition
| Whole blood centrifuged at low speed-plasma separated then centrifuged at high speed |
|
|
Term
| Lymphocyte concentrations in the peripheral blood are greatest during what age interval? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| C. jejuni exhibits growth characteristics such as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In disk diffusion susceptibility testing, as an antimicrobial agent diffuses away from the disk, the concentration of the antibiotic ____. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chromatography system characterized by a stationary phase of silica gel on a piece of glass and a moving phase of liquid: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A platelet aggregation agent that characteristically yield a biphasic curve when used in optimal concentration is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most frequent cause of bacterial meningitis in older adults is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first type of cell produced by the developing embryo? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The coagulation factors referred to as "Vitamin K-dependent" are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To qualify as a donor for autologous transfusion, a patients hemoglobin should be at least: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the approximate total blood volume in an adult? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The main regulatory protein of secondary hemostasis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Coarse PAS positivity may be found in the leukemic cells of: |
|
Definition
| Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (FAB type L1) |
|
|
Term
| What is the predominant form of thyroid hormone in the circulation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Refers to the transparency or turbidity of a specimen: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Lithium therapy is used widely as a treatment for: |
|
Definition
| Manic-depressive disorder (Bipolar) |
|
|
Term
| A positive gelatin reaction is characteristic of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cell-mediated immunity is primarily mediated by: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Preparing a patient for a standard glucose tolerance test should include: |
|
Definition
| Fasting for 8 hours before the test |
|
|
Term
| Why are small dense LDL molecules more atherogenic? |
|
Definition
| Small dense LDL molecules have greater mobility in the endothelium and arterial wall |
|
|
Term
| Which class of immunoglobulin possesses delta heavy chains? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What isolates light within a narrow region of the spectrum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name for RBCs of different shapes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What percentage of tissue located in the bone marrow cavities of adults is fat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Innate immunity includes: |
|
Definition
| Phagocytosis by polymorphonuclear cells |
|
|
Term
| If a physician suspects a qualitative platelet defect, the most useful test to order is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Reversal of a heparin overdose can be achieved by administration of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the normal ratio of myeloid to erythroid precursors in bone marrow?
(M:E ratio) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The number of platelets an average megakaryocyte generates is approximately: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most pathogenic and deadly Plasmodium spp. is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is the majority of reverse t3(rT3) made? |
|
Definition
| Peripheral deiodination of T4 |
|
|
Term
| Kupffer cells, found in the liver, are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Bone marrow cellularity refers to the ratio of: |
|
Definition
| Hematopoietic tissue to adipose tissue |
|
|
Term
| Antigen-independent lymphopoiesis occurs in primary lymphoid tissue located in the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is a slow acting barbiturate that effectively controls several types of seizures. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what disorder is significant basophilia most commonly seen? |
|
Definition
| Chronic myelogenous leukemia |
|
|
Term
| The type of immunity that follows the injection of an immunogen is termed: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Foodborne outbreaks of brucellosis are most commonly associated with eating: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The strength with which a multivalent antibody binds a multivalent antigen is termed the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of media is designed to support the growth of a wide range of microorganisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The porphyrin test determines an organisms requirement for: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| HLA antigens are found on all ____ cells. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ion-exchange chromatography separates solutes in a sample based on the: |
|
Definition
| Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge |
|
|
Term
| In assaying an analyte with a single-beam atomic absorption spectrophotometer, what is the instrument measuring? |
|
Definition
| Intensity of the beam from the hollow-cathode lamp after it has passed through the analyte-containing flame |
|
|
Term
| The measurement of CO2 in blood by means of a PCO2 electrode is dependent on the: |
|
Definition
| Change in pH because of increased fare carbonic acid in the electrolyte surrounding the electrodes |
|
|
Term
| Singlet oxygen reacting with a precursor chemiluminescent compound to form a decay product whose light energies a fluorophore best describes: |
|
Definition
| Luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay |
|
|
Term
| The type of immunity that follow the injection of antibodies synthesized by another individual or animal is termed: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is: |
|
Definition
| Scattered by particles in solution |
|
|
Term
| When spherocytes are reported, what is observed on the peripheral blood smear? |
|
Definition
| Red cells without a central pallor |
|
|
Term
| A drug that relaxes the smooth muscles of the bronchial passages is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which total protein method requires copper sulfate, potassium iodide in sodium hydroxide, and potassium sodium tartrate in its reagent system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term describes a mature red blood cell that contains iron granules or deposits? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cells that produce immunoglobulins in response to antigenic stimulation are designated : |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the Neisseria spp. produces acid from glucose and maltose but not sucrose or lactose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Irradiation of a unit of red blood cells is done to prevent the replication of donor: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Carcinoembryoinic antigen (CEA) is most likely to be produced in a malignancy involving the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the process of removing an antibody from the red blood cell membrane called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In spectrophotometric analysis, what is the purpose of the reagent blank? |
|
Definition
| Correct for color contribution of the reagents |
|
|
Term
| Description of chemiluminescence: |
|
Definition
| Chemical energy excites electrons that emit light upon return to ground state |
|
|
Term
| Decreased complement levels can be observed in: |
|
Definition
| Excessive activation & genetic defects |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of using ampholytes in isoelectric focusing? |
|
Definition
| Establish a pH gradient in the gel |
|
|
Term
| What method allows for the separation of charged particles based on their rates of migration in an electric field? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An emphysema patient suffering from fluid accumulation in the alveolar spaces is likely to be in what metabolic state? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Proteins may become denatured when subjected to mechanical agitation, heat, or extreme chemical treatment. How are proteins affected by denaturation? |
|
Definition
| Alteration in tertiary structure |
|
|
Term
| What is the most likely explanation for a patient with sickle cell anemia whose hemoglobin has dropped to 4g/dL and has a reticulocyte count of 0.1%? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Although serum elevations are not generally seen in early stages, which tumor markers are elevated in more advanced stages of breast cancer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which parameter is used in mass spectrometry to identify a compound? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the function of the flame in atomic absorption spectroscopy? |
|
Definition
| Bring the metal analyte to its ground state |
|
|
Term
| An important part of the nonspecific immune response is(are): |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Compared to blood agar media, chocolate blood agar favors the growth of which organisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Interleukins and colony stimulating factors are cytokines produced by: |
|
Definition
| Monocytes and T lymphocytes |
|
|
Term
| The minimum hemoglobin concentration in a finger stick from a male blood donor is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In an adult, what are the two best areas for obtaining active bone marrow by aspiration? |
|
Definition
| Posterior iliac crest and sternum |
|
|
Term
| According to AABB standards, what is the minimum pH required for platelets at the end of the storage period? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of elution technique may be used in high-performance liquid chromatography? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which EBV markers would be most likely positive for an individual who had infectious mononucleosis 9 years ago? |
|
Definition
| Anti-VCA(IgG) and anti-EBNA |
|
|
Term
| Chromatography system described as having a stationary phase that is liquid absorbed on particles packed in a column and a liquid moving phase that is pumped through a column? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When performing spectrophotometer quality assurance checks, what is the holmium oxide glass filter used to assess? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient is immunized for rubella. What type of immunity does this patient have? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The best method for screening cerebrospinal fluid for syphilis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The tumor marker associated with cancer of the pancreas is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An L/S ratio of 2.7 indicates: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cerebrospinal fluid results reveal an increase in protein, normal glucose, normal lactate and increased lymphocytes. These results most likely indicate: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Red blood cells which are to be tested with antiglobulin reagent are washed to: |
|
Definition
| Remove unbound serum globulin |
|
|
Term
| How many units of platelet concentrates would be needed to raise the platelet count 150,000/mm3 in an average sized adult? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cord bloods are washed prior to ABO and Rh grouping to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Four units of platelets were pooled and issued at 2:00pm. At 7:00pm the ward called, said they had never transfused the platelets, and wanted to know if the platelet pool could still be used? |
|
Definition
| No, they outdated at 6:00pm |
|
|
Term
| ANA fluorescent techniques were performed and a speckled pattern appeared with a titer of 640. What would you do next? |
|
Definition
| Test for extractable nuclear antibodies |
|
|
Term
| After exposure to measles, a patient is tested and has a 1:20 titer. This indicates: |
|
Definition
| Test should be repeated in 10 days to 2 weeks |
|
|
Term
| A patient has a T helper:T suppressor ratio of 1:2. What disease stage might you expect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most sensitive assay for all stages of syphilis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Procedure to test for antibodies to specific allergens: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Multiple myeloma most commonly involves which class of immunoglobulin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A peripheral blood smear stained with Prussian blue demonstrates siderocytes. On a Wright stained smear, what would be expected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Plasma cells evolve from which cell line? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The failure of granulocytes to develop past the "band" or two-lobed stage is characteristic of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The normal M:E ratio for an adult is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The major iron storage compound is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Prolonged bleeding time and giant platelets best describe: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A 7 year old male child is a candidate for ear tube surgery because of repeated ear infections but he has a persistent prolonged Prothrombin Time. The APTT is normal. Which condition is most likely?
