1. Traffic management, vehicle operations, air transportation, and vehicle maintenance are all a part of the

a.cargo flight career field

b.transportation career field

c. security forces career field

d. terminal management career field

2.The air transportation subdivision consists of duties involving

a. passengers, cargo, and mail

b. cargo, mail, and deployed missions

c. mail, passengers, and deployed base

d. deployed missions, passengers, and cargo

3. The third position in an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) represents the

a. career grouping

b. career field

c. subdivision

d. skill level

4. To upgrade to the 3-skill level position in the air transportation career field you do not have to

a. successfully complete the transportation proficiency center in-residence course

b. perform all the duties on each of the air transportation career field ladder steps

c. complet the intitial federal hazardous communications course at your unit

d. successfully complete both volumes of CDC 2T231

5. After you have successfully completed the required OJT and the 5-level CDCs, you will be at the

a. 2T231 level of expertise

b. 2T251 level of expertise

c. 2T271 level of expertise

d. 2T200 level of expertise

b. 2T251 level of expertise

6. OJT is a two part program called the

a. dual-channel concept

b. job proficiency and knowledge development concept

c. career development knowledge and job proficiency concept

d. federal hazardous communication and career development knowledge concept

a. dual-channel concept

7. conducting on the job training is the responsibility of

a. 2T231 personnel

b. 2T251 personnel

c. 2T271 personnel

d. 2T291 personnel

8. processes shipments of cargo, selects aircraft load, and assists in supervising personnel best describes the duties of

a. 2T011 personnel

b. 2T231 personnel

c. 2T251 personnel

d. 2T271 personnel

9. the responsibility for the transportation of worldwide deployment planning rests with

a. Air Mobility Command (AMC)

b. Passenger Reservation Center (PRC)

c. Tanker /Airlift Control Center (TACC)

d. United States Transportation Command (USTRANSCOM)

10. During national emergencies, USTRANSCOM uses civil air carriers. These are known as

a. MTMC

b. CRAF

c. MSC

d. COM

b. CRAF

11. During peactime, which command operates as an airline for the Department of Defense (DOD)?

a. Air Mobility Command (AMC)

b. Military Sealift Command (MSC)

c. Military Traffic Management Command (MTMC)

d. Army Military Traffic Management Command (MTMC)

a. Air Mobility Command (AMC)

12. During times of war, who is tasked with the operational mission of providing airlift in support of the joint war plans?

a. Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS)

b. Air Mobility Command (AMC)

c. Military Sealift Command (MSC)

d. Military Traffic Management Command (MTMC)

b. Air Mobility Command (AMC)

13. the tanker airlift control center (TACC) is located within what head quarters?

a. Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS)

b. Air Mobility Command (AMC)

c. Military Sealift Command (MSC)

d. Military Traffic Management Command  (MTMC)

b. Air Mobility Command (AMC)

14. Scheduling the movement of DOD personnel engaged in international air travel is the responsibility of the

a. squadron/port operations officer (SOO/POO)

b. air terminal operations flight (ATOF)

c. deployment vehicle operation (DVO)

d. passenger reservation center (PRC)

d. passenger reservation center (PRC)

15. an APOE is a station that serves as an authorized port to process and clear aircraft and traffic that are

a. going overseas

b. within CONUS areas

c. arriving from overseas

d. within an overseas area

a. going overseas

16. which is not a functional area in ATOF?

a. ramp control

b. load planning

c. ramp services

d. information control

c. ramp services

17. the mission of operating fixed air terminal facilities at AMC aerial ports rests with personnel in the

a. strategic aerial port

b. military sealift command

c. aerial port of debarkation

d. aerial port of embarkation

a. strategic aerial port

18. the responsibility for planning, selecting, sequencing, and monitoring each aircraft load rests with the personnel in

a. capability forecasting

b. information control

c. ramp control

d. load planning

d. load planning

19. AMC's deployment efforts rest with what type of airlift capability?

a. quick response

b. next day delivery

c. overnight delivery

d. normal procedures

a. quick response

20. a location from which passengers and cargo are deployed is considered to be

a. a marshaling yard

b. an operating base (OB)

c. a joint inspection (JI) yard

d. a forward operating base (FOB)

b. an operating base (OB)

