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Aircraft fuel systems 2A634 cdcs study guide
Aircraft fuel systems
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Aviation
Not Applicable
07/09/2013
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Term
1. (001) Which character of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the skill level?
 Definition
Fourth.
Term
2. (001) Which Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the awarded specialty in which an airman is most
highly qualified to perform duty?
 Definition
PAFSC.
Term
3. (001) Which Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the authorized manning document position to which
an airman is assigned?
 Definition
DAFSC.
Term
4. (002) Which tasks require the initials of a certifying official in the last column of a specialty training standard
(STS)?
 Definition
Core tasks only.
Term
5. (003) As an aircraft fuel systems journeyman, you’ll be expected to
 Definition
troubleshoot components.
Term
6. (003) As an aircraft fuel systems journeyman, what are your duties regarding hazardous materials?
 Definition
Handle, label, and dispose of them according to environmental standards.
Term
7. (004) What are the three types of wings?
 Definition
Operational, air base, and specialized mission wings.
Term
8. (004) Which group is responsible for operating the primary mission equipment?
 Definition
Operations group.
Term
9. (004) Which group is concerned with the maintenance of air and space weapon systems?
 Definition
Maintenance group.
Term
10. (005) To whom is the component maintenance squadron commander responsible for the overall squadron
management?
 Definition
Maintenance group commander.
Term
11. (005) The technical authority and advisor of maintenance production in a maintenance shop is the
 Definition
section chief.
Term
12. (005) Propellers are maintained by personnel assigned to the
 Definition
propulsion flight.
Term
13. (005) Maintenance and repair of gaseous and cryogenic servicing units are performed by the personnel
assigned to the
 Definition
electro-environmental (E/E) flight.
Term
14. (006) Responsibility for enforcing sound maintenance practices rests with the
 Definition
squadron commander.
Term
15. (006) Who selects personnel to perform special certification tasks?
 Definition
Flight chief.
Term
16. (006) Responsibility for reviewing, evaluating, and taking corrective action based on quality assurance (QA)
and other inspection reports rests with the
 Definition
section chief.
Term
17. (007) Who approves local manufacture requests?
 Definition
Maintenance group commander (MXG/CC).
Term
18. (007) Who ensures there is an orientation program developed for all newly assigned personnel?
 Definition
Maintenance group commander (MXG/CC).
Term
19. (007) Advising the wing staff on operational capabilities, limitations, and status of resources is a function of
the personnel assigned to the
 Definition
weapons and tactics flight.
Term
20. (007) Which flight trains aircrew, prepares the wing for wartime missions, and provides threat assessments?
 Definition
Intelligence flight.
Term
21. (007) The maintenance schedule usually covers a period of
 Definition
three months.
Term
22. (008) Which of the following is a dynamic inspection system designed to improve aircraft combat
capability?
 Definition
Maintenance standardization/evaluation program (MSEP).
Term
23. (008) The product improvement program is tasked to promote
 Definition
deficiency reporting programs.
Term
24. (009) Which is an inspection requiring skills, equipment, and facilities beyond your normal
duties?
 Definition
Programmed depot maintenance (PDM).
Term
25. (010) Which basic inspection concept looks for cut tires, foreign object damage (FOD) covers and
removal of safety pins?
 Definition
End-of-runway (EOR).
Term
26. (010) Which inspection concept is applicable to aircraft doing an immediate turnaround?
 Definition
Thru-flight (TH).
Term
27. (011) Which inspection augments the basic post flight?
 Definition
Hourly postflight.
Term
28. (012) Which inspection consists of checking certain components, areas or systems to ensure no
condition exists that could result in failure before the next scheduled inspection?
 Definition
Minor.
Term
29. (012) Which inspection concept is performed when the aircraft returns from a long range mission?
 Definition
Home station check (HSC).
Term
30. (013) What type inspection is performed on all newly assigned aircraft?
 Definition
Acceptance.
Term
31. (013) An aircraft is examined with sufficient thoroughness to determine its mechanical fitness for
flight and the completeness of its equipment and supporting documents during a
 Definition
acceptance inspection.
Term
32. (013) Which inspection is outlined in the –6 technical order (TO) and differs from other types of
inspections in that only one part of the aircraft or item requires the inspection.
 Definition
Special.
Term
33. (014) During an inspection, when are all write ups found and documented?
 Definition
Look phase.
Term
34. (014) During an inspection, when does the performance of operational checks and functional
check flights begin?
 Definition
Post inspection phase.
Term
35. (015) When you clear a discrepancy in the AF technical order (AFTO) 781’s, what will be placed
over the symbol?
 Definition
Last name initial.
Term
36. (016) Prior to performing maintenance, you review the AF technical order (AFTO) 781’s, to
ensure
 Definition
there are no potential safety hazards.