A-Congenital factor VII deficiency
B-Vitamin K deficiency
C-Hemophilia A
D-Factor V Leiden |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If one performs an APTT on a patient on high-dose warfarin therapy, we would expect that the result would be:
A-Normal because warfarin effects the PT only
B-⬆ because of fibrinogen split products
C-⬆ because of factor VII deficiency
D-⬆ because of other factor deficiencies |
|
Definition
| D.⬆ because of other factor deficiencies |
|
|
Term
Which of the following changes occur when a urine specimen is left at room temperature for longer than 1-2 hours?
A-Ketones⬇
B-Bilirubin⬆
C-Bacteria⬇
D-Glucose⬆ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An abnormally high specific gravity may be seen in which of the following conditions?
A-Chronic renal disease
B-Diabetes insipidus
C-Metabolic acidosis
D-Radiographic dye injection |
|
Definition
| D.Radiographic dye injection |
|
|
Term
An elevated urine urobilinogen and a negative test for urine bilirubin may indicate which of the following conditions?
A-Acute hepatic toxicity
B-Biliary obstruction
C-Hemolytic disease
D-Urinary tract infection |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which results will typically not be affected in a hemolyzed sample?
A-Acid phosphatase
B-Sodium
C-Iron
D-Potassium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In drug testing using thin layer chromatography, why is a volatile organic solvent mixed with urine specimens? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The best laboratory test for detecting cystic fibrosis is:
A-Lipase
B-Sodium
C-Sweat chloride
D-Trypsin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A "rice water stool" is characteristic of patients infected with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Characteristics indicating an appropriate sputum collection would be microscopic findings of: |
|
Definition
| <10 epithelial cells, 10-25 white cells |
|
|
Term
| Clinical diagnosis of rabies in infected animals is dependent upon brain tissue observation of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organism is transmitted to humans by ticks and blood transfusions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Enterobius vermicularis infection is usually diagnosed by finding eggs from: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A cause of acute infectious infantile diarrhea is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The specimen of choice in a case of suspected epiglottitis is collected from the: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The most likely cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The treatment of choice for methicillin resistant Staphylococcus is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A scotochromogenic mycobacterium showing hydrolysis of Tween 80 in 7 days is probably:
A-M.avium
B-M.fortuitum
C-M.gordonae
D-M.marinum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Western blotting is a method used to detect which of the following?
A-DNA
B-Protein
C-RNA
D-Mutations |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Human genome consists of:
A-Haploid copy number
B-22 chromosomes
C-Circular structure
D-Approximately 6 billion bases |
|
Definition
| Approximately 6 billion bases |
|
|
Term
The coding sequences of a gene are known as:
A-Introns
B-Exons
C-Splice sites
D-Frameshifts |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If someone has a normal and mutant banding pattern, they are referred to as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
RT-PCR involves all of the following except:
A-DNA isolation
B-Reverse transcription
C-PCR amplification
D-Product analysis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Restriction endonucleases recognize specific:
A-Methylation patterns
B-Trinucleotide repeats
C-Palindromic DNA sequences
D-DNA damaged sites |
|
Definition
| Palindromic DNA sequences |
|
|
Term
| If an employee suspects that the employer is violating safety standards, which agency should be notified? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The white blood cell that can appear atypical or reactive on a Wright-stained smear is: |
|
Definition
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Term
| What stain could be used to differentiate between Howell-Jolly bodies and Pappenheimer bodies? |
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Definition
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
|
Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
|
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Term
| What organism causes White Piedra which infects hairs on the face, scalp, and body areas? |
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Definition
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Term
| What should be done with a box of 10 Red Blood Cell units that was received with a measured temperature inside the box at 15ºC? |
|
Definition
| Quarantine and destroy the products |
|
|
Term
| Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated in the liver with ____ to become water soluble? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which lipoproteins will form a creamy layer at the top of stored, non-fasting plasma specimens? |
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Definition
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Term
Primary hemostatic processes resulting from vascular damage include all of the following except:
A-Collagen activates glycoprotein IIb/IIIa during platelet activation
B-Von Willebrand factor mediates platelet adhesion
C-Platelet granule release and fibrinogen mediate platelet aggregation
D-Rapid and immediate vascular dilation occurs
E-Both B & C |
|
Definition
| Rapid and immediate vascular dilation occurs |
|
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Term
| Which test is performed to assess the average plasma glucose level that an individual maintained during the previous 10 week to 12 week period? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| The presence of hyaline, septate hyphae, and a young conidiophore with a foot cell and a swollen vesicle in a fungus culture are excellent clues indicative of: |
|
Definition
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|
Term
Anti-H:
A-Does not react with group O cells
B-Reacts more strongly with A1 cells than with O cells
C-Reacts more strongly with group A2 cells than with group A1 cells
D-Never reacts with group A cells |
|
Definition
| Reacts more strongly with group A2 cells than with group A1 cells |
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Term
| The Hemacytometer has how many countable one-millimeter squares on it? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| The absence of which clotting factor causes NO bleeding tendency? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is: |
|
Definition
| Scattered by particles in suspension |
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Term
| Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is: |
|
Definition
| Scattered by particles in suspension |
|
|
Term
Which of the following plasma proteins is not manufactured by the liver?
