| Term 
 
        | New drugs receive a __ yr patent on active ingredient |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___: compares the blood level of a drug necessary to acheive a therapeutic effect to the blood level at which toxicity occurs 
 A narrow one means?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | therapeutic index   narrow = not much difference between beneficial and toxic blood levels |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | ligand gated ion channels g protein coupled receptors enzyme linked receptors intracellular receptors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ____: drug or hormone stimulates production of more receptors 
 
 ___: excessive amounts of some drugs or hormones may reduce receptor production. More likely with continuous administration.
 |  | Definition 
 
        | up regulation down regulation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ways in which drugs can cause toxicity (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | excessive activation or receptors excessive suppression of receptors drug interactions iwth other receptors drug triggers immune (allergic) response drug changes receptor concentration |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the study of the influence of GENETIC factors on the variation of DRUG METABOLISM in an individual or individuals |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Two phases of drug elimination |  | Definition 
 
        | Phase I: oxidation -- usually renders a drug inactive  - involves CYP450 enzymes   Phase II: conjugation -- increases solubility for fecal and renal excretion by attaching drug to a water molecule |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | CYP2D6 --> what is the 2, D, and the 6? |  | Definition 
 
        | 2: enzyme family 6: isoform D: subfamily |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Impact of ___: 
 genetic diversity
 Drug interactions & Adverse drug reactions
 |  | Definition 
 
        | CYP450's   vary greatly between different races |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Pt who complains ____, means ??? 
 1. "that stuff never works for me"
 2. "I react strongly to all meds"
 3. "Every med I've tried makes me miserable"
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Fast/hyperactive drug metabolism 2. slow drug metabolism -- reduced or absent enzymes 3. multiple slow metabolic pathways |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Drug A is metabolized by enzyme X. 
 1. What happens if the activity of enzyme X is increased (induced)?
 
 2. If x is decreased (inhibited)?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. blood level of drug A plummets bc it's being decgraded too quickly   2. blood level of drug A increases because it's not being degraded |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | CYP inducers/inhibitors: - increase enzyme activity
 - lower circulating levels of active drug
 - reduce drug effectiveness
 
 CYP inducers/inhibitors:
 - diminish enzyme activity
 - increase circulating levels of active drug
 - increase risk of side effect or toxicity
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the autonomic two cell paradigm? |  | Definition 
 
        | First neuron:
 1. parasympathetic: medulla & sacral spinal cord = "craniosacral system" = cranial nerves + sacral nerves (bladder, rectum, reproductive) 2. sympathetic: thoracolumbar spinal cord = "thoracolumbar system"   Second neuron: 1. parasympathetic: terminal ganglia (sa node, sweat glands) 2. Sympathetic: mostly larger vertebral ganglia
 
 
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | "Cholinergic" refers to which branch of the ans? 
 "Adrenergic" refers to which system?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | parasympathetic --> bc ACh is the main neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic system   sympathetic --> because epineprhine/NE are the main neurotransmitters |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | two types of cholinergic receptors and which is pre and post ganglionic 
 two types of adrenergic receptors
 |  | Definition 
 
        | nicotinic -- preganglionic muscarinic -- postganglionic   alpha and beta |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | use pupil size to explain the autonomic set point |  | Definition 
 
        | tissues are receiving messages from both parasympathetic and sympathetic systems   pupils will shrink if parasympahetic (cholinergic) signals dominate but will dilate if sympathetic signals dominate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | parasympathetic effects on eyes, heart, vascular, pulmonary, GI, CNS, glands |  | Definition 
 
        | ocular: miosis, + near vision cardiac: slows rate, reduces contractility, decreases CO vascular: indirect effects Pulmonary: bronchiolar constriction GI: increased secretion, relaxed sphincters, increased motility Bladder: detrusor contraction sexual response: arousal CNS: reduced alertness Glands: + secretion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sympathetic effects on eyes, heart, vascular, pulmonary, GI, CNS, glands, bladder, sexual response |  | Definition 
 
        | eyes: mydriasis, + far vision cardiac: increased rate and contractility vascular: direct vasoconstriction Pulmonary: bronchodilator GI: reduced secretions, contracted sphincters, decreased motility CNS: increased alertness Glands: reduced secretions bladder: relaxation Uterus: relaxation Sexual: orgasm |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Organophosphates (insecticides, nerve gas, ophthalmic) are an example of what kind of drug? 
 What are the side effects of this and how would you treat ssomeone who ingested it?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | irreversible AChE antagonists   side effects: permenant parasympathetic activation Tx: block action of ACh |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some indications for cholinergic agonists & anticholinesterases? 
 What are some adverse effects?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Indications: ophthalmic (miosis), GI/GU (ileus, bladder atony), myasthenia gravis, mushroom (atropine) poisoning, anesthesia reversal   Adverse effects: miosis, sweating, N/V/D, urinary urgency, bronchospasm, bradycardia, syncope |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Methacholine, carbechol, bethanechol, pilocarpine are all what kind of drug? |  | Definition 
 
        | cholinergic agonists --> all have "chol" |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Edrophonium, physostigmine, puridostigmine, neostigmine are all what kind of drug? 
 
 What about the organophosphates (insecticides, nerve gas, ophthalmic)?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | stigmines: reversible AChE inhibitors   organophosphates: irreversible AChE inhibitors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | pralidoxime -- reverses the effects of anticholinesterases by AGING the bond |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What dx? What tx? how is it tested for? 
 Weakness of voluntary muscles - diplopia, limb weakness, repetitive movement
 IMproves with rest
 
 An autoimmune disorder -- antibodies against ACh receptors
 |  | Definition 
 
        | myasthenia gravis   tx: ACh agonist, AChE inhibitors immunosuppression   tested: edrophonium thymectomy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Adrenergic transmitter synthesis |  | Definition 
 
        | tyrosine --> DOPA --> dopamine --> NE --> Epinephrine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | catecholamine neurotransmitter that is involved in psychotic diseases as well as renal and splanchnic vasculature |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Treatment for anaphylaxis 
 side effects of this tx?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | beta sympathetic agonist + glucocorticoids & antihistamines   side effects: tachycardia, arrhythmias, hyperglycemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | reactive hyperemia caused by afrin |  | Definition 
 
        | prolonged vasoconstriction due to chronic afrin use leads to hypoxia which leads to vasodilation   thus tolerance develops   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 3 general adrenergic agonists (A1, B1, B2)? 
 what are their indications?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Epinephrine: anaphylaxis, local anesthetic, acute asthma   NE: hypotension/shock   Dopamine: hypotension/shock |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Alpha adrenergic agonists and their indications |  | Definition 
 