21. a location that receives deployed passengers and cargo is considered to be

a. a marshaling yard

b. an operation base(OB)

c. a joint inspection (JI) yard

d. a forward operating base (FOB)

d. a forward operating base (FOB)

22. personnel in the personnel deployment unit are responsible for

a. cargo manifesting

b. passenger manifesting

c. aircraft load planning

d. providing vehicles and drivers

b. passenger manifesting

23. what sections make up the air cargo terminal during mobility operations?

a. load team, cargo in-check, and deplyment vehicles sections

b. cargo manifest/documentation, load team, and cargo in-check sections

c. deployment vehicles, cargo manigest/documentation, and load team sections

d. cargo in-check, deployment vehicles, and cargo manifest/documentation sections

b. cargo manifest/documentation, load team, and cargo in-check sections

24. an independent program that clogs computer networks but usually doesn't destroy data is called a

a. virus

b. bomb

c. worms

d. password

25. OPSEC's overall security program is designed to

a. provide commanders with a means to carry out policies

b. provide supervisors with safe work practices

c. support the needs of communist countries

d. enhance mission effectiveness

26. what criteria is required for a person to have access to classified material?

a. security clearance and need to know

b. rank and security clearance

c. authorization and rank

d. need to know and rank

27. which types of hazardous waste is found on Air Force installations?

a. solvents, oils, paints, and paint sludge

b. gases, pesticides, and dirty water

c. chlorine bleach, oils, and paint

d. detergents and nail polish

28. what is the number one environmental health threat to children?

a. solid waste

b. air pollution

c. lead poisoning

d. hazardous waste

29. what DOD program ensures our present operations comply with all federal, state, and local environmental standards?

a. environmental compliance

b. environmental planning

c. installation restoration

d. pollution prevention

30. the purpose of AFIND 9 is to locate the titles and dates of

a. forms

b. manuals

c. regulations

d. publications

a. forms

31. how is the subject series listed in AFIND 2?

a. numerically

b. alphabetically

c. by subject matter

d. in no particular order

32. which publication prescribes stadard data elements, code, formats, rules, methods, and procedures required by DOD in the transportation and movement of material to, within, and beyond the Defense Transportation System (DTS)?

a. AFIND 9, Numerical Index of Departmental Forms

b. DODR 4500.32, Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures

c. DODR 4515.13, Air Transportation Eligibility

d. AFJMAN 24-204, Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipments

33. which publication provides guidance and procedures for moving Air Force personnel and for issuing and processing travel documents for Air Force personnel?

a. AFIND 2, Numerical Index of Standard and Recurring Air Force Publication

b. AFIND 9, Numerical Index of Departmental Forms

c. DODR 4500.32, Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures.

d. AMCI 24-101, Military Airlift

34. cutomer service levels most commonly perceived by customers include all of the following except

a. exceptional

b. obnoxious

c. indifferent

d. rude

35. all of the following steps can assist you, the passenger service agent, in calming down a challenging customer, except

a. staying calm yourself

b. letting the customer vent

c. waiting for a pause in the conversation

d. interrupting the customer as soon as possible to explain your actions

36, an effective way to answer the phone is to greet the caller, indentify yourself, indentify your location, and

a. offer to help

b. identify your supervisor

c. put the passenger on hold

d. offer the number to the information recorder

37. within a passenger terminal, what facility can be used to help passengers with small children?

a. sterile departure lounge

b. lost and found section

c. dependent lounge

d. base exchange

38. if a passenger leaves the sterile departure lounge, what must he or she show to re-enter?

a. boarding pass

b. passenger manifest

c. military driver's license

d. civilian driver's license

39. a passenger who wants information about bus schedules should be given

a. AMC Form 76, AMC Gram

b. AMC Form 165, Passenger Manifes

c. AMC Form 53, Application for Air Travel

d. DD Form 1853, Authentication or Reserve Status for Travel Eligibility

40. you are briefinga space-available passenger desiring air transportation. To do this properly, you should offer all the following except

a. flight information

b. a guaranteed seat

c. a next space-available roll call

d. the rules/regulations for space-available travel

41. to gain passengers' attention when you are making an announcement on the public address system, you should

a. say "testing 1-2-3"

b. tap on the microphone

c. start making the announcement

d. say "may i have your attention"