A-Albumin
B-IgG
C-Fibrinogen
D-Haptoglobin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which immunoglobulin class, characterized by its possession of a secretory component, is found in saliva, tears, and body secretions? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which immunoglobulin class is able to cross the placenta from the mother to the fetus? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which medium can be described as containing bile salts and dyes (bromthymol blue and acid fuchsin) to selectively slow the growth of most nonpathogenic gram-negative bacilli found in the gastrointestinal tract and allow Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp. to grow? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which of the microbiology media is used to isolate gram-positive microorganisms? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The expected blood gas results for a patient with chronic renal failure would match the pattern of: |
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Definition
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Term
| A blue top tube is collected for coagulation studies. It is a short draw. What will be the affect on testing? |
|
Definition
| The results will not be able to be obtained because the specimen should be rejected |
|
|
Term
An individuals red blood cells give the following reactions to antisera:
anti-D 4+
anti-C 3+
anti-E 0
anti-c 3+
anti-e 3+
Rh control 0
What is the most likely genotype? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The temperature of a shipment of red blood cell units that were received from the local blood center was recorded as 8*C. The correct course of action is to: |
|
Definition
| Place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable |
|
|
Term
| Which medium can be described as containing bile salts and dyes (bromthymol blue and acid fuchsin) to selectively slow the growth of most nonpathogenic gram-negative bacilli found in the gastrointestinal tract and allow Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp. to grow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the microbiology media is used to isolate gram-positive microorganisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The expected blood gas results for a patient with chronic renal failure would match the pattern of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A blue top tube is collected for coagulation studies. It is a short draw. What will be the affect on testing? |
|
Definition
| The results will not be able to be obtained because the specimen should be rejected |
|
|
Term
An individuals red blood cells give the following reactions to antisera:
anti-D 4+
anti-C 3+
anti-E 0
anti-c 3+
anti-e 3+
Rh control 0
What is the most likely genotype? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The temperature of a shipment of red blood cell units that were received from the local blood center was recorded as 8*C. The correct course of action is to: |
|
Definition
| Place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable |
|
|
Term
| Which medium can be described as containing bile salts and dyes (bromthymol blue and acid fuchsin) to selectively slow the growth of most nonpathogenic gram-negative bacilli found in the gastrointestinal tract and allow Salmonella spp. and Shigella spp. to grow? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the microbiology media is used to isolate gram-positive microorganisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The expected blood gas results for a patient with chronic renal failure would match the pattern of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A blue top tube is collected for coagulation studies. It is a short draw. What will be the affect on testing? |
|
Definition
| The results will not be able to be obtained because the specimen should be rejected |
|
|
Term
An individuals red blood cells give the following reactions to antisera:
anti-D 4+
anti-C 3+
anti-E 0
anti-c 3+
anti-e 3+
Rh control 0
What is the most likely genotype? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The temperature of a shipment of red blood cell units that were received from the local blood center was recorded as 8*C. The correct course of action is to: |
|
Definition
| Place the units in inventory because the temperature is acceptable |
|
|
Term
| An antithetical relationship exists between the antigens M and _. |
|
Definition
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Term
| When performing your mixing study, you aliquot your sample plasma and the pooled normal plasma to create your "mix". You then place the sample in a water bath to incubate for 90 minutes before running your new mixed sample. What is the problem with the steps involved in the procedure above? |
|
Definition
| You have not run a PT or aPTT on the new mix before incubating |
|
|
Term
| The protein component that surrounds the genome is called a: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is a technique used to determine presence of target DNA or RNA by adding a synthetic strand that binds by complementary base pairing to the target. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Remnants of erythrocyte nuclei, nuclear fragments, or aggregates of chromosomes are called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The children of an AB mother and a B father could phenotype as all of the following except:
A-O
B-A
C-B
D-AB |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When an individual is said to be group A, it refers to the individuals: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antimicrobial agents which act against one specific group of bacteria are called: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antibody screening of the recipient is performed as a component of compatibility testing to detect: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The blood component that should be used to prevent HLA alloimmunization of the recipient: |
|
Definition
| Leukocyte-reduced red blood cells |
|
|
Term
| Cryoprecipitated AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18°C or below, has a shelf life of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| ____ is indicated for fibrinogen deficiencies. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following glucose results would most likely result in glycosuria?
A-60mg/dl
B-120mg/dl
C-150mg/dl
D-225mg/dl |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Transport protein for bilirubin in the blood: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which factor deficiency is associated with either no bleeding or only minor bleeding even after trauma or surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Typical finding in hereditary spherocytosis(HS): |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at lower temperatures is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria(PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22-24°C in 50mL of plasma, and gently agitated can be used up to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A blood component prepared by thawing FFP at refrigerator temperature and removing the fluid portion is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Plastic bag overwraps are recommended when thawing units of FFP in 37°C water baths because they prevent: |
|
Definition
| The entry ports from becoming contaminated with water |
|
|
Term
| Platelets prepared by apheresis should contain at least ____ platelets. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Leukocyte-reduced red blood cells are ordered for a newly diagnosed bone marrow candidate. The best way to prepare this product is to: |
|
Definition
| Transfuse through a leukocyte-removing filter |
|
|
Term
| Upon inspection, a unit of platelets is noted to have visible clots, but otherwise appears normal. The technologist should: |
|
Definition
| Quarantine for gram stain and culture |
|
|
Term
| This red cell typing is most commonly found in the African American donor population: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
HLA antibodies are:
A-Naturally occurring
B-Induced by multiple transfusions
C-Directed against granulocyte antigens only
D-Frequently cause of hemolytic transfusion reactions |
|
Definition
| Induced by multiple transfusions |
|
|
Term
| Saliva would neutralize an auto Anti-H in the serum of a group A, Le(a-b+) patient that is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Found in the serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| CSF from a febrile 25-year old man with possible meningitis is rushed to the lab for a STAT gram stain and culture. While performing the gram stain, the tech spilled most of the specimen. The smear shows many neutrophils and no microorganisms. Since there is only enough specimen left for C/S, which ONE plate should you use? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma. Which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion?
A-AB and B
B-B and A
C-O and A
D-AB and A |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the emergency situation, Rh-negative red cells are transfused into an Rh-positive person of the genotype CDe/CDe. The first antibody most likely to develop is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Even in the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the Bombay phenotype(Oh) will always have naturally occurring: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A father donating platelets for his son is connected to a continuous flow machine, that uses the principle of centrifugation to separate platelets from whole blood. As the platelets are harvested, all other remaining elements are returned to the donor. This method of platelet collection is known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
And individuals red blood cells give the following reactions with Rh antisera:
Anti-D 4+
Anti-C 3+
Anti-E 0
Anti-c 3+
Anti-e 3+
Rh control 0
The individuals most probable genotype is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Kell (K1) antigen is:
A-Absent from the red cells of neonates
B-Strongly immunogenic
C-Destroyed by enzymes
D-Has a frequency of 50% in the random population |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A unit of packed RBCs are split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8am. The expiration date for each aliquot is now: |
|
Definition
| Original date of expiration |
|
|
Term
A CSF was collected from a 5-year old boy with a fever, and 3 tubes were transported to the lab.
-Tube 1 contained 50,000 RBCs and 48 WBCs
-Tube 2 contained 10 RBCs and 0 WBCS
What is the most likely explanation for the discrepancy? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In relationship testing, a "direct exclusion" is established when a genetic marker is: |
|
Definition
| Present in the child, but absent in the mother and alleged father |
|
|
Term
| In a relationship testing case, the child has a genetic marker that is absent in the mother and cannot be demonstrated in the alleged father. The type of paternity exclusion is known as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A woman types as Rh-positive. She has an anti-c titer of 32 at AHG. Her baby has a negative DAT and is not affected by hemolytic disease of the newborn. The fathers most likely Rh phenotype is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The infective stage for Strongyloides stercoralis is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If humans ingest the egg of Taenia solium, they may develop: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The amoeba which can cause liver or lung abscesses is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which trophozoite is suspected if ingested red cells are seen on a saline wet prep? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The trophozoite of which organism is characterized by "falling leaf motility", two nuclei, an axostyle, 4 pair of flagella and a sucker on the underside of the organism? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Pregnant women are to avoid cleaning litter boxes of their house cats until after delivery to prevent congenital infection of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Specimens for viral culture should be transported in: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The organism known for it's "stormy fermentation" and double zone of beta hemolysis under anaerobic conditions causes: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The bacteremic Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is associated with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A photochromogenic mycobacterium isolated at 30°C is most likely: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Loeffler's medium is used as a primary isolation medium for: |
|
Definition
| Corynebacterium diphtheriae |
|
|
Term
| Which characteristic is most useful in differentiating Citrobacter and Salmonella? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient's lymphocytes demonstrate cytoplasmic projections and a positive tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase stain. What would the diagnosis most likely be? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Causative agent of infectious mononucleosis: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A specimen from a female complaining of vaginitis emitted a "fishy" odor when mixed with 10% KOH. A wet prep showed some white cells and epithelial cells covered with small gram variable rods. The most likely organism is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A gram negative rod, isolated from the urine of a female with recurrent UTI, was oxidase negative, urease positive showing A/A with H2S on TSI and red/black on LIA is most likely: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An organism recovered from a diarrheal stool was K/A with no gas or H2S on TSI, lysine negative, oxidase negative, urease negative and citrate negative. The most likely organism is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The transfusion component of choice for a bleeding patient with a prolonged bleeding time, increased APTT, decreased levels of Factor VIII antigen and impaired aggregation of platelets in response to ristocetin would be: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient has experienced febrile reactions following 2 red cell transfusions. The best component to use if subsequent transfusions are needed would be: |
|
Definition
| Leukocyte-reduced red cells |
|
|
Term
| Why should potassium levels be monitored prior to and during administration of IV insulin? |
|
Definition
| Insulin causes potassium to move into cells which may cause a drop in potassium levels |
|
|
Term
| Which organism causes Visceral Larval Migrans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A blood smear showed crescent shaped gametocytes in several red cells. What is the most probable identity of the organisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following can cause a fatal meningoencephalitis?