        | phenyleprhine, methoxamine, clonidine, methylNE   vasoconstriction (Afrin and HTN) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | beta adrenergic agonists and indications and side effects |  | Definition 
 
        | isoproterenol, dobutamine - CHF, cardiogenic shock terbutaline - asthma, arrest premature labor   side effects: tachycardia, anxiety, tremors, hyperglycemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | two kinds of antiadrenergic drugs |  | Definition 
 
        | alpha blockers - prazosin - HTN, BPH   beta blockers - - non-selective: propanolol (NOT ASTHMA) - Selective (B1 >>> B2): metoprolol, atenolol --> Asthma - Combined (A1, B1, B2): Lebatolol --> HTN, hyperthyroid   beta contraindications: arrhythmias (withdrawal), uncontrolled CHF, bradycardia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some non-pharmacologic HTN tx? |  | Definition 
 
        | weight loss
 dietary salt reductionexercise
 stress reduction
 biofeedback 
 
 
 
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Normal BP Pre-HTN
 Stage 1
 Stage 2
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Normal: <120/80 PreHTN: 120-140/80-90 Stage 1: >140/90 Stage 2: >160/90 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Factors that affect BP control |  | Definition 
 
        | Cardiac Output: - HR - Contractility - Filling pressure   Peripheral resistance: - arterial diameter - arterial length - elasticity   BP = CO x PVR <-- Hydraulic Equation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is the main focus of PVR reduction (and thus BP reduction) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Essence of blood pressure control: __ + ___ |  | Definition 
 
        | sympathetic input (Alpha vascular receptors + beta cardiac receptors) + Renal blood flow (RAA system + total blood volume) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the main side effect of ACE inhibitors and why? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cough - due to increase in bradykinin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | steroid produced by adrenals that alters renal function by increasing Na loop absorption and changing hemodynamics 
 results in fluid retention, increased vascular volume, cardiac growthy factors, cardiac remodeling
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 4 groups of antihypertensive drugs |  | Definition 
 
        | diuretics sympathoplegic/adrenergic blocking agents vasodilators reduce R-A-A system |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug group? 
 -lol
 -pril
 -sin
 -sartan
 -pine
 |  | Definition 
 
        | -lol: beta blocker -pril: ACE inhibitor -sin: alpha blocker -sartan: angiotensin receptor blocker -pine: calcium chennel blocker (other than verapamil, diltiazem) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What kind of drug? 
 reduces sodium and water retention
 reduces blood volume
 reduces cardiac output
 reduces PVR
 |  | Definition 
 
        | thiazide and loop diuretics |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | inidcations, contraindications, and adverse effects of thiazides and thiazide-like diuretics |  | Definition 
 
        | indications: HTN contraindications: kindey failure adverse effects: HYPOKALEMIA, Hyperglycemia, rash, ED, hyperuricemia, postural HTN   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Loop diuretic names, indications, adverse effects |  | Definition 
 
        | Furosemide, torsemide, bumetanide, ethacrynic acid   indications: HTN, pulmonary edema (emergency), kidney hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia   Adverse effects: ototoxicity, HYPOKALEMIA, HYPOMAGNESMIA, hypotension |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | potassium-sparing diuretics: two kinds, adverse effects, indications, contraindications |  | Definition 
 
        | luminal membrane agents: triamterene, amiloride Mineralcorticoid (aldosterone) antagonists: spironolactone, eplerone   Adverse effects: HYPERKALEMIA   indications: luminal: combined with thiazides or loops for HTN mineralcorticoids: cirrhosis, PCOS, HTN adjunct   contraindications: Luminal: ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what condition? 
 muscle weakness
 myalgia
 heart arrhythmias
 deaht
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what condition? 
 malaise
 palpitations
 muscle weakness
 fatal cardiac arrhtymia
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | lithium and demeclocycline are what kind of diuretics? 
 They are not currently used clinically
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Thiazide + loop Loop/thiazide + K sparing     pretty much every combo has HCTZ in it   Aldactazide Dyazide Maxzide Moduretic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what makes a diuretic clinically useful? |  | Definition 
 
        | increases Na excretion (natriuresis) as well as H2O loss |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is sodium homeostasis maintained? What is diuretic braking? |  | Definition 
 
        | Hypothalamus/posterior pituitary axis: Antidiuretic hormone/vasopressin   Baroreceptors/atrial receptors: atrial natrietic peptide   Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System   All this results in "diuretic braking" - with continued diuretic use, a new Na+ equilibrium set point is acheived and more diuretic may be needed |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | is loop diuretic ototoxicity reversibl? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 general sympathoplegic drugs - what do they do? |  | Definition 
 
        | beta blockers alpha blockers central sympathoplegic   HTN meds |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do beta blockers work as antihypertensives? |  | Definition 
 
        | block beta-1 cardiac receptors which reduce CO   a few also modulate nitric oxide production which vasodilates |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What arrhythmias could be caused by B blockers? |  | Definition 
 
        | dose-dependent bradycardia ---> syncope   AV node conduction slowing   Ventricular arrhythmias upon abrupt cessasion |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Nonselective b blockers 
 examples?
 indications?
 contraindications?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | propanolol & nadolol   INdiacations: HTN, angina, SVT Contraindications: COPD, asthma |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | adverse effects of all beta blockers |  | Definition 
 
        | FATIGUEBRONCHOSPASM
 ARRHYTHMIAS ED Metbolic changes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Selective beta blockers 
 examples
 indications
 contraindications
 |  | Definition 
 
        | metoprolol and atenolol   indications: HTN, angina (increase exercise tolerance)   contraindications: OK in copd/asthma but needs to be closely monitored |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Combined b1, b2, and a1 blockers |  | Definition 
 
        | labetolol and carvedilol   indications: HTN + need for reduced pvr, heart failure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | beta blockers/partial agonists |  | Definition 
 
        | acebutolol and pindolol   possess partial sympathetic activity (ISA)   indications: HTN pts with DM or slow HR --> lessens metabolic effects |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How do you take someone off a beta blocker? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | metabolic effects of Beta blockers |  | Definition 
 
        | reduced HDL hypoglycemia Linked to increased risk of Type II DM in elderly |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Beta blockers have recently lost favor in use for HTN. In what two conditions must they still be used? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Antihypertensive that lowers both arterial and venous resistance but has minimal effect on CO or renal fxn 
 relaxes bladder sphincter
 