Term
37. (016) On the AF technical order (AFTO) Form 781H, after refueling the aircraft, the person who
performs or supervises the operation puts their name in block 14 using what format?
 Definition
Minimum signature (first initial and last name).
Term
38. (017) What part of the AF technical order (AFTO) Form 244 provides a means to document a
quality control review of the form?
 Definition
Part IV, SUPERVISORY REVIEW.
Term
39. (017) Which section of AF technical order (AFTO) Form 244 is used to document delayed
discrepancies and overdue time changes?
 Definition
Part V, INDUSTRIAL/SUPPORT EQUIPMENT RECORD.
Term
40. (017) In which AF technical order (AFTO) Form 95 block do you enter the manufacturer’s name?
 Definition
II.
Term
41. (017) Part two of AF technical order (AFTO) Form 350 is used by the processing center for what
purpose?
 Definition
Control the item/ensure timely maintenance.
Term
42. (018) The basic ingredient of all accidents is based on
 Definition
the law of cause and effect.
Term
43. (018) What percentage of all accidents is due to natural causes, such as lightning, storms, or floods?
 Definition
Two.
Term
44. (019) Many accidents can be prevented by simply
 Definition
keeping your work area clean and orderly.
Term
45. (019) All of these are examples of internal distracters except
 Definition
noise.
Term
46. (020) The main purpose of ground mishap reporting is to
 Definition
identify the circumstances or causes so that future accidents can be prevented.
Term
47. (020) An accident has resulted in the hospitalization of three or more personnel. What kind of mishap would
this be classified as?
 Definition
Class B.
Term
48. (020) An accident on the flightline has resulted in the death of a civilian worker. What kind of mishap
would this be considered as?
 Definition
Class A.
Term
49. (020) Which of these results would categorize an accident as a class C mishap?
 Definition
One or more days away from work.
Term
50. (021) What materials are used to make personnel static discharge plates?
 Definition
Copper, zinc, or zinc-coated metal.
Term
51. (021) The purpose of bonding is to eliminate
 Definition
differential in electrical charges between a component and the aircraft.
Term
52. (021) The correct sequence for bonding is to first attach the cable to the
 Definition
equipment then to the aircraft.
Term
53. (021) Why must you first attach a grounding cable to the earth ground and then the equipment or aircraft?
 Definition
You are allowing yourself to be grounded first.
Term
54. (021) Why shouldn’t you wear gloves when touching the personnel static discharge plate?
 Definition
Gloves are insulators and prevent the release of static electricity from your body.
Term
55. (022) The minimum safe distance from the front of an intake of an operating jet engine is
 Definition
25 feet.
Term
56. (022) What should you use to prevent other maintainers of inadvertent operation of devices such as landing
gear and flight control surfaces?
 Definition
Warning tags AFTO Form 1492.
Term
57. (022) What type of communication may be used during ground refueling operations?
 Definition
The aircraft intercommunication system.
Term
58. (022) As a fuel systems journeyman, what are your responsibilities concerning ground locks?
 Definition
Ensure the ground crew has installed them before you begin work.
Term
59. (023) Two major contributors of foreign object damage (FOD) are poor
 Definition
work habits and housekeeping.
Term
60. (023) The three general classes of foreign object damage (FOD) are
 Definition
metal, stone, and miscellaneous.
Term
61. (024) Volatility is the rate at which a fuel
 Definition
vaporizes.
Term
62. (024) What is the first thing you should do if your clothes become soaked with fuel or chemicals?
 Definition
Leave the area and remove your clothes.
Term
63. (024) One of the most common signs of excessive fuel vapor inhalation is
 Definition
muscular uncoordination.
Term
64. (025) What type of fuel spill involves an area greater than two feet, but is ten foot or less in any direction, or
less than 50 square feet, and is not of a continuing nature?
 Definition
Class II.
Term
65. (025) What action must be taken regarding a class I fuel spill on the flightline?
 Definition
Monitor the spill until the aircraft is moved.
Term
66. (026) At what percentage of oxygen is the atmosphere level considered to be oxygen deficient?
 Definition
Less than 19.5 percent.
Term
67. (026) What are the three hazards associated with compressed air?
 Definition
Air pressure, flying, particles and noise.
Term
68. (026) Which of the following would not be on a compressed air safety checklist?
 Definition
Use air in well ventilated area.
Term
69. (027) Respirator training must be documented on an
 Definition
AF Form 55.
Term
70. (027) Individually issued respirators should be cleaned and sanitized
 Definition
at the end of the each day in which they were used.
Term
71. (027) Respirators stored for emergency or rescue use must be inspected at least
 Definition
monthly.
Term
72. (028) Which footwear items are authorized for wear inside a fuel cell?
 Definition
Static resistant or neoprene booties.
Term
73. (028) When you’re applying solvents to an aircraft structure, you may wear
 Definition
approved gloves.