A-Balantidium coli
B-Entamoeba histolytica
C-Naegleria fowleri
D-Toxoplasmosis gondii |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following eggs may not be detected in zinc flotation procedures?
A-Ascaris lumbricoides (fertile)
B-Trichiura trichuris
C-Schistosoma mansoni
D-Taenia solium |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A silver methenamine stained slide of a bronchial washing from an AIDS patient is examined. Which of the following parasites is most likely to be identified?
A-Cryptosporidium parvum
B-Toxoplasma gondii
C-Strongyloides stercoralis
D-Pneumocystis jiroveci |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following cysts has a nucleus with a prominent karyosome, a clear halo, no achromatic granules, no peripheral chromatin?
-Entamoeba histolytica
-Entamoeba hartmanni
-Endolimax nana
-Iodamoeba bütschlii |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient visiting from overseas is hospitalized due to suspected tuberculosis. The sputum sample submitted to the lab is bloody with orange-brown flecks. Preliminary TB tests are negative. Which of the following parasites may be suspected?
- Paragonimus westermani
-Ascaris lumbricoides
-Fasciolopsis buski
-Schistosoma japonicum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long must a person wait to donate blood or can they donate blood if they have had Babesiosis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the process of removing an antibody from the red blood cell membrane called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long must a person wait to donate blood or can they donate blood if they have had malaria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A 65-year old man has been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is being prepared for radiation therapy. His physician is concerned that the cancer may have metastasized to the man's skeletal system. Which laboratory analyte would give this information to the physician? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All of the following are goals of an exchange transfusion reaction except:
-Restore platelet count
-Remove high levels of maternal antibody
-Correct anemia
-Remove high levels of unconjugated bilirubin |
|
Definition
| Restore the platelet count |
|
|
Term
| In the disk diffusion method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing, what is the standard agar base medium for testing most bacterial organisms? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Excluding Enterobacteriaceae, name the second most common gram-negative bacilli encountered in clinical specimens. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following blood group systems has been implicated in transfusion reactions on the first exposure to incompatible red blood cells?
-Rh
-Kell
-ABO
-Kidd |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is normal in patients with pernicious anemia (PA)?
-Stomach acid
-Trypsin levels
-Intrinsic factor
-Absorption of vitamin B12 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Functions of the complement system include:
-Host defense against infection, such as chemotaxis
-Clearance of apoptotic cells
-Clearance of immune complexes from the tissues
-None of the above
-All the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which urine result is most apt to be changed by prolonged exposure to light? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Reagents used in gram stain are: |
|
Definition
| Crystal violet, iodine, decolorizer, safranin |
|
|
Term
| What color do gram-negative organisms stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following serum enzymes produced by the exocrine pancreas is the most specific in a differential diagnosis for detection of acute pancreatitis?
-Amylase
-Gamma-Glutamyl transferase(GGT)
-Lipase
-Pancreatase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At present, the major diagnostic usefulness of tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase (TR-ACP) is in its use in the:
-Diagnosis of liver disease
-Determination of pancreatitis
-Diagnosis of prostatic carcinoma
-Diagnosis of bone cancer |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following enzymes is considered a sensitive marker for chronic alcoholic liver disease?
-ALP
-GGT
-5'-NT
-AST |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Heart tissue contains which of the following CK isoenzyme fractions?
-MM only
-MB only
-BB only
-MM and MB |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In viral hepatitis, the aminotransaminase enzyme that persists longer is ____, and the most "liver-specific" enzyme is ____.
-ALT; ALT
-AST; ALT
-ALT; AST
-AST; AST |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The CK isoform that is considered as the most "cardiac-specific" of CK isoenzymes is:
-CK-BB
-CK-MB
-CK-MM
-Only total CK provides relevant results regarding cardiac disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A nucleic acid is:
-A base pair
-A nucleotide
-A trinucleotide sequence
-DNA or RNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The spread of cancerous cells to distant sites in the body is referred to as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most important use of tumor marker assessment is:
-Evaluating cancer prognosis
-Cancer diagnosis
-Tumor staging
-Monitoring effectiveness of treatment |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What microbiology specimens should never be refrigerated? |
|
Definition
| Body fluids such as CSF and blood |
|
|
Term
| What organism has umbrella motility? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organism causes Lyme disease? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What organism causes syphilis? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What color do gram-positive organisms stain? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Thayer-Martin agar plate is used for: |
|
Definition
| Isolating Neisseria gonorrhoeae |
|
|
Term
| XLD agar is selective for what species? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Cutaneous, gastrointestinal, and inhalation |
|
|
Term
In regard to the components of the genetic code, a "codon" is a:
-Sequence of three nucleotides
-Sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein
-Polymeric molecule composed of nucleic acids
-Phosphate group, a ribose sugar, and nitrogen |
|
Definition
| Sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein |
|
|
Term
During replication, the addition of bases occurs:
-In the 5' to 3' direction
-In the 3' to 5' direction
-In both the 5' to 3' and 3' to 5' direction
-Only at the methylated end of a DNA strand |
|
Definition
| In the 5' to 3' direction |
|
|
Term
When performing a PCR procedure, what is the best control to run to check for the presence of amplicon?
-Oligo dT control
-dTTP control
-Blank control
- Positive control |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Transfer RNA (tRNA):
-Contains the anticodon region that binds to mRNA codon in the ribosome
-Is a macromolecular complex containing ribosomal RNA
-Contains the codon sequence that synthesizes an amino acid
-Is a noncoding RNA |
|
Definition
| Contains the codon sequence that synthesizes an amino acid |
|
|
Term
The rate of DNA migration in a gel electrophoresis is dependent primarily on the:
-Buffer temperature
-Pore size of the gel
-Shape of the DNA molecule
-Size of the genomic DNA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In regard to the components of DNA, a base is:
-Sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein
-A carbon-nitrogen ring
-A polymeric molecule composed of nucleotide subunits
-A phosphate group, a ribose sugar, and nitrogen |
|
Definition
| Sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein |
|
|
Term
A pregnant woman with symptoms of thirst, frequent urination or unexplained weight loss should have which of the following tests performed?
-Epinephrine tolerance test
-Glucose tolerance test
-24 hour urine for protein
-Lactose tolerance test |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Monitoring long-term glucose control in patients with adult onset diabetes mellitus can best be accomplished by measuring:
-Weekly fasting 7 am glucose
-Monthly glucose tolerance test
-Hemoglobin A1C
-2 hour postprandial serum glucose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In an emergency situation, Rh-negative blood is transfused into an Rh-positive patient with the genotype CDe/CDe. The first antibody most likely to develop is:
-Anti-c
-Anti-d
-Anti-e
-Anti-E |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following groups would be acceptable for anaerobic cultures?
-Vagina, eye
-Ear, leg tissue
-Pleural fluid, brain abscess
-Urine, sputum |
|
Definition
| Pleural fluid, brain abscess |
|
|
Term
A liquid fecal specimen from a 3 month old infant is submitted for microbiological examination. In addition to culture on routine media for Salmonella and Shigella this specimen should be routinely:
-Examined for presence of Entamoeba hartmonni
-Screened for the detection of enterotoxigenic E.coli
-Examined for the presence of Campylobacter spp.