 Adverse effects: first dose phenomenon (reflex tachy, postural syncope. due to immediate vasodilation) more likely in volume/salt depleted --> DIURETICS
 
 ex?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | alpha blockers   -azosin's: doxazosin, prazosin, terazosin  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do you prevent the first dose phenomenon seen in alpha blockers? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1st dose under supervision cocomitant beta blocker 1st dose at bedtime |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug? 
 central acting sympathoplegic drug with some alpha 2 activity
 
 indications: htn, renal disease, and vasomotor flushes
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 2nd tier htn agents that have vasodilation effects and come in three classes: selective, somewhat selective, non-selective |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug/class? 
 lower arteriole smooth muscle tone
 
 intrinsic natriuretic effect --> rarely need diuretic
 
 indications: HTN. pts on digoxin or warfarin, asthma, DM, angina
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Selective Ca channel bockers (Nifedipine) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is a vasodilator that is an adjunct to diuretics and beta blockers in severe htn that also causes hair growth (Rogaine) 
 
 ___ is a vasodilator that is an adjunct to beta blockers and is used for chronic HTN in pregnancy but may cuase transient lupus like syndrome (pos ANA test)
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug? 
 action on RAA system to decrease blood volume and PVR
 
 Indications: HTN
 
 Contraindications: PREGNANCY
 
 Adverse effects: FETOTOXIC, HYPERKALEMIA, COUGH
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ are antihypertensives that may have renoprotective effects when combied with arbs |  | Definition 
 
        | renin inhibitors - aliskiren |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | (-sartan's) 
 similar effects to ACE inhibitors but with less cough but higher price
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If pt is stage 1 htn... what would you treat them with? |  | Definition 
 
        | single drug: diuretic (HCTZ) or ACE inhibitor (-pril)   secondary choices are ARB (-sartan), beta blocker (-ol), Ca channel blocker (diltiazem), or alpha blocker |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | If pt has stage II - III htn, what would you treat them with? |  | Definition 
 
        | 2-3 drugs wtih different sites of action = "stepped care"   1. ACE inhibitor (increases K+) + diuretic (decreases K+) 2. ACE inhibitor, diuretic, vasodilator   some have fixed dose combinations and can help the pt be compliant   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | if a pt has htn and ___, treat with ___: 
 1. DM
 2. CAD: MI or CHF
 3. Renal disease
 4. BPH
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. DM: ACE inhibitor or Ca channel blocker 2. CAD: ACE inhibitor + Beta blocker 3. Renal disease: ACE inhibitor, Ca channel blocker, renin inhibitor (aliskiren), or clonidine + ARB 4. BPH: alpha blocker |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a htn emergency? What should you treat wtih? |  | Definition 
 
        | BP > 210/150   hopsitalized   Sodium Nitroprusside (vasodilator) + Beta blocker (labetalol) + Dopamine agonist (fenoldopam) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are two drugs that interfere with antihypertensives? |  | Definition 
 
        | NSAIDS - block prostaglandin production = vasoconstriction oral contraceptives - increase angiotensinogen production |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | tx for iron deficiency 
 what are some side effects of this that cause pts not to be compliant?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. ferrous sulfate 325 mg tabs 1-4/day for 3-6 mos PLUS 500 mg vit C to reduce side effects and increase absorption   2. Last resort --> parentaral. Iron dextran, sodium ferric, or iron sucrose. Needs to be administered by hematologist   ORAL: GI upset - n/v/d, CONSTIPATION Black stools   IM: anaphylaxis/hypersensitivity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | chronic - hemachromatosis - organ failure   acute (peds) - necrotizing enteritis. >10 tablets can be fatal   caution pts with kids at home to keep iron locked up |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what causes B12 deficiency? |  | Definition 
 
        | loss of intrinsic factor due to: pernicious anemia, gastric surgery, gastric atrophy (DM) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what dz? 
 loss of intrinsic factor due to auto-antibodies, usually after age 50
 
 consists of megaloblastic anemia + PROGRESSIVE NEURO DETERIORATION
 
 Result of folate deficiency
 
 tx?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | pernicious anemia --   tx: folate. Can correct anemia but NOT neuro damage. B12 (cyanocobalamin) DOES correct neuro damage.     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | an essential cofactor to amino acids and purines (hence, DNA) 
 that reduces homocysteine levels but does NOT lower risk of cardio disease
 
 and assists in neural tube development (reduced risk for anencephaly and spina bifida
 
 deficiency of this caused by: deit, decreased absorption (phenytoin, sulfas) or increased requirement (pregnancy, hemolytic anemia
 
 what is something to beware of when this type of anemia is present?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | folic acid (folate)   beware of coexisting B12 deficiency |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is produced in the kidneys in response to falling O2 levels to stimulate RBC production. Thus, pts with renal disease often have anemia. 
 it is commonly used to treat renal failure, cancer, AIDS, rheumatologic dz, autologous RBC donation, CHF, CAD, and for sports doping
 
 toxicities of this drug?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | erythropoeitin   any drug name with "epo" is this --> rHuEpo, epoetin alfa   toxicity: increased blood viscosity due to increased # of rbc (HTN, thrombus), allergy   in pts with anemia of chronic disease, the risk of death from CVA and MI increases significantly when hgb >12, as with increased EPO |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | to form a clot, you need RBC, platelet, and fibrin 
 how is fibrin made?
 
 how are platelets activated?
 
 what breaks a thrombus apart?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | fibrinogen + thrombin --> fibrin thrombin comes from prothrombin   platelets must adhere --> activate --> aggregate   plasmin degrades fibrin into D-dimer and fibrin split products - plasmin comes from plasminogen |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are some natural anticoagulants? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. antithrombin III - action accelerated by heparin 2. proteins S and C - genetic defects attack here   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the most common genetic cause of hypercoagulability? |  | Definition 
 
        | abnormal factor V --> leiden mutation - factor V cannot be inactivated by protein C |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | formation of a thrombus where it doesn't belong 
 what are the triad of risk factors?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | thrombosis   virchow's triad: hypercoagulable state circulatory stasis endothelial injury |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug? 
 anticoagulant that acts by blocking prostaglandins
 
 used to prevent CV disease in women >50 and men >40
 
 toxicities?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | aspirin (81-325 mg/day)   toxicity: GI irritation/ulcer/bleeding   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug? 
 an anti-ADP agent that interferes wtih platelet metabolism and thus works as an anticoagulant
 
 used as an adjunct during coronary stent placement or as chronic supplemental use for MI and CVA prevention
 
 toxicities?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | clopidogrel (plavix) and ticlopidine (ticlid)   toxicity: N/v/d, hemorrhage, leukopenia --> all pretty much with ticlopidine. plavix is safer |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | class of parenteral anticoagulants that are used for PCI or coronary syndromes 
 ex: abciximab (reopro), eptifibatide, tirofiban
 |  | Definition 
 
        | IIb/IIIa receptor blockers |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vit K-dependent factors, thus levels of factor II, VII, IX and X fall and result in reduced thrombin levels 
 what test is done to see how pts on the drug are doing?
 