Term
74. (029) You must wear safety goggles when you’re
 Definition
draining a fuel tank.
Term
75. (029) What should you do to a self-contained emergency eyewash station before you begin any fuel systems
maintenance?
 Definition
Ensure the unit is filled with fresh water.
Term
76. (030) What type of index technical order (TO) is most frequently used?
 Definition
Numerical.
Term
77. (030) Which is not listed by the index technical order (TO)?
 Definition
Number of pages.
Term
78. (030) Which is a complete listing of technical order’s (TO) for a specific weapons system?
 Definition
List of applicable publications (LOAP).
Term
79. (031) A job guide is an example of
 Definition
an operations and maintenance (O&M) manual.
Term
80. (032) What type of time compliance technical order (TCTO) is issued for conditions that could
have a negative effect on aircraft operational efficiency?
 Definition
Routine action.
Term
81. (032) Which time compliance technical order (TCTO) requires compliance within a specified
time limit of one to ten days?
 Definition
Urgent action.
Term
82. (034) What type of technical order (TO) is mainly a work simplification device?
 Definition
Abbreviated.
Term
83. (034) Which abbreviated technical order (TO) is meant to be followed step by step?
 Definition
Checklists (CL).
Term
84. (035) What does the first number of a technical order (TO) designate?
 Definition
Category.
Term
85. (035) Technical order (TO) 1B–52G–4–4–1 is an example of what kind of TO?
 Definition
Illustrated parts breakdown (IPB).
Term
86. (037) A work stoppage caused by a technical order (TO) deficiency is considered to be a basis for
what kind of TO improvement report?
 Definition
Emergency.
Term
87. (037) How are emergency technical order (TO) improvement reports submitted?
 Definition
E-mail.
Term
88. (038) The Air Force supply system is different from civilian supply systems because it
 Definition
requires more flexibility.
Term
89. (038) The Air Force supply system
 Definition
is managed on a functional basis.
Term
90. (039) Which system allows logistics personnel, customers, and commanders to track every item in
the supply system through standardized procedures?
 Definition
Standard Base Supply System (SBSS).
Term
91. (040) The responsibility of a person to make good any loss, destruction, or damage of government
property caused by misuse or negligence is known as what kind of liability?
 Definition
Pecuniary.
Term
92. (040) Concerning command responsibility for Air Force property, commanders are
 Definition
not exempt from pecuniary liability within their command.
Term
93. (040) Commanders must ensure that records of supply transactions are
 Definition
kept accurate.
Term
94. (040) The term “custodian” as applied to the Air Force supply system refers to a
 Definition
caretaker.
Term
95. (040) What methods are used to relieve personnel of property responsibility?
 Definition
Turn-in and property transfer.
Term
96. (041) Which element of base supply manages all due-in from maintenance (DIFM) materiel?
 Definition
Repair cycle support.
Term
97. (041) The repair cycle of a supply asset ends when the item is
 Definition
sent back to supply as serviceable or unserviceable.
Term
98. (042) What activity is the focal point for the resolution of a supply item deficiency?
 Definition
Action point.
Term
99. (043) What monthly supply listing provides a means to monitor and verify that each due-out is
still a valid requirement?
 Definition
Due-out Validation List (M–30).
Term
100. (043) What listing would you check to track the parts that have been ordered to fix repair cycle
assets?
 Definition
AWP Validation List (D19).
Term
1. (201) What type of pumps is used for engine feed in the FWD and AFT reservoir tanks of a fighter
aircraft?
 Definition
Dual-impeller, electrically driven.
Term
2. (201) The crossfeed valve on a fighter aircraft is a
 Definition
fuel pressure-operated gate valve.
Term
3. (201) On a fighter aircraft fuel system, a thermally-actuated valve in the heat exchanger outlet
prevents fuel from exceeding
 Definition
200ºF.
Term
4. (202) To use body tank fuel to feed the engines on a tanker aircraft, the
 Definition
air refueling pumps must be operated.
Term
5. (202) To feed all engines from the center wing tank on a tanker aircraft, the
 Definition
tank to manifold valves must be opened.
Term
(203) The output pressure and the flow ratings of a centrifugal pump are greater than the amount
the system needs in order to
 Definition
provide an ample supply of fuel in case of a single pump failure.
Term
7. (203) When fuel supply is required during negative gravity conditions,
 Definition
a dual-impeller centrifugal pump is used.
Term
8. (203) What feature prevents foreign objects from holding the bypass valve open in a dual-impeller
pump?
 Definition
An inlet screen.
Term
9. (203) Which of the following is not an advantage of the quick change electrically drive fuel pump?
 Definition
Requires special tools to install.
Term
10. (204) The arrow stamped on the body of a check valve indicates the
 Definition
direction of fuel flow.
Term
11. (204) The flapper on a flapper-type check valve is opened by
 Definition
gravity flow or pump pressure.