-Placed in Thioglycollate broth to detect Clostridium botulinum |
|
Definition
| Examined for the presence of Campylobacter spp. |
|
|
Term
| A patient is observed to have a rise in temperature and chills during a transfusion. The transfusion is stopped, and a post transfusion blood sample is carefully drawn. On receipt of this post reaction sample, the transfusion service should immediately: |
|
Definition
| Observe the color of the serum and perform a direct antiglobulin test |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is a characteristic of Kidd system antibodies?
-Usually IgM antibodies
-Corresponding antigens are destroyed by enzymes
-Usually strong and stable during storage
-Often implicated in delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions |
|
Definition
| Often implicated in delayed hemolytic transfusion reactions |
|
|
Term
Which one of the following is not a requirement for an ideal cardiac marker?
-Specificity
-Sensitivity
-Diagnostic usefulness
-Rapid removal from circulation |
|
Definition
| Rapid removal from circulation |
|
|
Term
Which one of the following metabolic compensatory effects occurs during respiratory acidosis?
-Retention of CO2
-Retention of bicarbonate
-Hypoventilation
-Decreased urinary excretion of acid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The conversion of mRNA nucleotide sequences and their attached amino acids into a peptide is referred to as:
-Replication
-Restriction
-Translation
-Transcription |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following DNA sequences plays an important role in directing the movement of chromosomes between daughter cells during cell division?
-Short tandem repeats
-Centromeres
-Pseudogenes
-Telomeres |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Elevation of ____ indicates pregnancy while an extreme elevation is indicative of a large placental (trophoblastic) tumor. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which one of the following tumor markers is not a carbohydrate-related tumor marker whose most important clinical use is in the assessment of breast cancer recurrence?
-CA 15-3
-CA 549
-CA 125
-CA 27.29 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If you were asked by your lab director to set up an enzyme profile for your chemistry analyzer specifically to assess hepatobiliary disease, which one of the following sets of enzymes would be most appropriate?
-Amylase, lipase, GGT
-LD, CK, ALT, AST
-ALT, AST, ALP, GGT
-ALP, GGT, NTP |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Lactate dehydrogenase (LD) exhibits elevated serum levels in many disorders. The disorder in which total LD demonstrates an elevation up to 50 times the upper reference limit is:
-Emphysema
-Megaloblastic anemia
-Myocardial infarction
-Pancreatitis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the predominant immunoglobulin class for anti-A and anti-B antibodies?
-A1
-A2
-A3
-None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Following a platelet concentrate transfusion, a patient did not obtain the calculated corrected count increment that was expected. The possible reason this did not occur is the:
-Patient had a fever
-Patient was actively bleeding
-Patient has leukocyte antibodies
-All the above
-None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During the donor screening process, the potential donors blood drop sinks to the bottom of the copper sulfate solution within 15 seconds. What is the interpretation of this test?
-The hemoglobin is within limits; however, the hematocrit must be checked
-The donor is temporarily deferred
-The donor has an acceptable hemoglobin and hematocrit to donate
-The specific gravity of the copper sulfate is incorrect |
|
Definition
| The donor has an acceptable hemoglobin and hematocrit to donate |
|
|
Term
On a smear made directly from a finger stick, there were very few or no platelets seen in the counting area of the slide. The first thing to do is:
-Perform a total platelet count
-Examine the edges of the slide
-Request a new specimen
-Make another smear |
|
Definition
| Examine the edges of the slide |
|
|
Term
Which one of the following statements correctly describes a property of an enzyme?
-Enzymes contain an allosteric site to which the substrate binds during a chemical reaction
- Enzymes are protein catalysts that decrease the activation energy of a chemical reaction
-Enzyme activity is not altered by heat denaturation
-Enzymes affect the rate of a chemical reaction by being altered to fit into the active site of a substrate |
|
Definition
| Enzymes are protein catalysts that decrease the activation energy of a chemical reaction |
|
|
Term
A specimen is received in a green top tube (heparin) with a request for alkaline phosphatase analysis. The plasma is separated and the test is performed. How will this specimen type affect the ALP results?
-The effect is unknown
-Results will be falsely increased
-Results will be falsely decreased
- There will be no effect as this is an acceptable specimen for this test |
|
Definition
| There will be no effect as this is an acceptable specimen for this test |
|
|
Term
The phase of the agglutination reaction is important in the interpretation of the antibody screen or antibody identification panel because it:
-Determines whether an autoantibody is present
- Indicates the class of the antibody
-Determines whether there is a delayed transfusion reaction
-Provides clues on antibody dosage |
|
Definition
| Indicates the class of the antibody |
|
|
Term
What would an individual with Cushing syndrome tend to exhibit?
-Normal blood glucose levels
-Type 2 diabetes
-Hyperglycemia
-Hypoglycemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does hydrolysis of sucrose yield? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Is starch a mono-, di-, or polysaccharide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The glucose concentration in fasting whole blood is (less than, more than, equal to) the concentration in plasma or serum? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following statements may be associated with the activity of insulin?
- Stimulates glycogenesis in the liver
-Stimulates release of hepatic glucose into the blood
-Decreases glucose uptake by muscle and fat cells
-Increased blood glucose levels |
|
Definition
| Stimulates glycogenesis in the liver |
|
|
Term
| In what form is glucose stored in muscle and liver? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does glycolysis mean? |
|
Definition
| Conversion of glucose to pyruvate |
|
|
Term
| What is the renal threshold for glucose? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the end product of purine catabolism in humans? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following hormones does not promote am increase in blood glucose levels?