 toxicities
 |  | Definition 
 
        | warfarin   INR - need it between 2-3.5 this checks prothrombin time   toxicities: hemorrhage, fetotoxic, multiple drug interactions   ALWAYS check for potential drug interactions |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Anticoagulant that works by inhibiting thrombin by enhancing antithrombin III, which inhibits activation of factor X. Is a natural glycosaminoglycan. 
 2 preparations
 
 indications: MI or clot, surgery, immobility, AV shunt
 
 in what form should this never be given?
 
 how is it monitored?
 
 toxcity
 |  | Definition 
 
        | heparin   unfractionated heparin or low molecular weight heparin (lovenox)   never gien IM due to hematoma due to local anticoag   monitor: PTT and Anti-Xa levels   toxicity: hemorrhage, thrombocytopenia, bone loss (osteopenia) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | PRegnant woman wtih DVT - what do you treat her with? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what dz? 
 two types: benign and dangerous
 
 Benign (type I): mild platelet count drop in first 5-6 days of ___ therapy. Platelet count starts at 175k and drops to 150K
 
 dangerous (type II): immune related serious drop in platelet count (50% or more). Start off at 175K and drops to 50K. Associated wtih THROMBOSIS
 |  | Definition 
 
        | HIT - heparin induced thrombocytopenia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why does HIT cause thrombosis when heparin and thrombocytopenia usually cause bleeding? |  | Definition 
 
        | because platelets are consumed in clot formation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why give lovenox over heparin? |  | Definition 
 
        | less risk of thrombocytopenia/HIT less risk of osteopenia   less monitoring |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 kinds of low molecular weight heparins |  | Definition 
 
        | lovenox (enoxaparin) dalteparin (fragmin) tinzaparin (innohep)   all end in -aparin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | anticoagulant that works by inhibiting thrombin by activating antithrombin III, which inhibits factor X. avg molecular weight 4,500. 
 less monitoring of factor X activity (PTT)
 
 approved for home use
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | anticoagulant 
 synthetic pentasaccharide w/ similar antithrombin III action to heparin
 
 better at DVT prevention than LMW heparin in hip replacements and equivalent in treatment of thrombosis
 
 Indications: prophylaxis for post op thrombosis
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | THIAZIDES AND LOOP DIURETICS CAUSE ... ? |  | Definition 
 
        | hypokalemia -- WILL BE ON TEST |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Direct thrombin inhibitors (anticoagulants) 
 recombinant form of hirudin - from medicinal leeches
 - parenteral for PCI or as heparin alternative (hx of HIT)
 - not good for long term use due to antibodiese
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 1st new oral anticoagulant in 50 years 
 direct thrombin inhibitor
 no monitoring but very expensive
 
 may be better at preventing stroke than warfarin for afib
 
 
 problems: non-reversible, more GI problems
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 treatment options of acute thrombus 
 1. ___: activates plasminogen to become plasmin. needs to be done within 2-6 hours of MI or stroke. also done for DVT, PE, clotted shunts & catheters. recommended when PCI is not available. available options? contraindications?
 
 
 2. anticoagulation
 
 3. thrombectomy
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. thrombolysis - all -ase's: streptokinase, urokinase, alteplase, reteplase, tenecteplase. All parenteral. - contraindications: surgery w/in 10 days, serious GI bleed within 3 mos, hx of HTN, bleeding disorder, previous hemorrhagic CVA, pregnancy     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what do you use to reverse anticoagulants? 
 
 1. reversing fibrinolytics
 
 2. reversing hepparin
 
 3. reversing warfarin
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. aminocaproic acid - increased risk of MI, renal failure 2. protamine sulfate 3. vit K, fresh frozen plasma |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Atherosclerosis: 
 - ___: when LDL cholesterol accumulates under endothelium
 - Monocytes collect under this and oxidize LDL
 - ___: when monocytes becomes macrophages and ingest oxidized LDL
 - damaged endothelium permits more LDL to accumulate
 
 HDL someohow mitigates the process
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | facts about ____: 
 - it is at it's core an inflammatory process
 - endogenously-produced lipids are most responsible for it
 - it is now reversible due to medical therapy
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | main goals and secondary goals of lipid therapy |  | Definition 
 
        | Main: lower LDL, raise HDL   seocndary: lower trigs and total cholesterol |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 5 general groups of lipid-lowering agents |  | Definition 
 
        | niacin bile acid binding agents HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors = "statins" Fibric acid derivatives = "Fibrates" inhibitors of sterol absorption |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what lipid-lowering drug? 
 lowers VLDL and LDL, raises HDL-C
 - most potent at raising HDL
 - Not most potent at lowering LDL
 
 gaining popularity, but doesn't seem to be too effective
 
 adverse effects: HEPATOTOXICTY (>2 mg/day), GOUT flares, cutaneous flush, GI problems, impaired glucose tolerance
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What lipid-lowering drug? 
 helps break up enterohepatic circulation to block reabsorption of bile acids so lipids are passed through stool.
 
 lowers LDL, may help raise HDL
 
 ex: cholestyramine, colestipol, colesevalam
 
 Adverse effects: Gi issues, impaired absoprtion of fat soluble vitamins & drugs (dig, warfarin, aspirin, statins, thiazides)
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what group of lipid-lowering drugs? 
 HMG CoA reductase inhibitors
 
 block sterol synthesis
 
 Lowers LDL, modest rise in HDL
 
 lowers risk of CHD proportionally to fall in LDL
 
 adverse effects: ELEVATED HEPATIC ENZYMES, MYOPATHY & RHABDOMYALYSIS (weakness, sore muscles, renal failure)
 drug interactions: amiodarone & verapamil
 