Term
12. (204) What shutoff valve cannot withstand extreme pressures?
 Definition
Sliding gate.
Term
13. (204) What feature prevents excessive pressure from building up in trapped lines or within the
body of a sliding gate valve?
 Definition
Thermal relief valves.
Term
14. (204) What type of seal is found between the disc and valve body on a disc-type valve?
 Definition
O-ring.
Term
15. (205) The best method for troubleshooting a fighter engine feed system component you suspect of
leaking is to
 Definition
pressurize the manifold with fuel and look for leaks.
Term
16. (205) You are troubleshooting a boost pump problem on a fighter aircraft. To do this properly,
your first step is to check for
 Definition
a direct pressure reading of the pump.
Term
17. (206) On a tanker aircraft, where must fuel be routed in order to feed any engine from any main
tank?
 Definition
Crossfeed manifold.
Term
18. (207) You are troubleshooting a malfunction of the crossfeed system on a tanker aircraft when
you determine there is no pressure available to route fuel to the crossfeed manifold. The most
probable cause of this malfunction is
 Definition
a malfunctioning boost pump.
Term
19. (208) The purpose of the power transfer method on a fighter aircraft is to
 Definition
augment fuel transfer and scavenge the tanks.
Term
20. (208) How many pumps are used in the power transfer system on a fighter aircraft?
 Definition
Six.
Term
21. (208) On a fighter aircraft, what type of pumps are the scavenge pumps and where are they
located?
 Definition
Ejector-type; located in the F–2 tank.
Term
22. (208) On a fighter aircraft,
 Definition
the external centerline tank will transfer first.
Term
23. (209) You are troubleshooting a problem on a fighter aircraft. You find that none of the external
tanks transferred fuel with the select switch in NORM position; however, the external wing tanks
did transfer fuel with the select switch in WING FIRST position. The most probable cause of this
malfunction is the
 Definition
centerline refuel/transfer valve is inoperative.
Term
209) You are troubleshooting a problem on a fighter aircraft when you discover that none of the
external tanks transfer fuel, regardless of the switch positions. The most probable cause of this
malfunction is the
 Definition
vent and pressurization valve is inoperative.
Term
25. (210) The fuel level control valve on a cargo aircraft is operated
 Definition
hydromechanically and controlled by a solenoid.
Term
26. (210) While transferring fuel from an auxiliary tank on a cargo aircraft, in order to determine if
the auxiliary tank is empty, you would observe the
 Definition
fuel quantity indicator.
Term
27. (211) The cargo aircraft component that is designed to sense fuel pressure and transmit a signal to
an indicator on the fuel management panel to allow you to determine the output pressure of a
boost pump is the pressure
 Definition
transmitter.
Term
28. (211) Which indication shows that a boost pump on a cargo aircraft is putting out sufficient
pressure?
 Definition
PRESS LOW light extinguishes.
Term
29. (212) To prevent the introduction of foreign objects into the fuel transfer system of a cargo
aircraft, the jettison mast is equipped with a
 Definition
flame arrestor screen.
Term
30. (212) Which type of fuel valves control the flow of fuel through the jettison system?
 Definition
Dump.
Term
31. (213) What safety feature in the bomber aircraft fuel dump system prevents the accidental
dumping of fuel while the aircraft is on the ground?
 Definition
The landing gear must be in the airborne position.
Term
32. (213) In addition to the dump valve, which valve(s) on a bomber aircraft must be open to allow
fuel into the wing transfer lines to be dumped overboard?
 Definition
Ballast tank isolation valve only.
Term
33. (214) Which would most likely be used to control the automatic pump shutoff, when all fuel is
depleted from a fuel tank?
 Definition
Float switches.
Term
34. (214) Refueling by using the fuel-level control valves is a much safer operation than filler neck
refueling because the valves will
 Definition
automatically stop the flow of fuel into a tank prior to overflow.
Term
35. (214) What principle is used to operate fuel-level control valves?
 Definition
Hydromechanical.
Term
36. (214) What part of a piston-type fuel-level control valve prevents fuel from entering the tank?
 Definition
A pilot valve.
Term
37. (215) Approximately how much air space is left at the top of the tanks of a cargo aircraft after
ground refueling?
 Definition
3 percent.
Term
38. (215) The single point receptacle in a cargo aircraft refuel system is opened by engaging
 Definition
the lever on the refueling nozzle and closed by spring tension.
Term
39. (215) To allow fuel to flow from a cargo aircraft single point receptacle to the main wing
manifold during ground refueling, the
 Definition
refuel isolation valve must be open.
Term
40. (216) What component is installed between the refuel manifold and each external tank on a fighter
aircraft to permit selective refueling of the externals?
 Definition
Manually operated fuel shutoff valve.
Term
41. (216) When the FWD fuel system on the fighter aircraft is refueled, what tank will fill first?