-Growth hormone
-Insulin
-Glucagon
-Cortisol |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T cells are incapable of:
-Collaborating with B cells in antibody responses
-Secretion of cytokines
-Secretion of immunoglobulins
-Producing positive skin tests |
|
Definition
| Secretion of immunoglobulins |
|
|
Term
The mediator that is released during T-cell activation:
-Immunoglobulins
-Thymosin
-Serotonin
-Cytokines |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cleaved as a result of activation of the classical complement pathway:
-Properdin factor B
-Clq
-C4
-C3b |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Macrophage phagocytosis of bacteria is enhanced by:
-Antigen
-Opsonin
-Hapten
-Secretory piece |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Humoral antibodies are produced by:
-Macrophages
-T lymphocytes
-B lymphocytes
-Neutrophils |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After a penicillin injection, a patient rapidly develops respiratory distress, vomiting and hives. This reaction is primarily mediated by:
-IgG
-IgA
-IgM
-IgE |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The immunoglobulin class that is associated with a secretory component (transport piece):
-IgA
-IgD
-IgE
-IgG |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The immunoglobulin class that is the most efficient at agglutination:
-IgG
-IgA
-IgM
-IgE |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The J-chain is associated with:
-IgA
-IgG
-IgE
-IgD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Antibodies are produced by:
-Killer cells
-Marrow stem cells
-Mast cells
-B cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cells that are precursors of plasma cells and also produce immunoglobulins are:
-Macrophages
-B lymphocytes
-T lymphocytes
-Monocytes |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A treponemal test:
-RST
-FTA-ABS
-RPR
-VDRL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The expected colony count in a suprapubic urine from a healthy individual is:
-0 CFU/mL
-100 CFU/mL
-1,000 CFU/mL
-100,000 CFU/mL |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A penicillin-resistant Neisseria gonorrhoeae produces:
-Alpha-hemolysin
-Beta-lactamase
-Enterotoxin
-Coagulase |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The most sensitive substrate for the detection of beta-lactamase is:
-Penicillin
-Ampicillin
-Cefoxitin
-Nitrocefin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The type of microscope that would be most useful in examining viruses and the structure of microbial cells:
-Electron
-Dark-field
-Phase-contrast
-Bright-field |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An antibiotic used to suppress or kill contaminating fungi in media is:
-Penicillin
-Cycloheximide
-Streptomycin
-Amphotericin B |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A medium that aids in the presumptive identification of organisms based on their appearance on the medium is called:
-Enriched
-Selective
-Differential
-Specialized |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An antibiotic that inhibits cell wall synthesis is:
-Chloramphenicol
-Penicillin
-Colistin
-Sulfamethoxazole |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Must be incubated in a microaerophilic environment for optimal recovery of the organism:
-Campylobacter jejuni
-Escherichia coli
-Pseudomonas aeruginosa
-Proteus mirabilis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Red blood cell precursors in the bone marrow |
|
|
Term
| Maturation sequence of granulocytes starting with the youngest: |
|
Definition
| myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, band, segmented |
|
|
Term
| A sperm specimen is diluted with sodium bicarbonate and formalin before counting to: |
|
Definition
| Immobilize and preserve the sperm |
|
|
Term
Bence Jones proteins are:
-Immunoglobulin catabolic fragments in the urine
-Whole immunoglobulins in the urine
-Monoclonal light chains
-Fab fragments of a monoclonal protein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The immunoglobulin class typically found to be present in saliva, tears and other secretions is:
-IgG
-IgM
-IgD
-IgA |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The immunoglobulin class associated with immediate hypersensitivity or atopic reactions is:
-IgA
-IgM
-IgD
-IgE |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The strength of a visible reaction is known as:
-Prozone reaction
-Absorption
-Avidity
-Elution |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Increased CSF lactate is found in:
-Bacterial meningitis
-Reye encephalopathy
-Spina bifida
-Multiple sclerosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Decreased CSF protein can be found in:
-Meningitis
-Hemorrhage
-Multiple sclerosis
-CSF leakage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Chemical used in the sedimentation concentration technique for parasitology: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Oral anticoagulation is based on:
-Increasing plasminogen
-Vitamin K antagonism
-Activating plasmin
-Combining with antithrombin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Early, consistent, and specific finding in megaloblastic anemia: |
|
Definition
| Hypersegmented neutrophils |
|
|
Term
| Psittacosis is transmissible to man via contact with: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Rouleaux of red cells, when seen in the monolayer of a blood smear is characteristic of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In the small intestine, ____ is emulsified by bile acids to form micelles. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form of leukemia is associated with the best prognosis for a cure for children? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The creatinine clearance is reported in:
-mg/dL
-mg/24 hours
-mL/min
-mL/24 hours |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| MacConkey media for screening suspected cases of hemorrhagic Escherichia coli 0157:H7 must contain: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The gram-negative bacilli that ferments glucose:
-Alcaligenes faecalis
-Pseudomonas cepacia
-Acinetobacter lwoffzi
-Yersinia enterocolitica |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A beta-hemolytic streptococci that is bacitracin-sensitive and CAMP-negative is:
-Group B
-Group A
-Beta-hemolytic, not group A, B, or D
-Beta-hemolytic, group D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A beta-hemolytic streptococcus that is bacitracin-resistant and CAMP-positive is:
-Group A or B
-Group A
-Group B
-Beta-hemolytic, group D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The organism most commonly associated with neonatal purulent meningitis is:
-Neisseria meningitidis
-Streptococcus pneumoniae
-Haemophilus influenzae
- Group B streptococci |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The genera that include anaerobic gram-negative nonsporulating bacilli:
- Bacteroides
-Brucella
-Pasteurella
-Actinomyces |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Urine that develops a port wine color after standing may contain: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Milky urine from a 24 year old woman would most likely contain: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A brown-black urine would most likely contain: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Urine osmolality is related to: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A turbid cerebrospinal fluid is most commonly caused by increased: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Antidiuretic hormone regulates the reabsorption of: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Cessation of urine flow is defined as: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A strict anaerobe that produces terminal spores is:
-Clostridium tetani
-Corynebacterium perfringens
-Bacillus anthracis
-Eubacterium lentum |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cast that most frequently appears to have a brittle consistency:
-Hyaline
-Granular
-Waxy
-Fatty |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An abnormal crystal described as a hexagonal plate: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The primary component of most urinary calculi is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After warming, a cloudy urine clears. This is due to the presence of:
-Urates
-WBCs
-Phosphates
-Bacteria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cast that is most likely to be found in healthy people: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cast that is most indicative of end stage renal disease: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Ghost red blood cells are seen in urine that is: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In most compound light microscopes, the ocular lens has a magnification of:
-10x
-40x
-50x
-100x |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The cell that is most commonly associated with vaginal contamination: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The pH of a urine specimen measures the:
-Free sodium ions
-Free hydrogen ions
-Total acid excretion
-Volatile acids |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Upon standing at room temperature, a urine pH typically:
-Decreases
-Increases
-Remains the same
-Changes depending on bacterial concentration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The reagent that is used to react with ketones in the urine:
-Sodium nitroprusside
-Acetoacetic acid
-Acetone
-Beta-hydroxybutyric acid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Tiny, colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals were found in an alkaline urine sediment. They most likely are: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The crystal that may be found in acidic urine: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The crystal that appears as fine, silky needles: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The crystal that is seen in an amber urine with a positive bilirubin: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The protein section of the urine reagent strip is most sensitive to:
-Mucoprotein
-Globulin
-Albumin
-Bence Jones protein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
All casts typically contain:
-Albumin
-Globulin
-Immunoglobulins G and M
-Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A blood donor has the genotype: hh,AB. His red blood cell phenotype is:
-A
-B
-O
-AB |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Complement can be inactivated in human serum by heating to ____°C.
-25
-45
-56
-37 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which leukemia is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Red urine may be due to:
-Bilirubin
-Excess urobilin
-Myoglobin
-Homogenistic acid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The yellow color of urine is primarily due to:
-Urochrome pigment
-Methemoglobin
-Bilirubin
-Myoglobin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which leukemia is associated with Auer rods? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Complement can be inactivated in human serum by heating for ____ minutes.
-5
-10
-15
-30 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A specimen should be reinactivated when more than ____ hour(s) has/have elapsed since inactivation.