 Contraindications: PREGNANCY, TEENS & CHILDREN, LACTATION
 
 
 Indications: lipid lowering, anti-inflammatory, reduced colon cancer risk, may help lower risk of Alzheimer's
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what lipid-lowering agents? 
 derivatives of fibric acid
 
 enhance lipoprotein lipase activity --> lowers LDL, moderate raise in HDL
 
 lower fibrinogen levels
 
 ex: gemfibrozil, fenofibrate
 
 adverse effects: gall stones, increases warfarin effect
 
 Contraindications: pregnancy, severe liver or kidney dysfxn
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what lipid-lowering agent? 
 ezetimibe (zetia)
 
 drops LDL 15%, synergistic with statins
 
 possible hepatotoxicity
 |  | Definition 
 
        | sterol absorption inhibitor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Lipid lowering therapy 
 1st, 2nd, 3rd lines
 
 in pregnancy?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1st: statin 2nd: bile acid binding 3. niacin, fibrates   pregnancy: bile acid binding |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is the most potent drug at  raising HDL |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the key feature of ischemic disease? |  | Definition 
 
        | diminished oxygen transport |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | treatment of acute ischemia (MI, unstable angina) |  | Definition 
 
        | transport to hospital aspirin oxygen PCI or fibrinolytics |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | prevention of angina and chf |  | Definition 
 
        | lifestyle changes ACE inhibitors Beta blockers statins Aspirin and/or plavix |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Angina: 
 1. occurrences are predictable based on level of effort or emotions and are RELIEVED WITH REST -- most common form
 
 2. extreme fatigue with minimal exertion. pt feels wiped out. due to vasospasm. associated with smoking and younger pts
 
 3. pain at rest, change in frequency of pain. increased risk for acute coronary syndrome
 
 all must last less than 20 min to be considered angina
 |  | Definition 
 
        | stable variant (prinzmetals) unstable   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | tx for prinzmetal's angina |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | % occlusion and anginal symptoms 
 50-70%
 70-90%
 >90%
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 50-70: sx wtih heavy exertion or vasospasm   70-90%: sx with moderate or light exercise - stable angina   >90: sx at rest: unstable angina |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what conditions could produce or aggrevate angina? |  | Definition 
 
        | hyperthyroidism severe anemia arrythmias |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | nitrates beta blockers ca channel blockers ace and arb hyperlipidemia tx - statins |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | sublingual vs. transdermal nitroglycerin for angina |  | Definition 
 
        | sublingual: faster onset, shorter duration peripheral vasodilation HA --> more acute   transdermal: slower onset, longer duration improved exercise tolerance, helps prevent nocturnal angina from emotional dreams --> more preventative |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | isosorbide dinitrate + hydralazine = ? |  | Definition 
 
        | bildil - for african americans with CHF |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drugs are contraindicated wtih nitrates? |  | Definition 
 
        | ED drugs -- sildenafil, vardenafil, tadalafil |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | __ are good drugs in preventing anginal attacks 
 
 contraindications?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | beta blockers   contraindications: prinzmetals, severe LV failure   be careful because it can cause severe bradycardia & AV blockade  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | prognosis for stable angina |  | Definition 
 
        | some will improve   most progress to MI or CHF in 3-5 years |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how is the R-A-A system related to CHF? |  | Definition 
 
        | aldosterone increases salt and water retention and thus causes cardiac remodeling   cardiac remodeling is the reason CHF gets worse and the heart loses contractility |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | first drug to prove reduced mortality in CHF pts |  | Definition 
 
        | enalapril (ACE inhibitor) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | hospitalize - O2, loop diuretics   stabilize: inotropic agents, LVADs   evaluate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | chronic CHF treatment (8 things) |  | Definition 
 
        | reduce cardiac workload - limit activity, reduce weight, control htn   restrict sodium - 2 g/day   give diuretic: loop (spironolactone is dangerous)   ACE inhibitor or ARB   dig (esp if comorbid afib)   beta blockers -- stable Class II-IV CHF   vasodilators (bildil for AAs)   treat hyperlipidemia - statins |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what two drugs can be used for emergency vasodilation in CHF? |  | Definition 
 
        | sodium nitroprusside   nesiritide |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What inotropic agents can be used for CHF? |  | Definition 
 
        | cardiac glycosides: dig --> for outpatient CHF   beta adrenergic agonists: Dobutamide, dopamine   phosphodiesterase inhibitors: amrinone, milrinone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug? 
 only oral inotropic agent
 increases intracellular Ca
 increases cardiac parasympathetic tone
 
 low therapeutic index -- easily toxic
 
 toxicity: arrhythmia, anorexia, nausea, HA, visual changes, fatigue, some estrogenic effects
 
 toxicity risk factors: hypokalemia, hypothyroidism, renal insufficiency, drug interactions (verapamil, quinidine)
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do you treat dig toxicity? |  | Definition 
 
        | stop dig   correct aggravating circumstances (hypokalemia, drug interactions)   neutralize circulating dig -- digoxin immune fab (digibind)   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | when should you use dig in CHF? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | revascularization (CABG, PCI)   cardioplasty - reduce left vent volume |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which way do na and k flow during depolarization of an AP? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is the fastest depolarizer in the heart it is the pacemaker -- "leads the orchestra"
 and is least sensitive to anti-arrhythmic effects
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | wolfe parkinson white (wpw) |  | Definition 
 
        | form of cardiac arrhythmia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Causes of impulse abnormalities leading to arrhythmias |  | Definition 
 
        | ISCHEMIA, HYPOXIA alkalosis/acidosis excessive catecholamines drug toxicity overstretching of cardiac fibers scars |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Class I: Na channel blockers (quinidine, procainamide, lidocaine) - "use dependent" - target the most frequently depolarizing cells   class II: Beta blockers - useful in treating tachyarrhythmias, and preventing ventricular arrhythmias   Class III: K channel blockers (amiodarone, sotalol, bretylium) - useful in tachyarrhytmias   Class IV: ca channel blockers - most effeective against atrial arrhythmias |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Special niches for antiarrhythmics: 
 V tach?
 
 V fib?
 
 SVT?
 