42. all the following are undesirable techniques when using the public address system except

a. being hurried or having an inpatient tone

b. reading from announcement cards

c. using jargon on the microphone

d. blowing into the microphone

43. which undesirable public address system technique would you be using by saying words like "ah" and "um"?

a. being hurried or having an impatient tone

b. using technical terms and/or jargon

c. using overworked words

d. distracting mannerisms

44. a mission essential passenger traveling on official government orders is defined as

a. active duty on leave

b. space-available

c. space-required

d. retiree

45. what is the federal inspection fee on a category B mission when the flight for a space available passenger originates overseas?

a. $6.50

b.$8.50

c.$10.50

d.$12.50

46. which space-available destination is not authorized for a reservist traveling space-available/

a. guam

b. hawaii

c. jamaica

d. puerot rico

47. a coin assist passenger is a dependent

a. traveling in connection with the death of an immediate family member

b. of a sponsor who is missing in action and/or prisoner of war

c. traveling as a result of a serious illness of DOD member

d. of a senior officer or senior public official

48. which passengers will be loaded first and off-loaded last?

a. children

b. pregnant women

c. passengers with disabilities

d. prisoners and armed guards

49. which category of service is used when category M and B are not available?

a. H

b. Z

c. Space-available

d. government contracted city-pairs fare

50. which category of service is considered the most expensive for the government to purchase?

a. B

b. M

c. Z

d. government contracted city-pairs fare

51. before a fireaarm can be transported, it must be

a. unloaded and in checked baggage

b. unloaded and in carry-on baggage

c. in seperate bag and properly indentified

d. considered personal excess baggage and paid for accordingly

52. which document is used to list all articles a passenger has acquired while traveling abroad?

a. passport

b. travel orders

c. customs declaration form

d. AMC Form 53, Application for Air Travel

53. which publication is used to ensure a passenger has the correct border clearance documentation?

a. AFR 30-4, passports

b. DODR 4515.13, Air Transportation Eligibility

c. DOD 4500.54-G, DOD Foreign Clearance Guide

d. AFR 76-38, International Pocket Guide to Space Available Travel

54. to determine if a passenger is eligible to travel on military owned or controlled aircraft, you would consult

a. AFI 36-2903, Dress and Personal Appearance of Air Force Personnel

b. DODR 4500.32, Military Standard Transportation and Movement Procedures

c. DODR 4515.13, Air Transportation Eligibility

d. AMCI 24-101, Military Airlift

55. husband, wife, or unmarried children under 21 years of age are eligible to travel on military owned or controlled aircraft and are considered to be

a. close blood relatives

b. affinitive relatives

c. legal dependents

d. sponsored

56. how many categories of space-required passengers are in DODR 4515.13, Air Transportation Eligibility?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 8

d. 16

57. chapter 2 of DODR 4515.13, Air Transportation Eligibility, covers

a. space-available passengers

b. space-required passengers

c. active duty passengers in a pass status

d. reserve passengers traveling with a DD Form 1853

58. chapter 6 in DODR 4515.13, Air Transportation Eligibility, covers

a. space-available passengers

b. space-required passengers

c. TDY passengers

d. PCS passengers

59. how many geographical travel segments for space-available passengers are covered in chapter 6 DODR 4515.13, Air Transportation Eligibility?

a. 18

b. 12

c. 6

d. 3

60. the air movement designator (AMD) for a Marine SGT going on emergency leave from Hickam AFB, Hawaii (HIK) to Travis AFB, California (SUU) in March is

a. SUU-HIK-3EL-MZ-03

b. HIK-SUU-3EL-FZ-03

c. SUU-HIK-1EL-FZ-03

d. HIK-SUU-1EL-MZ-03

61. an air movement designator (AMD) contains

a. 4 parts

b. 5 parts

c. 6 parts

d. 7 parts

62. the air movement designator (AMD) for an Air Force reservist traveling

space-available from McChord AFB, Washington (TCM) to Hickam AFB, Hawaii (HIK) in the month of November is