-1
-2
-4
-8 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The red cells of a nonsecretor (se/se) will most likely type as:
-Le(a-b-)
-Le(a+b+)
-Le(a+b-)
-Le(a-b+) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The volume of urine excreted in a 24 hour period by an adult patient was 500mL. This condition would be:
-Anuria
-Oliguria
-Polyuria
-Dysuria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The reason for performing a Clinitest on a newborns urine is to check for:
-Fructose
-Glucose
-Lactose
-Galactose |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A build up of fluid in a body cavity is called:
-An effusion
-A transudate
-An exudate
-Metastasis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The protein component of a lipoprotein is referred to as a(n):
-Terpene
-Apolipoprotein
-Prostaglandin
-Phospholipid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Hyaline casts are usually found:
-In the center of the coverslip
-Under subdued light
-Under very bright light
-In the supernatant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The best medium for culture of Francisella tularensis is:
-Loeffler medium
- Cystine glucose blood agar
-Charcoal selective medium
-Bordet-Gengou medium |
|
Definition
| Cystine glucose blood agar |
|
|
Term
The marker that can be used to identify a body fluid as semen:
-PSA
-Alkaline phosphatase
-Fructose
-Hyaluronic acid |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The assay that would confirm the immune status to hepatitis B virus:
-HBsAg
-Anti-HBs
-IgM anti-HBcAg
-Hepatitis C Ag |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Shigella species characteristically are:
-Nonmotile
-Urease positive
-Oxidase positive
-Lactose fermenters |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary isolation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires:
-Anaerobic conditions
-Starch media
-Carbon dioxide
-Blood agar |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The Rh antigen that has the highest frequency in Caucasians is:
-D
-E
-c
-e |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If the plasma glucose level is 100mg/dL, what is the approximate glucose concentration in the patient's CSF? |
|
Definition
| 60mg/dL (CSF glucose is 60% of plasma glucose) |
|
|
Term
| At what percent should diabetics maintain their hemoglobin A1C level? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In gout, what analyte deposits in joints and other body tissues? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH) is associated with antibody specificity toward:
-Kell system antigens
-Duffy system antigens
-P antigen
-I antigen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The red cell antigens that are found on glycophorin-A:
-M, N
-Le(a), Le(b)
-S, s
-P, P(1), P(k) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at lower temperatures is:
-Anti-Lu(a)
-Anti-Lu(b)
-Anti-Lu3
-Anti-Lu(ab) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Saliva would neutralize an auto anti-H in the serum of a group A, Le(a-b+) patient that is:
-Group A, Le(a-b-)
-Group A, Le(a+b-)
-Group O, Le(a+b-)
-Group O, Le(a-b+) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Inhibition testing can be used to confirm antibody specificity for:
-Anti-M
-Anti-Lu(a)
-Anti-Le(a)
-Anti-Fy(a) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cells of the A3 subgroup will:
-React with dolichos bifiorus
-Be negative with anti-A
- Give a mixed-field reaction with anti-A,B
-Be negative with anti-H |
|
Definition
| Give a mixed-field reaction with anti-A,B |
|
|
Term
Increased LD because of the elevation of LD isoenzymes 1 and 2 is caused by:
-Muscular dystrophy
-Myocardial infarction
-Pancreatitis
-Hepatic damage |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ALT is an enzyme that is most specific for the:
-Heart
-Liver
-Pancreas
-Kidney |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
ALP levels may be increased in:
-Pancreatic disease
-Liver or bone disease
-Kidney or bone disease
-Kidney or liver disease |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
T lymphocytes are incapable of functioning as:
-Cytotoxic cells
-Helper cells
-Phagocytic cells
-Regulatory cells |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
An important cellular mediator of immune complex tissue injury:
-Basophil
-Neutrophil
-Eosinophil
-Mast cell |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Cold agglutinin syndrome is associated with an antibody specificity toward:
-Fy:3
-P
-I
-Rh;1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A characteristic of anti-i:
-Often associated with hemolytic disease of the newborn
- Reacts best at room temperature or 4°C
-Reacts best at 37°C
-Is usually IgG |
|
Definition
| Reacts best at room temperature or 4°C |
|
|
Term
The shelf-life of whole blood collected in CPDA-1 is:
-7 days
-28 days
-35 days
-48 days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Enterococcus faecium is:
-Motile
-Often Vancomycin resistant
-Susceptible to the aminoglycosides
-Arabinose negative |
|
Definition
| Often Vancomycin resistant |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is used as an indicator of inflammation?
-C-Reactive Protein (CRP)
-RPR
-Complement
-Alpha fetoprotein |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Common colds are MOST often associated with which agent? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Beta-lactam antibiotics interfere with cell wall synthesis by:
-Binding with a transpeptidase
-Preventing the final stage of peptidoglycan synthesis
-Interfering with PBPs
-All of the above
-None of the above |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following methods would be used to confirm the presence of Bence-Jones protein in the urine:
-Urine protein electrophoresis
-Sulfosalicylic acid
-Isoelectric focusing
-Immunofixation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Anti-H:
-Does not react with group O cells
-Reacts more strongly with A1 cells than with O cells
-Never reacts with group A cells
-Reacts more strongly with group A2 cells than with group A1 cells |
|
Definition
| Reacts more strongly with group A2 cells than with group A1 cells |
|
|
Term
The use of the direct antiglobulin test is indicated in all the following except:
-Transfusion reactions
-Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
-Hemolytic disease of the newborn
-Detection of alloantibodies in serum |
|
Definition
| Detection of alloantibodies in serum |
|
|
Term
Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated in the liver with which of the following substances to become water soluble?
-Glycogen
-Glucose oxidase
-Glucuronic acid
-Glycine |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What sero-marker is the first marker to become positive in Hepatitis B and is associated with the infective stage?
-HBc antibody
-HBc total
-HBs antigen
-Hbs antibody
-Hbe antigen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Analytical sensitivity of a method generally refers to:
-Its ability to measure only what is being assayed
-Its ability to measure high concentrations of analytes
-It not being affected by interfering substances
-Its ability to measure low concentrations of analytes |
|
Definition
| Its ability to measure low concentrations of analytes |
|
|
Term
When two consecutive controls are greater than ± 2 SD units from the mean, what should you do first?
-Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by patient specimen results if QC is acceptable
-Repeat the controls before taking any corrective action
-Shut down the equipment and call service
-Prepare fresh standard and recalibrate |
|
Definition
| Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by patient specimen results if QC is acceptable |
|
|
Term
What are fires called that involve combustible materials such as paper, wood, or cloth?
-Class A
-Class B
-Class C
-Class D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patient M.M. was admitted to the hospital with acute bleeding. Anti-E was detected in the patients serum. Four E-negative units of blood were crossmatched for the patient. The units were compatible at immediate spin and following the antiglobulin test. After the antiglobulin test was performed, IgG sensitized red cells gave a 2+ agglutination reaction. The proper interpretation of this reaction is:
-IgG-sensitized red cells spontaneously agglutinated
- Antihuman globulin washing procedure was adequate
-Crossmatch was incompatible
-Patients anti-E reacted with the IgG-sensitized red cells |
|
Definition
| Antihuman globulin washing procedure was adequate |
|
|
Term
A dilution is:
-Ratio of volume or number of parts of the substance to be diluted in the total volume, or parts, of the final solution
-Frequently used measure in serologic testing
- Indication of relative concentration
-All the above
-None of the above |
|
Definition
| Indication of relative concentration |
|
|
Term
Serum for detection of antibodies should be drawn during the:
-Acute phase of illness only
- Acute and convalescent phases of illness
-Convalescent phase of illness only
-Acute and convalescent phases, as well as 6 months after an illness |
|
Definition
| Acute and convalescent phases of illness |
|
|
Term
A central concept of serologic testing is:
-Antigen-antibody interaction
-Determination of antibody comparison
- Determination of antigen titer
-Rise in antibody titer |
|
Definition
| Determination of antigen titer |
|
|
Term
The normal glomerular filtration rate is:
-1mL/min
- 120mL/min
-660mL/min
-1,200mL/min |
|
Definition
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Term
Normal urine primarily consists of:
-Water, protein, and sodium
-Water, urea, and protein
- Water, urea, and sodium chloride
-Water, urea, and bilirubin |
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Definition
| Water, urea, and sodium chloride |
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Term
In regard to replication, the "parent" strand of deoxyribonucleic acid(DNA):
-Is completely excised by exonuclease enzymes when replication of the strand is complete
-Is also referred to as the "leading" strand
- Has a sequence that is complementary to the daughter strand being replicated
-Will be copied by DNA polymerase I to form a new daughter DNA strand |
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Definition
| Has a sequence that is complementary to the daughter strand being replicated |
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Term
A urines specific gravity is directly proportional to its:
-Turbidity
- Dissolved solids
-Sugar content
-Salt content |
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Definition
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Term
Can give false-negative urine protein reading:
-Heavy mucus
-Presence of blood
-Contamination with vaginal discharge
- Very dilute urine |
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Definition
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Term
Clue cells are a form of:
- Squamous epithelial cell
-Urothelial cell
-White blood cell
-Renal tubular epithelial cell |
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Definition
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Term
The possibility of detecting glitter cells is associated with urine that is:
-Alkaline
-Dilute
-Concentrated
-Acidic |
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Definition
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Term
The cell that is most likely to be seen in the urine sediment following a catheterization procedure:
-White blood cell
- Urothelial cell
-Renal tubular epithelial cell
-Squamous epithelial cell |