 A fib?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | v tach: lidocaine, amioderone   vfib: liodcaine, amioderone, epinephrine   svt: adenosine   atrial fib: propanolol, amioderone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the most common chronic arrhythmia 
 loss of normal atrial contraction causes 20-30% drop in LV output
 
 vent rate becomes too rapid and irregular - pulse is IRREGULARLY IRREGULAR
 
 risks: MURAL THROMBI in enlarged left atria --> stroke, tachy to point of hypotension
 
 tx?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | afib   tx: 1. rate control: beta blockers, amiodarone, dig   2. restore sinus rhythm - cardioversion   3. anticoagulant to prevent stroke - warfarin, aspirin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug? 
 useful in tx of afib, vfib, vtach
 
 numerous side effects: pulmonary fibrosis, liver toxicity, blocker t4-t3 conversion, photodermatitis (blue-gray skin)
 
 drug interactions: CYP3A4: cimetadine, macrolides (-mycins), fluconazole, grapefruit juice
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | young pt with palpitations, Sob, tachycardia 
 what tx?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | adenosine   they're in PSVT |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | double edged sword of antiarrhythmics |  | Definition 
 
        | they can stop arrhythmias but they can also cause them   risky to use them chronically except amiodarone and beta blockers |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | basic endocrine system: 
 second messengers are ___ hormones
 
 DNA transcription is done by ___ hormones
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is an example of a hormone that can interact wtih another hormones receptors and thus influence another system? |  | Definition 
 
        | TSH can bind to FSH receptors   thus ovarian cysts can result from untreated hypothyroidism |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | target cells stop producing hormone receptors after prolonged exposure to large hormone concetrations 
 this is an example of?
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What hormones does the hypothalamus produce? 
 the anterior pituitary?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | hypothalamus: releasing and inhibiting factors + vasopressin/oxytocin   anterior pituitary: acth, tsh, fsh/lh, prolactin, somatotropin (growth hormone) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what dz can be treated wtih growth hormone? |  | Definition 
 
        | Gh deficiency - dwarfism   short kids (normal GH but delayed growth) & turners -- works OK   adverse effects: usually none, hypo thyroidism, myalgia, arthralgia (growing pains), cytochrome P450 activation (may impact other meds), acromegaly (with high doses) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | somatostatin & analogs 
 indciations
 |  | Definition 
 
        | analogs: octreotide, lanreotide   indications: acromegaly & carcinoid sndrome |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are some conditions in which prolactin levels get too high? 
 how can this be treated?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | hypothyroidism idiopathic hyperprolactinemia pituitary tumor   tx: ergot dopamine agonists - bromocriptine, pergolide, cabergoline |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | a type of fungus  that causes smooth muscle contraction and is thus useful HTn, peripheral vasospasm, and contracting postpartum uterus |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what hyperprolactinemia-inducing drug is contraindicated in psychotic pts? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 gonadotropins 
 for what condition are these used as treatment?
 
 what are some dangers of this?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | FSH LH HCG   infertility   multiple births ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome - ascites, pleural effusion, renal failure, CV collapse, PE |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | produced by hypothalamus - stimulates FSH and LH release from pituitary |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | utilization of GnRH treatments: 
 1. infusion pump (factrel, lutrepulse) for ___
 
 2. GnRH agonists (lupron) to acheive downregulation to produce medical menopause for what diseases?
 
 3. GnRH antagonist (cetrotide, antagon) to prevent ____
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. amenorrhea   2. endometriosis, fibroids   3. premature ovulation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is a less aggressive approach to inducing ovulations than using gonadotropins? |  | Definition 
 
        | trigger endogenous release of FSH and LH via: clomiphene citrate (clomid) and aromatase inhibitors (letrozole & anastrozole) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 2 hormones produced by the posterior pituitary and their functions |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. oxytocin - induce labor - augment labor - milk ejection reflex "letdown"   2. vasopressin (ADH) - treatment of diabetes insipitus   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Thyroid hormones: 
 What controls what controls what?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH) --> thyrotropin (TSH) -- > T3  (triiodothyronine) & T4 (tetraiodothyronine/thyroxine) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T3/T4 are stored by __ in the thyroid follicles 
 they are transported via ___. What happens if you increase or decrease this molecule?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | thyroglobulin (Tg)   thyroxine binding globulin (TBG). - increase - amount of free t3/t4 drops - estrogen - decrease - amount of free t3/t4 rises - androgens |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug is used for hypothyroidism or post-thyroid removal? 
 how do you know what dose to give?
 
 advance dose cautiously in elderly --> why?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | levothyroxine (T4)   adjust dose based on sx: - lethargic, haven't lost weight --> give more - jittery, nervous --> give less   elderly --> increases metabolism and cardiac O2 requirements in those who'vehad hypothyroid for a long time |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | causes of hypothyroidism & hyperthyroidism |  | Definition 
 
        | HYPO: primary (gland failure) 99% hashimoto's thyroiditis absence/destruction low iodine intake -- goiter   HYPER: grave's disease, Toxic Nodular Goiter  |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | sx of ____: 
 poor memory
 inability to concentrate
 hair loss
 weight gain
 cold intolerance
 weakness
 fatigue
 dry skin
 menstrual irregularities
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | sx of ____: 
 restlessness
 insomnia
 tremor
 weight loss
 heat intolerance
 weakness
 fatigue
 muscle cramps
 menstrual irregularites
 exophthalmos
 |  | Definition 
 
        | hyperthyroidism  (thyrotoxicosis) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | exophthalmos is only seen in what kind of hyperthyroidism? |  | Definition 
 
        | grave's disease -- not toxic goiter or giving too much T4 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | quickly control sx - beta blockers   utilize antithyroid agents to prevent thyroid storm - thioamides, iodides, anion inhibitors   DEFINITIVE TX: - thyroid excision/ablation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug? 
 block synthesis of T3/T4 -- used to treat hyperthyroidism
 
 PTU (propylthiouracil) -- used for pregnant pts
 
 Methimazole -- single daily dose
 
 improve sx within a week
 
 adverse rxn: rash, peripheral edema, agranulocytosis
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug? 
 prevent reuptake of iodide by thte thyroid
 limited usefulness (drug induced hyperthyroidism)
 
 main choice: potassium perchlorate
 
 can cause aplastic anemia due to bone marrow suppression
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug? 
 suppress t3/t4 release to treat hyperthyroidism
 
 quick onset but can only be used 2-8 weeks
 
 interferes with thioamide action and radioactive iodine
 - start thioamides first
 - don't use if radioactive iodine is likely
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug? 
 block T4--> T3 conversion to treat hyperthyroidism
 
 onset of action - few days
 
 choices: iopanpoic acid, diatrizoat sodium, ipodate sodium
 
 for pts who don't respond to other tx
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | when is radioactive iodine contraindicated? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why would you want to do radioactive iodide thyroid ablation over surgical removal? |  | Definition 
 
        | surgery causes more t3/t4 to be released --> thyroid storm   recurrent laryngeal in danger of being cut |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | uncommon but life threatening form of hyperthyroidism causes: stress, coexisting illness, idiopathic
 
 sx: high fever, tachycardia, arrhythmia, n/v/d, coma
 
 tx?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | thyroid storm   tx: hospitalization + beta blocker + ca channel blocker + potassium iodide + PTU + hydrocortisone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | estrogen progestin glucocorticoid androgen mineralcorticoid |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 4 types of glucocorticoids |  | Definition 
 