 Definition
FWD reservoir.
Term
42. (216) What is the refueling sequence for the AFT fuel system on a fighter aircraft?
 Definition
AFT reservoir, A–1 tank, then left wing tank.
Term
43. (217) During refueling of a fighter aircraft, fuel was vented overboard and the refueling operation
would not stop. The most probable cause of this problem is an inoperative
 Definition
refuel shutoff valve.
Term
44. (218) What light on a bomber aircraft aerial refueling system lets the pilot know if all conditions
are satisfied prior to boom and receptacle connection?
 Definition
Blue READY/NWS light.
Term
45. (218) The aerial refueling circuitry on a bomber aerial refueling system is energized by the camoperated
aerial refuel
 Definition
pull-to-refuel-handle.
Term
46. (218) The reverse aerial refueling shutoff valve is a
 Definition
motor-operated butterfly valve.
Term
47. (219) What action(s) will generate command output signals from the EMUX and energize the
aerial refuel power supply on a bomber aircraft?
 Definition
Pulling down the PULL REFUEL T-handle and placing the MODE switch in the NORM
position.
Term
48. (219) Which condition will result in an automatic disconnect of the boom and receptacle during
aerial refueling on a bomber aircraft?
 Definition
Boom travel limits are exceeded.
Term
49. (219) A manual disconnect of the tanker and receiver on a bomber aircraft has been
accomplished. What action will reset the UARRSI and signal amplifier, causing the
READY/NWS light to illuminate?
 Definition
Placing the pilot trigger switch to the first detent.
Term
50. (220) You are troubleshooting a malfunction in a bomber aerial refueling system. The fault code
for the malfunction is 28–25-AM. What does the letter “A” indicate?
 Definition
A fault isolation diagram is provided.
Term
51. (220) You are troubleshooting a problem on a bomber aircraft. At a certain point, the fault
isolation diagram requests that you enter a PMC. To comply with the request you would enter the
code on the
 Definition
CITS control and display panel in the aft crew station.
Term
52. (221) The purpose of the tank scavenge system on a cargo aircraft is to
 Definition
ensure an uninterrupted flow of fuel to the engines.
Term
53. (221) Combined with the ejector pumps, the cargo aircraft components that keep the boost pump
inlet submerged with fuel at all times are the
 Definition
surge boxes.
Term
54. (222) You are preparing to perform an operational check of the tank scavenge system on a cargo
aircraft. To do the check properly, ensure the fuel quantity in the outboard main tank is at least
 Definition
6,000 pounds.
Term
55. (223) Which situation could have a negative effect on the operation of the tank scavenge system?
 Definition
Boost pump inlet screens clogged.
Term
56. (224) How is the fuel drained from the main wing manifold of a cargo aircraft after a defuel
operation?
 Definition
Gravity flow.
Term
57. (224) The aerial refueling manifold drain pump on a cargo aircraft is
 Definition
a rotary-vane type pump with positive displacement.
Term
58. (225) While troubleshooting a problem with the manifold drain system on a cargo aircraft, it
seems that the single point receptacle (SPR) manifold does not drain after a refueling operation.
You place the GRD REFUEL switch to the DRAIN position and then take a voltage reading at
the applicable pins on the cannon plug for the SPR drain shutoff valve. You determine that 115
VAC is present and that the manual override level is in the CLOSED position. In this situation,
the malfunctioning component is most likely
 Definition
an inoperative shutoff valve.
Term
59. (225) When troubleshooting a manifold drain system, the best method you can use to determine
whether or not the single point receptacle manifold drain shutoff valve has opened is to
 Definition
observe the manual override lever.
Term
60. (226) On a cargo aircraft, the bellmouth inlet of the vent manifold in a fuel tank is located at the
 Definition
inboard end below the upper surface of the wing skin.
Term
61. (226) On a cargo aircraft vent system, the individual tank vent manifolds terminate
 Definition
in the vent box.
Term
62. (226) Excessive air pressure can be released from the fuel tanks of a cargo aircraft by use of a
 Definition
vent system.
Term
63. (227) Which condition could result in the malfunction of a vent float valve?
 Definition
Overfilling the fuel tank.
Term
64. (228) Which action will initiate the combat pressure schedule of the internal vent and
pressurization valve on a fighter aircraft?
 Definition
Place the tank inert switch to the TANK INERTING position.
Term
65. (228) The external tank vent and pressurization valve on a fighter aircraft will regulate air
pressure in psi to the external tanks in a range of
 Definition
25 to 29 psi.
Term
66. (229) The internal tank vent and pressurization valve on a fighter aircraft is located in the
 Definition
vent tank.
Term
67. (230) What would be the most probable cause if all the external tanks on a fighter aircraft failed
to transfer?
 Definition
Vent and pressurization valve stuck closed.