a. TCM-HIK-RSA-FZ-11

b. HIK-TCM-RSA-AZ-11

c. TCM-HIK-RSR-FZ-11

d. HIK-TCM-RSR-FZ-11

63. a unique control number is constructed using the

a. sponsor's initials, last four numbers of the sponsor's SSAN, and the last two digits of the fiscal year

b. sponsor's initials, first four numbers of the sponsor's SSAN, and the last two digits of the calendar year

c. last two digits of the fiscal year, last four numbers of the sponsor's SSAN, and the sponsor's initials

d. last two digits of the calendar year, last four numbers of the sponsor's SSAN, and the sponsor's initials

64. Navy Captain Richard West (SSAN is 449-38-4908) is departing on 1 Dec 1998. He is on flight ABA 0707 traveling from Norfolk NAS VA (NGU) to Naples NAS Italy (NAP), and the cost of the flight is $732.00. The correct unique control number for Captain West is

a. RR449398 NGU-NAP $732.00

b. RR490899 NGU-NAP $732.00

c. R4493849  NGU-NAP $732.00

d. RR070701 NAP-NGU $732.00

65. for the accompanying passengers, a letter "H" in the "Special Passenger Category" block of the AMC Form 53, Application For Air Travel, indicates

a. retirees

b. a military spouse

c. foreign nationals

d. military unaccompanied

66. a passenger with a confirmed reservation fails to report for a scheduled

flight. This passenger is considered

a. a no show

b. overbooked

c. a late reportee

d. a gate no-show

67. the standby passenger register is sequenced by

a. destination, rank, and priority

b. destination and system entry time (SET)

c. rank, priority, dat of sign-up, and time of sign-up

d. destination, priority, date of sign-up, and time of sign-up

68. how are passengers selected for a flight?

a. destination, rank, and priority

b. destination and system entry time (SET)

c. rank, priority, date of sign-up, and time of sign-up

d. destination, priority, date of sign-up, and time of sign-up

69.  passengers who miss a roll call

a. are removed from the register

b. are not penalized or removed from the register

c. are penalized and must pay a fee to remain on the register

d. must wait for reinstatment approval from the installation commander

70. delayed passengers are assisted in making new onward reservations by

a. ATOF personnel

b. the base finance officer

c. the TMF representative

d. the passenger service dispatcher

71. if the last alpha code used on a DD Form 2131, Passenger Manifest, was NZ, the next alpha code issued would be

a. NZ

b. OA

c. PA

d. PZ

72. you are placing a space-available passenger on a DD Form 2131, Passenger Manifest. To do this properly, what information should you enter in the remarks section?

a. Priority, type of travel, sponsoring service, H, date, and time of sign-up

b. Priority, type of travel, and sponsoring service

c. H, date, and time of sign-up

d. Leave blank

73. the minimum number of copies of the DD Form 2131, Passenger Manifest, you would prepare per destination is

a. three

b. four

c. five

d. six

74. a passenger on ordinary leave is authorized to check in

a. one piece of baggage not to exceed 75 pounds

b. one piece of baggage not to exceed 85 pounds

c. two pieces of baggage not to exceed a combined weight of 140 pounds

d. two pieces of baggage not to exceed a combined weight of 150 pounds

75. baggage that exceeds the normal baggage allowance of two-pieces per passenger is considered to be

a. unshippable

b. excess baggage

c. mishandled baggage

d. hand carried baggage

76. baggage defined as personal and public property carried or accompanied by a passenger and not documented as cargo is called

a. lost baggage

b. excess baggage

c. checked baggage

d. accompanied baggage

77. an Air Force colonel is traveling on an AMC flight. What special category tag, if any, would be attached to his or her checked baggage?

a. AMC Form 20 DV

b. AMC Form 20 EL

c. AMC Form 20 SA

d. No special tags required

78. in addition to distinguished visitors (DV), what other passenger types will have a DV tag (AMC Form 20 DV) attached to their checked baggage?

a. Emergency leave

b. Blue Bark and Coin Assist

c. Space-available and students

d. Space-available and prisoners with guards

79. which are not authorized to pool their baggage?