        | cortisol - natural hydrocortisone - cream prednisone - oral methylprednisolone - IM dexamethasone - iV/IM triamcinolone - topical or aerosol |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 types of corticosteroids |  | Definition 
 
        | glucocorticoids mineralcorticoids androgens |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | glucocorticoid actions & adverse effects |  | Definition 
 
        | glucose production resistance to stress hematopoeisis anti-inflammatory other   adverse: 1. sx of cushing's syndrome: Bone loss/osteoporosis, adrenal suppression, weight gain, 2. adrenal suppression: poor tolerance of trauma, sepsis, anesthesia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | glucocorticoid indications |  | Definition 
 
        | antiinflammatory major surgical procedures - anti nausea cancer chemo - anti nausea accelerate fetal lung development |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | indications for glucocorticoid inhibitors & mineralcorticoid receptor blockers |  | Definition 
 
        | glucocorticoid inhibitors: cushing's   mineralcorticoid RBs (spironolactone): HTn, hyperaldosterone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do you avoid adrenal suppression when using glucocorticoids? |  | Definition 
 
        | low dose, short course   every other day dose   taper off |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ACTH secreting pitutiary adenoma causes ____ 
 anything else that causes increased secretion of cortisol is ___
 |  | Definition 
 
        | cushing's disease   cushing's syndrome |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | glucocorticoid receptor blocker - used as early pregnancy abortion drug |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what glucocorticoid synthesis blocker can be used as an antfungal? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | mineralcorticoid blocker risks |  | Definition 
 
        | hyperkalemia (spironolactone)   excessive sodium loss |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which of the following represents a contraindication to the use of salicylates? 
 Hypercoagulable state
 CHD
 Gout
 Cholelithiasis
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which NSAID is considered by some experts to be the safest? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | absorption of which of the following drugs is diminished by antacids containing aluminum and/or magnesium? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following enhances the activity of NK cells? 
 IL2, IL1, inferferon-gamma
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following is used to treat or prevent allograft rejection? 
 antithymocyte globulins
 muromonab-CD3
 tacrolimus
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | hepatic necrosis is possible with large doses of which of the following drugs? 
 acetaminophen
 nabumetone
 aspirin
 ketorolac
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the use of salicylates can increase the plasma concentration of which of the following drugs? 
 thyroxine
 propanolol
 losartan
 prednisone
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which of the following is contraindicated in pts allergic to sulfa drugs? 
 nabumetone
 celecoxib
 ketorolac
 sulindac
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A 55 year old woman is complaining of intermittent bladder incontinence due to irritability and over activity of her bladder musculature (particularly her detrusor).  She is currently on no medications and has no known medical allergies. 1.  What autonomic related drug(s) would you recommend for treatment?
 2. What side effects would you advise this patient to observe for?
 3. Just as you go to write her prescription, she recalls that she was recently diagnosed with narrow (or closed) angle glaucoma.  Will this information cause any changes in what you wish to prescribe?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. anticholinergic, antimuscarinic -- atropine 2. dependent on dosing - increased HR, oral dryness, inhibition of sweating, increased thirst, mydriasis 3. yes - anticholinergics' mydriasis effect can increase IOP     |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | A 4 year old boy is brought to the emergency department after drinking about a cup full of malathion insecticide. 
 Which of the following drugs would be most useful in treating this youngster’s toxic symptoms?
 
 Bethanechol
 Atropine
 Nesotigmine
 Propanolol
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs might be useful in treating insecticide (organophosphate) poisoning? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | :  A  22 year old woman develops wheezing and swelling of her lips within a minute of being stung by a bee. 
 What drug would you give her?
 
 What dose?
 
 What side effects?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Epinephrine   0.3-0.5 mg IM/SQ   Tachy, arrhythmias, hyperglycemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This drug must be used cautiously in pts with asthma |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | these antihypertensive drugs (2) are contraindicated in pregnancy |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | This antihypertensive drugs can cause hypokalemia |  | Definition 
 
        | diuretics - thiazides & loops |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | complex of cytologic and chemical reactions in blood vessels and adjacent tissues in reponse to an injury or abnormal stimulation caused by a physical, chemical, or biological agent |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Histologic features of inflammation |  | Definition 
 
        | vasodilation increased vascular permeability - fluid gets out to cause swelling   formation of fluid exudate - edema + fibrin   formation of cellular exudate - WBC, macrophages |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Innate and Adaptive immune system: cellular and humoral components |  | Definition 
 
        | Innate: cellular - macrophages, granulocytes, NKs humoral - complement   Adaptive: cellular - T & B lymphocytes humoral - immunoglobulins |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 4 types of immunosuppressant drugs |  | Definition 
 
        | glucocorticoids (steroids) cytokine inhibitors antimetabolites monoclonal antibodies/antithymocyte antibodies |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 indications for immunosuppression |  | Definition 
 
        | allergy autoimmune disease prevention of allograft rejection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 approaches to allergy treatment |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. suppress immune response via antihistamines and glucocorticoids   2. desensitization immunotherapy (allergy shots)-- induce immune system to make sufficient IgG against an allergen so that IgE won't bind   3. Anti IgE |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | azothioprine toxicity: bone marrow suppression   mycophenolate mofetil: more commonly used - organ transplants, RA   |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Small protein signaling hormones that modulate immune response by activating macrophages, cytotoxic lymphocytes, and NK cells 
 ex?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | cytokines   TNF-a Interleukins Interferon |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 selective cytokine inhibitors & their indications |  | Definition 
 
        | cyclosporine - organ transplant and RA - nephrotoxicity   tacrolimus - more effective than cyclosporine - nephro and neurotoxicity   sirolimus - effective in graft vs. host reactions - hyperlipidemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 types of immunosuppressive antibodies |  | Definition 
 
        | antithymocyte globulins - horse or rabbit - inhibit T cell function - may stimulate immune response because they're from another animal   IVIG   mabs - target specific cytokines or lymphocytes |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Pooled immunoglobulins (mostly IgG) from thousands of donors against all kinds of different infections. 
 3 main indications of use:
 - immunodeficiencies
 - inflammatory/autoimmune disorders
 - serious acute infection
 
 lasts 2-3 mos
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | custom made antibodies that bind to a target of interest 
 usual source: mice
 
 are either humanized or chimeric
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | monoclonal antibody nomenclature: 
 Target:
 tu =
 ci or cir =
 neu =
 li or lim =
 
 
 Type:
 xi =
 zu =
 |  | Definition 
 
        | tu - tumor ci/cir - circulation neu - neural immune - li or lim   xi - chimeric zu - humanized |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | excessive initial release of cytokines when giving an immunosuppression med 
 prevent with premeds, such as?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | cytokine release syndrome severe form is cytokine storm   premeds: acetominophen glucocorticoids antihistamines |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 rheumatoid arthritis drugs |  | Definition 
 
        | azathioprine mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) TNF-a blockers |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ are signaling molecules that are secreted and function locally and are part of the body's response to injury and inflammation 
 ex?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | autacoids   eicosanoids - prostaglandins |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ are dietary essential fatty acids that are esterified acids in cell lipids. Arachadonic acid is their precursor. 
 