Term
68. (231) The positive signals from the capacitance tank units on the fuel quantity indicating system
for a fighter aircraft are routed through
 Definition
a control unit, amplifier, to an indicator channel.
Term
69. (231) On a fighter aircraft, the TOTAL digital readout displays the total fuel on the aircraft with
the fuel quantity select switch in all positions except
 Definition
TEST.
Term
70. (232) When the thermistor head on a fuel level sensor for a fighter aircraft is covered with fuel,
there will be
 Definition
a decrease in temperature and an increase in resistance.
Term
71. (232) Which component, when uncovered, will result in the illumination of a FUEL LOW light on
the caution light panel of a fighter aircraft?
 Definition
Fuel level sensor.
Term
72. (233) Two types of protective devices used in aircraft electrical circuits are the
 Definition
fuse and circuit breaker.
Term
73. (233) Which electrical circuit component may be considered to be both a protective device and a
load device?
 Definition
Resistor.
Term
74. (233) Solenoids are commonly used in aircraft fuel systems to
 Definition
manually control a fuel level control valve.
Term
75. (233) Which component is designed to provide a way to quickly connect and disconnect wires,
thereby simplifying the installation of a shutoff valve?
 Definition
Cannon plug.
Term
76. (233) While the pins on a cannon plug are lettered for ease of identification, which letters are not
used?
 Definition
I, O, and Q.
Term
77. (234) What is the purpose of a travel limit switch in an aircraft fuel systems electrical circuit?
 Definition
Remove power to a shutoff valve after it has opened or closed.
Term
78. (235) You are using a multimeter to measure voltage in an electrical circuit. During the
measurement, the letters “OL” appear on the digital display to indicate that the
 Definition
circuit voltage is higher than the highest range selected.
Term
79. (235) While preparing to use a multimeter to test a circuit, you choose to turn the meter on and
place it in the auto-range mode. To do this you would
 Definition
place the function selector rotary switch to the AUTO position.
Term
80. (236) What type of technical manual would you use to troubleshoot an electrical system problem
on a modern-type aircraft?
 Definition
Fault isolation.
Term
1. (401) What type of fuselage construction uses a fabric or thin metal covering, and may be found on
small, lightweight aircraft?
 Definition
Truss.
Term
2. (401) The primary structural components of an aircraft wing include the spars, ribs, and
 Definition
stringers.
Term
3. (401) Which assembly includes the aft end of the fuselage of conventionally designed aircraft?
 Definition
Empennage.
Term
4. (402) Which of the following are examples of secondary flight controls?
 Definition
Trim tabs.
Term
5. (403) Low observable (LO) technology allows modern aircraft to avoid
 Definition
enemy radar.
Term
6. (404) The situation that describes an ideal installation of a bolt on an aircraft component is the grip
length of the bolt is
 Definition
slightly shorter than the thickness of the materials being joined.
Term
7. (404) The size of a bolt is generally stated in terms of its
 Definition
diameter, length, and threads per inch.
Term
8. (404) What type of bolt is used where standard-type bolt is impractical?
 Definition
Stud.
Term
9. (405) For which aircraft application should a self-locking nut not be installed?
 Definition
Connecting sections of a movable joint.
Term
10. (406) Which type of rivet is used on the top skin surface of an aircraft?
 Definition
Countersunk.
Term
11. (406) Which is a feature of the hi-lok type of fastener?
 Definition
It can be installed with hand tools.
Term
12. (407) What type of tubing is used in high-pressure systems such as the landing gear system?
 Definition
Stainless steel.
Term
13. (408) Flexible hose is used in areas of the aircraft
 Definition
which are subject to great amount of vibration.
Term
14. (408) Which example is not acceptable regarding the installation of a flexible hose assembly?
 Definition
Use oil to aid the installation of a self-sealing hose.
Term
15. (409) What is the first step when removing a V-band type coupling?
 Definition
Cut the safety wire.
Term
16. (410) What is the maximum number of widely-spaced bolts that may be safety-wired together
using the double-twist method?
 Definition
3.
Term
17. (410) What minimum diameter safety wire should be installed on bolts having a .050-inch drilled
hole?
 Definition
.032-inch.
Term
18. (411) Why is the use of cotter pins on aircraft systems favorable?
 Definition
They can be removed and installed quickly.
Term
19. (412) During an integral tank inspection, you discover an area at which the protective coating is
scarred and the metal is discolored. Pitting has also occurred to a depth of one mil (0.001 inch).
What degree of corrosion has taken place?
 Definition
Light.
Term
20. (413) When installing removable screws and bolts, what portion is coated with sealant?
 Definition
Coat the lower side of the heads of screws and bolts with sealant.
Term
21. (414) What types of hammers are used in fuel systems maintenance?
 Definition
Soft-faced mallets and ball-peen hammers.
Term
22. (414) Which type of wrench should you use to tighten an internal wrenching nut?