a. family groups

b. TDY/TAD personnel traveling as a group on common orders

c. Unaccompanied PCS personnel traveling as a group on common orders

d. Two space-available passengers who are both over the authorized limit

80. to compute basic passenger fares, you must first determine

a. the passenger's rank

b. the passnger's branch of service

c. whether the passenger is military or civilian

d. the passenger's point of origin and destination

81. a military member going

a. TDY can ship 2 cats on an AMC flight

b. PCS can ship 3 small dogs on an AMC flight

c. PCS can ship 1dog and 1cat on an AMC flight

d. TDY can ship 1dog and 1bird on an AMC flight

82. the second step in determining excess baggage fees is to

a. determine how many pieces of baggage the passenger has in excess

b. convert the weight into pieces by increments of 70 pounds

c. multiply the excess pieces by the rate per piece cost

d. find the passenger fare in the appropriate tariff

83. a non-stop mission is scheduled to depart at 0600 (local time). The flight time is 7 hours and 30 minutes. In the situation, how many in-flight meals will be offered to passengers?

a. 0

b. 1

c. 2

d. 3

84. what type of meal should you offer passengers on a 1+10 (flying time) non-stop mission?

a. MRE

b. Frozen

c. Sandwich (box)

d. None

85. how long before flight departure must a firm requirement be sent to the personnel in the flight kitchen and fleet service sections?

a. 1 hour

b. 2 hours

c. 25 minutes

d. 40 minutes

86. a military flight is scheduled to depart at 1600 hours. You should call in a tentative in-flight meal requirement to the personnel in the flight kitchen at

a. 1300 hours

b. 1345 hours

c. 1400 hours

d. 1515 hours

87. all of the following methods of cash collection are acceptable except for

a. US dollars

b. credit cards

c. traveler's checks

d. foreign currency

88. how many copies of an AMC 148, Boarding Pass/Ticket/Receipt, are produced?

a. 8

b. 6

c. 4

d. 2

90. you should sign the passenger service agent signature block on the AMC Form 148/2, Boarding Pass/Ticket/Receipt, when the

a. passenger has been cleared on all border clearance requirements

b. checked baggage has been accepted at the check-in counter

c. passenger is receiving a refund on moneys collected

d. passenger is a deportee

91. what boarding pass is issued at non-computer generated stations for passengers having a cash transaction?

a. AMC Form 148, Boarding Pass/Ticket/ Receipt

b. AMC Form 148/1, Boarding Pass/Ticket/ Receipt

c. AMC Form 148/2, Boarding Pass/Ticket/ Receipt

d. All of the above

92. which may serve as a receipt for a space-required passenger fare collected when there are no travel orders available to stamp as a receipt?

a. Plain bond paper

b. Letterhead stationary

c. Cash collection voucher

d. None of the above may be used

93. what must be done with a gate no-show's checked baggage on a military flight?

a. Aircraft commander will make decision

b. Complete lost and found baggage paperwork

c. Baggage will be downloaded

d. Baggage will be destroyed

94. how do you hand inspect a passenger's carry-on bag?

a. Open the bag and look inside

b. Inspect the bag in logical sequence

c. Personally inspect the bag by dumping out the contents

d. Inspect the items by opening the bag and shaking each item

95. who is responsible for monitoring the operation and maintenance of metal and plastic detecting equipment?

a. Passenger service agent

b. Operations officer

c. Shift supervisor

d. HQ AMC

96. X-ray machines with scatter images of low Z can detect all of the following except

a. narcotics

b. metal weapons

c. plastic weapons

d. plastic explosives

97. to ensure the duress alarm is functioning properly, it should be tested

a. daily

b. yearly

c. weekly

d. monthly

98. what is the first thing you do when you are inspecting a passenger with a hand-held metal detector?

a. have the passenger remove metal items from pockets

b. allow a 3-minute warm-up for the metal detector

c. contact the security force

d. do all the above

99. the two types passenger buses are the 28 and

a. 29 passenger types

b. 35 passenger types

c. 44 passenger types

d. 45 passenger types

100. when backing a bus, you should always

a. use a spotter

b. make sure no one is in the way

c. make sure the parking break is on

d. make sure all passengers are sitting quietly

101. how many feet away from an aircraft must you have the vehicle when you are adjusting the truck mounted staircase?