 Functions in cardio, blood, renal, closing the ductus, smooth muscle (bronchial and uterine)
 
 something about chemical stimuli, mechanical stimuli, and phospholipase A2 ???
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Arachidonic acid (eicosanoid precursor) becomes prostaglandind and thromboxanes if exposed to ____, and becomes leukotrienes if exposed to ____ |  | Definition 
 
        | cyclooxygenase (cox) lipoxygenase |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Difference between cox 1 and cox 2? |  | Definition 
 
        | cox 1- ubiquitous, physiologic - found in all tissues   cox 2 - induced only by inflammation - when treating inflammation, you want to block cox 2, not cox 1 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | local signaling autacoid that fine tunes cell functions and secretions, is a mediatory of inflammatory response, and has a very short half life |  | Definition 
 
        | prostaglandin   E & F are main ones |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why would you want to be careful giving an anti-prostaglandin (cox inhibitor) to a pregnant woman or a pt with impaired renal fxn? |  | Definition 
 
        | cox inhibitors close the ductus arteriosus -- giving it to a pregnant woman could cause the ductus to close too early   prostaglandins assist in renal function so giving someone a cox inhibitor for a long period of time can cause renal problems |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 types of cox inhibitors and an example of each |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Non specific and irreversible - Aspirin   2. nonspecific and reversible - all other NSAIDS, including salicylates   3. selective Cox-2 inhibitors |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug? 
 Antipyretic effect (CNS thermoregulatory center) + analgesic (at hypothalmaus/thalamus & tissues) + anti-inflammatory
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | GI: acid production increases, mucus production decreases, chronic blood loss (3-8 ml/day) due to small erosions   Resp: resp alkalosis due to hyperventilation, acidosis at high doses   renal: sodium & potassium retention   drug reactions   overdose potential: 10 g can be fatal to kids   Reye's syndrome |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Hepatitis and encephalitis in kids who take aspirin for a viral infection |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ibuprofen (motrin & advil) and naproxen (aleve, anaprox, naprosyn) are all what kind of NSAID? |  | Definition 
 
        | propionic acid derivatives |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is an indolacetic acid derivative (an NSAID) that has greater anti-inflammatory effect than aspirin but is also more toxic. 
 it is used to close patent ductus arteriosus'
 |  | Definition 
 
        | indomethacin     other indolacetic acids: slindac & etodiac |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are piroxican and meloxicam? |  | Definition 
 
        | oxicam derivatives - a type of salicylate |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are mefenamic acid and meclofenamate? |  | Definition 
 
        | fenemates -- types of salicylates |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug? 
 an NSAID with very strong anti-inflammatory reaction (the strongest of the NSAIDs) but weak antipyretic and analgesic action
 
 it is not available in the US due to irreversible agranulocytosis
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ___ is an NSAID used in acute pain settings - emergencies, post-op. It is only available IM or IV. |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs? 
 Cox-2 specific inhibitors - although they still act somewhat on Cox-1 (still some ulcers), they produce far less ulcers than non-specific NSAIDs
 
 used in pts who require long term NSAIDs and have GI disorders (GERD, peptic ulcer hx)
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Celecoxib (celebrex) Valdecoxib (bextra) rofecoxib (vioxx) --> now off the market due to increased MI/CVA risk |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | These antiHTN can cause hyperkalemia |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | These antiHTN are helpful in pts with prior MI |  | Definition 
 
        | ACE inhibitor, Beta Blocker |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the most common reason for failure of antiHTN therapy? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | For a pt who has developed the dangerous form of HIT, what alternative anticoagulant would you recommend? |  | Definition 
 
        | lepirudin, argatroban, fondaparinux |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drug has proven efficacy in reducing pain cuased by sickle cell? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | maximum anti-factor Xa activity of lovenox is achieved about __ hours after subQ dose |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which diuretic can cause drowsiness and paresthesias? 
 furosemide
 triamterene
 spironolactone
 acetazolamide
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which of the following electrolyte imbalances can predispose a pt to dig toxicity? 
 hypokalemia
 hypercalcemia
 hypomagnesmia
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the intense cutaneous flush often seen after ingestion of niacin can be reduced or prevented by taking __ beforehand |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which class of diuretics has the greatest ability to increase Ca excretion in the urine? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Drugs such as sildenafil (viagra) are contraindicated in pts taking ....? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which of the following drugs would be best for prinzmetal's angina? 
 nifedipine
 propanolol
 losartan
 adenosine
 |  | Definition 
 
        | nifedipine (calcium channel blocker) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which class of lipid modifying drugs would you recommend for a 35 y/o woman with hereditary hyperlipidemia who is 7 weeks pregnant? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which drug has been shown to increase survival in pts diagnosed with CHF? 
 lisinopril
 propanolol
 spironolactone
 valsartan
 |  | Definition 
 
        | lisinopril propanolol valsartan |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug would you recommend to help control the sx of a thyroid storm in a pt with asthma? |  | Definition 
 
        | calcium channel blocker - diltiazem |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which of the following glucocorticoids has the greatest anti-inflammatory effect? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which of the following would be an indication for the use of aminoglutethimide? 
 thyroid storm
 autoimmune disease
 breast cancer
 adrenal insufficiency
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which class of drugs is normally the first choice for a fib? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which of the following is useful in the tx of refractory acromegaly? 
 follitropin beta
 cabergoline
 desmopressin
 pegvisomant
 |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | which antiarrhythmic drug commonly used to treat ventricular arrhythmias is structurally related to thyroxine? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | in addition to hydrocortisone, what other drug may be necessary in tratment of addison's disease |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | name a drug which can induce the CYP450 enzymes responsible for degrading thyroxine and thereby result in lower circulating levels of t4? |  | Definition 
 
        | phytoin, rifampin, phenobarbitol |  | 
        |  |