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Definition
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Term
A reagent strip test for blood has been reported positive. Microscopic examination fails to yield red blood cells. This patients condition can be called:
-Oliguria
- Hemoglobinuria
-Hemosiderinuria
-Hematuria |
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Definition
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Term
The primary reagent in the copper reduction tablet:
-Sodium carbonate
- Copper sulfate
-Glucose oxidase
-Polymerized diazonium salt |
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Definition
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Term
The best way to lower the light intensity of the microscope is to:
-Lower the condenser
-Raise the condenser
- Lower the rheostat
-Adjust the aperture diaphragm |
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Definition
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Term
Oval fat bodies are:
-Free-floating fat droplets
- Renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids
-White blood cells with phagocytized lipids
-Squamous epithelial cells that contain lipids |
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Definition
| Renal tubular epithelial cells that contain lipids |
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Term
Glitter cells are a microscopic finding of:
- Red blood cells in hypertonic urine
- Red blood cells in hypotonic urine
- White blood cells in hypertonic urine
- White blood cells in hypotonic urine |
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Definition
| White blood cells in hypotonic urine |
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Term
Urine reagent strips should be stored in a(n):
-Refrigerator
-Incubator
- Cool dry area
-Open jar exposed to air |
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Definition
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Term
Routine screening of urine samples for glycosuria is performed primarily to detect:
-Glucose
-Galactose
-Bilirubin
-Ketones |
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Definition
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Term
Most useful in establishing a diagnosis in the convalescence phase of a viral infection:
-Shell vial
- Serological techniques
-Culture on McCoy media
-Slide culture |
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Definition
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Term
The normal renal threshold for glucose in the adult is approximately:
-50mg/dL (2.8mmol/L)
- 100mg/dL (5.5mmol/L)
- 160mg/dL (8.8mmol/L)
-300mg/dL (16.5mmol/L) |
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Definition
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Term
A patient has glucosuria, hyperglycemia and polyuria. These findings are most consistent with:
-Renal glucosuria
- Diabetes mellitus
-Emotional stress
-Eating a heavy meal |
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Definition
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Term
The component that is present in serum but not present in the glomerular filtrate:
-Urea
-Glucose
-Amino acids
- Large molecular weight proteins |
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Definition
| Large molecular weight proteins |
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|
Term
Polyuria is usually correlated with:
- Acute glomerulonephritis
-Diabetes mellitus
-Hepatitis
-Tubular damage |
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Definition
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|
Term
Cholesterol crystals will most likely be observed in urine that contains:
-3+ glucose
-4+ protein
-WBC casts
-Triple phosphate crystals |
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Definition
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|
Term
Polarized light can often be used to differentiate between:
- Fibers and mucus clumps
-Hyaline and waxy casts
-Squamous and transitional epithelial cells
-Red blood cells and white blood cells |
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Definition
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Term
The contaminant that has a dimpled center and will polarize:
-Starch
-Oil droplets
-Pollen grains
-Air bubbles |
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Definition
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|
Term
The media that can be used to culture Campylobacter jejuni:
- Skirrow medium
-CIN agar
-Anaerobic CNA agar
-Bismuth sulfite |
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Definition
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Term
An abdominal fluid is submitted from surgery. The physician wants to determine if this fluid could be urine. The tech should:
-Test for protein, glucose and pH
-Smell the fluid
- Test for urea and creatinine
-Perform a culture |
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Definition
| Test for urea and creatinine |
|
|
Term
Ketones in urine are due to:
-Complete utilization of fatty acids
-High carbohydrate diets
- Incomplete fat metabolism
-Renal tubular dysfunction |
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Definition
| Incomplete fat metabolism |
|
|
Term
Reagent strip tests for ketones measure primarily:
-Acetone
- Acetoacetic acid
-Cholesterol
-Beta-hydroxybutyric acid |
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Definition
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|
Term
Bilirubinuria may be associated with:
-Strenuous exercise
-Increased destruction of platelets
- Viral hepatitis
-Hemolytic anemia |
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Definition
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|
Term
The chromogen for the fecal occult blood test is:
- Gum guaiac
-NADH
-O-toluidine
-P-aminocinnamaldehyde |
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Definition
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|
Term
The correct storage temperature for the component listed:
-Cryoprecipitated AHF, 4°C
-Red Blood Cells, Frozen, -40°C
- Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), -20°C
-Platelets, 37°C |
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Definition
| Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP), -20°C |
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Term
When platelets are stored on a rotator set on an open bench top, the ambient air temperature must be recorded:
-Once a day
-Twice a day
-Every 4 hours
-Every hour |
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Definition
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|
Term
The optimum storage temperature for Red Blood Cells, Frozen is:
- -80°C
- -20°C
- -12°C
-4°C |
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Definition
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|
Term
Cryoprecipitated AHF, if maintained in the frozen state at -18°C or below, has a shelf life of:
-42 days
-6 months
-12 months
-36 months |
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Definition
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|
Term
Hives and itching are symptoms of the transfusion reaction:
-Febrile
-Allergic
-Bacterial
-Circulatory overload |
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Definition
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|
Term
Fever and chills ate symptoms of the transfusion reaction:
-Citrate toxicity
-Circulatory overload
-Allergic
-Febrile |
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Definition
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|
Term
Hypotension, nausea, flushing, fever and chills are symptoms of the transfusion reaction:
-Allergic
-Circulatory overload
- Hemolytic
-Anaphylactic |
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Definition
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|
Term
The most serious hemolytic transfusion reactions are due to incompatibility in the blood group system:
-ABO
-Rh
-MN
-Duffy |
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Definition
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|
Term
Severe intravascular hemolysis is most likely caused by antibodies of the blood group system:
-ABO
-Rh
-Kell
-Duffy |
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Definition
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|
Term
A trauma patient who has just received ten units of blood may develop:
-Anemia
-Leukocytosis
-Polycythemia
- Thrombocytopenia |
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Definition
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|
Term
The Rapid Plasma Reagin test:
- Is useful in screening for syphilis
-Is useful in diagnosing syphilis
-Does not give false-positives
-Uses heated plasma |
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Definition
| Is useful in screening for syphilis |
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|
Term
The Kell (K1) antigen is:
-Absent from the red cells of neonates
- Strongly immunogenic
-Destroyed by enzymes
-Has a frequency of 50% in the random population |
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Definition
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|
Term
Proteolytic enzyme treatment of red cells usually destroy the antigen:
-Jk(a)
-E
- Fy(a)
-k |
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Definition
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Term
Platelets prepared in a polyolefin type container, stored at 22-24°C in 50mL of plasma, and gently agitated can be used up to:
-24 hours
-48 hours
-3 days
-5 days |
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Definition
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Term
Cryoprecipitated AHF must be transfused within what period of time following thawing and pooling:
-4 hours
-8 hours
-12 hours
-24 hours |
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Definition
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|
Term
If the seal is entered on a unit of red blood cells stored at 1°C to 6°C, what is the maximum allowable storage period, in hours:
-4
-6
-24
-48 |
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Definition
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|
Term
Treatment of IgG with papain results in how many fragments from each immunoglobulin molecule:
-2
-3
-4
-5 |
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Definition
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|
Term
The key structural difference that distinguishes immunoglobulin subclasses is the:
-Number of domains
-Stereometry of the hypervariable region
- The sequence of the constant regions
-Covalent linkage of the light chains |
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Definition
| The sequence of the constant regions |
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|
Term
The immunoglobulin that is present in the highest concentration in normal human serum:
-IgM
-IgG
-IgA
-IgE |
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Definition
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|
Term
The statement about immunoglobulins that is true:
-There are only 2 subclasses of IgG
-IgA class is determined by the gamma heavy chain
- IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules
-Immunoglobulins are produced by T lymphocytes |
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Definition
| IgA class exists as serum and secretory molecules |
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|
Term
The IgG subclass that is most efficient at crossing the placenta:
-IgG1
- IgG2
- IgG3
- IgG4 |
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Definition
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