a. 10

b. 100

c. 200

d. doesn't make a difference

102. before lowering the stairs on the truck mounted staircase, the vehicle must be how many feet away from the aircraft?

a. 10

b. 100

c. 200

d. 300

103. which is not major component of the mobile baggage conveyor?

a. chassis

b. suspension

c. belt conveyor

d. elevating linkage

104. you can prevent baggage from falling off the mobile baggage conveyor by using the

a. stairs

b. loadmaster

c. baggage handler

d. guide (side) rails

105. how many pallets are you authorized to pull with a tug at the same time?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6

106. to avoid jackknifing when you are pulling multiple trailers with a tug, you should attach the

a. heaviest trailer pallet at the end

b. lightest trailer pallet at the end

c. heaviest trailer pallet in the middle

d. lightest trailer pallet in the middle

107. what is issued to all through-load passengers who leave the sterile holding area?

a. In-flight meals

b. Ear protectors

c. AMC Form 299 series, Intransit Boarding Pass

d. AMC Form 148/2, Boarding Pass/Ticket/Receipt

108. passengers leaving a sterile holding area must

a. leave their baggage behind

b. not be allowed to re-enter

c. proceed though the anti-hijacking inspection again

d. have permission of the operations officer to re-enter

109. the primary responsibility of ATOF personnel is to

a. divert equipment and/or personnel to prevent mission delays

b. gather, process, and distribute information to other activities

c. ensure there are sufficient copies of registered mail manifests on aircraft

d. ensure maximum aircraft utilization for each mission handled by the aerial port

110. which computer system is used to generate an automated AMC Form 77?

a. C2IPS

b. RCAPS

c. CAPS II

d. APACCS

111. what does the term "channel aircraft" identify?

a. record update

b. scheduled aircraft

c. deployment operations

d. opportune mission

112. to create a step-by-step record of events for all channel aircraft serviced by the aerial port, you would use

a. AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice

b. AMC Form 68, Aerial Port Movement Log

c. AMC Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record

d. AMC Form 272, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

113. entries made on the AMC Form 68, Aerial Port Movement Log, must be made legibly using

a. a grease pencil

b. a magic marker

c. black ink

d. a pencil

114. trip setup sheets are used for

a. passenger changes

b. cargo processing

c. mail inverntory

d. unit moves

115. the front page of a trip setup sheet serves as a load planning sheet and as

a. an AM-9 load message

b. an ALLOAD message

c. a cargo manifest

d. a load sequence

116. what form would you use to manifest cargo during a unit move on a C-141?

a. AMC Form 272, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

b. DD Form 2130-1, Cargo Manifest

c. DD Form 2130-2, Cargo Manifest

d. DD Form 2130-3, Cargo Manifest

117. ATOF ramp controller personnel act as the "eyes and ears" of the folks in the

a. load planning section

b. ramp services section

c. information control section

d. capability forecasting section

118. the responsibility for escorting border clearance personnel to and from aircraft requiring such service rests with

a. ramp control personnel

b. load planning personnel

c. capability forecast personnel

d. maintenance control personnel

119. the ATOF functional area that provides each terminal work center with monthly and daily airlift capability forecasts is

a. ramp control

b. load planning

c. information control

d. capability forecasting

120. the ATOF functional area that is responsible for maintaining AMC passenger and cargo mission schedules is

a. ramp control

b. load planning

c. information control

d. capability forecasting

121. the ATOF functional area that is responsible for preparing outbound traffic documentation (such as cargo manifests) is

a. ramp control

b. load planning

c. ramp services

d. information control

122. the ATOF functional area that prepares the AMC Form 272, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet, is

a. ramp control

b. load planning

c. ramp services

d. information control

123. an air terminal inventory is used to

a. show the placement of cargo on an aircraft

b. transfer the custody of cargo to the consignee

c. control the movement of cargo into the airlift system

d. reconcile transportation records with cargo/mail that is on-hand

124. the current copy of the air terminal inventory is maintained by

a. load planner personnel

b. ramp controller personnel

c. passenger services personnel

d. information control personnel