 Definition
Allen.
Term
23. (415) What should you use to clean tools that are extremely greasy and grimy?
 Definition
Approved cleaning solvent.
Term
24. (416) How many foot-pounds of torque are produced by 120 inch-pounds of force on a
breakaway-type torque wrench?
 Definition
10.
Term
25. (417) What powered tool would you use to remove access door screws?
 Definition
Impact wrench.
Term
26. (417) Which tool would you use to repair a fuel cell fitting?
 Definition
Pneumatic buffer.
Term
27. (417) Which type of attachment should you use on the fuel cell pneumatic buffer to buff bladder
cells and flanges?
 Definition
Buffing stone.
Term
28. (418) The ratio of output pressure to input pressure of a two-part sealant high-pressure injection
gun is
 Definition
50 to 1.
Term
29. (419) After you are finished using the sealant filleting gun, what must be done?
 Definition
Clean the residual sealant.
Term
30. (420) The one-part sealant injection gun is used to inject sealant into
 Definition
channels under the wing skin.
Term
31. (421) What will happen to an air hose if you run it over with heavy equipment?
 Definition
It will rupture.
Term
32. (422) When using the electric knife to cut foam, which do you not inspect?
 Definition
Motor speed.
Term
33. (423) When you use the water manometer, you should
 Definition
unplug the negative pressure connection when the fuel tank is given a positive test.
Term
34. (424) What is the preferred piece of equipment for monitoring fuel tanks?
 Definition
Photo-ionization detector (PID).
Term
35. (425) The Model T477W bonding meter is designed to measure
 Definition
resistance.
Term
36. (425) You turn on the display on the T477W bonding meter by pressing the
 Definition
TEST button.
Term
37. (425) All values displayed on the T477W Bonding meter are in
 Definition
milliohms.
Term
38. (426) What support equipment item is designed to operate pneumatic tools at a maximum air
pressure of 200 pounds per square inch (psi)?
 Definition
MC–2A.
Term
39. (426) Which is a feature of the MC–7 Air compressor?
 Definition
Capable of delivering high volumes of air.
Term
40. (427) Which is an inspection requirement on the pneumatic vacuum?
 Definition
Look for fuel leaks.
Term
41. (428) Which two buttons must you press to start the HDU–13/M heater?
 Definition
Blower and heater.
Term
42. (428) Which heater is not explosion proof and must be kept outside the repair area?
 Definition
H–1.
Term
43. (429) If you are using a pneumatic powered blower, the maximum pressure on the pressure gauge
should be
 Definition
34 psi.
Term
44. (429) An equipment item that is not permitted inside the fuel systems repair area is the
 Definition
air conditioner.
Term
45. (430) Where should you position the fuel cell/tank servicing cart?
 Definition
Inside the fuel system repair area.
Term
46. (430) When must you station a safety guard at the fuel cell/tank servicing cart?
 Definition
During access door removal and cell/tank purging.
Term
47. (431) Which support equipment item is equipped with a 110 volts alternating current (VAC)
power receptacle to permit the use of electrical equipment outside the repair area?
 Definition
NF–2 Light-all.
Term
48. (432) Which maintenance stand is not adjustable?
 Definition
C–1.
Term
49. (432) Which maintenance stand can you easily move by yourself?
 Definition
C–1.
Term
50. (432) Maintenance stands used specifically for fuel systems maintenance should be equipped with
 Definition
static discharge plates.
Term
51. (433) In a new facility, emergency personnel showers must
 Definition
have privacy enclosure.
Term
52. (433) What type scrub sinks is required in existing fuel system facilities?
 Definition
Hands-free type.
Term
53. (433) Aircraft which are adjacent to an open fuel systems repair area must not be operated under
their own power within
 Definition
100 feet.
Term
54. (434) What outside agency must be notified prior to opening fuel tanks?
 Definition
Fire Protection Services.
Term
55. (435) Who is responsible for evaluating industrial ventilation systems?
 Definition
Bioenvironmental Engineering Flight.
Term
56. (435) When filling out an AFTO Form 1492, Warning Tag, who is required to sign the signature
block?
 Definition
RED X qualified supervisor.
Term
57. (436) The minimum safe distance between an aircraft using full powered radar and the fuel system
repair area is
 Definition
300 feet.
Term
58. (437) What type of wheels must be installed on rolling support equipment used in the fuel systems
repair area?
 Definition
Antistatic, nonmetal.
Term
59. (437) When tasked to set up the open repair area, where must you place the powered support
equipment?
 Definition
Outside the 50 foot marked area.
Term
60. (437) An air compressor operating outside the fuel systems repair area
 Definition
does not require grounding or bonding.
Term
61. (438) Who designates the Alternate Entry Authority for a fuel shop?
 Definition
Entry Authority.
Term
62. (438) Which is the most important role when serving as an attendant?
 Definition
Recognizing symptoms of over exposure.
Term
63. (439) Who must be identified on the emergency response plan as being authorized to attempt
initial removal of incapacitated entrants?
 Definition
Authorized attendant or runner/equipment monitor.
Term
64. (440) Which task would be considered a change to the entry permit?
 Definition
The aircraft is moved from one repair location to another.
Term
65. (441) What must you do when you are draining fuel into a metallic container?
 Definition
Bond container to aircraft.
Term
66. (442) What is the recommended method of purging an aircraft fuel tank?
 Definition
Combination purge.
Term
67. (443) When removing fire suppression foam from an aircraft fuel tank, you should
 Definition
wear chemical-resistant gloves.
Term
68. (443) Foam removed from a fuel tank may be stored in an
 Definition
electro-static-free plastic bag.
Term
69. (443) If you were planning to cut small quantities of replacement foam for a fuel tank, you would
use
 Definition
an Ontario knife.
Term
70. (444) If you are performing the task of depuddling, which do you use to remove the fuel?
 Definition
Absorbent cloth.
Term
71. (445) The structural components that form the end boundaries of an integral tank are the
 Definition
ribs.
Term
72. (446) The three approved methods for locating a fuel leak exit point on an integral tank are
 Definition
Leak detection powder, pressure test, and gas detection.
Term
73. (447) You have a Class “D” running leak in an external location. Which step is appropriate?
 Definition
Repair to no leakage or condition 1 or 2.
Term
74. (447) What factor(s) determine the appropriate condition/action of an integral tank fuel leak?
 Definition
Classification and location.
Term
75. (448) What type of illustration (view) of the structure should be drawn to aid in locating a seal
plane?
 Definition
Cross-sectional.
Term
76. (448) After you have found the exact leak exit point, what is the next step prior to repairing the
fuel leak?
 Definition
Find the leak source.
Term
77. (449) When should the hollow bolt dye injector method be used to isolate a leak source in an
integral tank?
 Definition
When the double cup assembly was unsuccessful.
Term
78. (450) What are the two parts of curing type sealant?
 Definition
Base and accelerator.
Term
79. (451) Which basic type of access door opens into the fuel tank, providing a tighter seal than other
types?
 Definition
Plug.
Term
80. (452) After the defective sealant has been removed, how far from the ends of the fillet should you
abrade to prepare the surface for the new fillet?
 Definition
1/2 inch.
Term
81. (453) A brush coat of sealant should be applied with
 Definition
an acid brush.
Term
82. (453) A large fillet is defined as any fillet
 Definition
greater than a half inch.
Term
83. (454) When injecting using high pressure injection gun, which step will protect the aircraft
structure?
 Definition
Appling a temporary repair.
Term
84. (455) The initial shelf life of a sealant material has expired. The sealant has been tested and has
been found to be serviceable. The shelf life may now be updated
 Definition
3 months.
Term
85. (456) Which tool should you use to remove a repair done with Hardman epoxy?
 Definition
Plastic scraper and needle-nose pliers.
Term
86. (457) The ply of a self-sealing cell that contains the fuel is the
 Definition
nylon barrier.
Term
87. (458) The fuel cell is plasticized prior to storage in order to
 Definition
prevent cracking and drying.
Term
88. (459) Never attempt to fold, unfold, or flex a bladder cell if the cell temperature is below
 Definition
65°F.
Term
89. (459) What is the maximum length of time you should allow a self-sealing fuel cell to remain
collapsed?
 Definition
1 hour.
Term
90. (460) Which condition will likely result in a fuel cell fitting leak?
 Definition
Hair or lint between an o-ring and its groove.
Term
91. (460) Vithane cells which have been in storage for a long time in a dry climate will tend to
 Definition
shrink.
Term
92. (461) What is the most important factor in isolating a fuel cell leak?
 Definition
Knowledge of the cavity drain system.
Term
93. (462) Which discrepancy would likely result in a fast and severe type of fuel cell leak?
 Definition
Loose interconnect fitting.
Term
94. (463) Which cell repair is best performed at depot or contractor facilities?
 Definition
Corner repairs.
Term
95. (463) Which cell repair is best performed at field level?
 Definition
Repair of loose patches.
Term
96. (464) The inside patch required to repair a hole in a bladder cell must be cut
 Definition
1 ½ inches in diameter.
Term
97. (465) The curing temperature for the heating element used in the vulcanizing repair method is
 Definition
290 ± 10°F.
Term
98. (466) You have removed a fuel cell and during the inspection have found a defect, what should
you do next?
 Definition
Refer to applicable TO for allowable limits.
Term
99. (467) Which does not subject the exterior of the fuel cell to damage?
 Definition
Components.
Term
100. (468) Cells up to 1000 gallons can be pressurized up to
 Definition
½ psi.
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