Term
| 12.6 What is the purpose of a movable slat in the leading edge of some airplane wings? |
|
Definition
| The movable slat remains flush with the leading edge of the wing during all low-angle-of-attack flight conditions. When the angle of attack becomes high, the slat automatically moves out of the wing and forms a duct which forces the air back over the upper surface of the wing. This delays the stall. |
|
|
Term
| 13.6 What causes dissymmetry of lift produced by the rotor of a helicopter? |
|
Definition
| The forward speed of the helicopter produces dissymmetry of lift. The rotor blade which is traveling forward as the helicopter is flying produces more lift than the blade that is traveling rearward. |
|
|
Term
| 14.6 Why do single-rotor helicopters use an auxiliary rotor on their tail? |
|
Definition
| The thrust from the auxiliary rotor on the tail of the helicopter counteracts the torque produced by the main rotor. |
|
|
Term
| 15.6 Why is it important that the leading edge of a supersonic airplane wing be kept free from dents and damage? |
|
Definition
| A sharp leading edge allows an oblique shock wave to attach to the airfoil in supersonic flight. If the leading edge is dented or blunt, a normal shock wave will form and slow the air immediately behind it to a subsonic velocity. |
|
|
Term
| 16.6 What is the purpose of vortex generators on the wing of a high-speed airplane? |
|
Definition
| Vortex generators pull high-energy air down to the surface of the wing and keep shock-induced separation from occurring. |
|
|
Term
| 17.6 Why are the control cables of large airplanes normally equipped with automatic tension regulators? |
|
Definition
| The large amount of aluminum in the aircraft structure contracts so much as its temperature drops in flight that the control cables could become dangerously loose. The automatic tension regulators keep the cable tension constant as the dimensions of the aircraft change. |
|
|
Term
| 18.6 Why is it important that the blades of a helicopter rotor system be in track? |
|
Definition
| If the blades are not in track, vertical vibration can develop. |
|
|
Term
| 19.6 Why is it important that any repairs to the control surfaces of an airplane not change their original condition of balance about their hinge line? |
|
Definition
| A control surface that is out of static balance can flutter in certain flight conditions. Flutter normally tears the surface off the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| 20.6 In what FAA publication could you find correct control surface movement for a particular airplane? |
|
Definition
| In the Type Certificate Data Sheet for the airplane. |
|
|
Term
| 1.7 What must the mechanic furnish the owner or operator of an aircraft if the aircraft he is giving a 100-hour inspection to proves to be unairworthy? |
|
Definition
| A signed and dated list of all of the discrepancies that keep the aircraft from being airworthy. |
|
|
Term
| 2.7 Where can you find the recommended statement to use for recording the approval or disapproval of an aircraft for return to service after a 100-hour inspection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3.7 Under what conditions can an aircraft be operated with a 100-hour inspection overdue? |
|
Definition
| The aircraft can be operated for no more than 10 hours after an inspection is due for the purpose of flying it to a place where the inspection can be performed. |
|
|
Term
| 4.7 For how long can an aircraft be operated if a 100-hour inspection is overdue? |
|
Definition
| For no more than 10 hours. This time beyond the 100 hours allowed must be subtracted from the time before the next inspection is due. |
|
|
Term
| 5.7 Under what conditions can an aircraft that is due an annual inspection be operated? |
|
Definition
| It can only be flown when a special flight permit is issued. |
|
|
Term
| 6.7 What certification is required for a mechanic to be able to approve an aircraft for return to service after a 100-hour inspection? |
|
Definition
| A mechanic certificate with Airframe and Powerplant ratings. |
|
|
Term
| 7.7 What determines whether or not an aircraft must be given a 100-hour inspection? |
|
Definition
| Aircraft that carry persons for hire and aircraft that are used for flight instruction for hire must be given 100-hour inspections. |
|
|
Term
| 8.7 What is the difference between an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection? |
|
Definition
| The inspections themselves are identical. An annual inspection can be performed only by an A&P mechanic who holds an Inspection Authorization, while a 100-hour inspection can be performed by an A&P mechanic without an IA. |
|
|
Term
| 9.7 What certification is required for a mechanic to conduct an annual inspection and approve the aircraft for return to service after the inspection? |
|
Definition
| A mechanic certificate with Airframe and Powerplant ratings and an Inspection Authorization. |
|
|
Term
| 10.7 Does the FAA require that a checklist be used when conducting an annual or a 100-hour inspection? |
|
Definition
| Yes, according to 14 CFR §43.15(c)(1). |
|
|
Term
| 11.7 What certification is required for a mechanic to conduct a progressive inspection? |
|
Definition
| A mechanic certificate with an Airframe and Powerplant ratings and an Inspection Authorization. |
|
|
Term
| 12.7 Where can you find the requirements for inspecting the altimeter and static system of aircraft that are operated under Instrument Flight Rules? |
|
Definition
| In 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix E. |
|
|
Term
| 13.7 Where can you find the requirements for inspecting the ATC transponder that is installed in an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| In 14 CFR Part 43, Appendix F. |
|
|
Term
| 1.8 What takes up the shock of the landing impact in an oleo shock strut? |
|
Definition
| The metered transfer of oil from one compartment to another inside the shock strut. |
|
|
Term
| 2.8 What takes up the taxi shocks in an oleo shock strut? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3.8 How much oil should be put into an oleo shock strut? |
|
Definition
| Deflate the strut completely, remove the filler plug and fill the strut with oil to the level of the filler plug. |
|
|
Term
| 4.8 What is the purpose of the centering cam in a nose-wheel shock strut? |
|
Definition
| The centering cam forces the nosewheel straight back with the strut before it is retracted into the nose wheel well. |
|
|
Term
| 5.8 How does a shimmy damper keep a nosewheel from shimmying? |
|
Definition
| It acts as a small hydraulic shock absorber between the piston and the cylinder of the nosewheel shock strut. |
|
|
Term
| 6.8 What is the purpose of the debooster in a hydraulic power brake system? |
|
Definition
| The debooster decreases the pressure and increases the volume of fluid going to the brakes. This gives the pilot better control of the brakes. |
|
|
Term
| 7.8 What should be done to hydraulic brakes when the pedal has a spongy feel? |
|
Definition
| The spongy feel is caused by air in the brake. The brakes should be bled of this air. |
|
|
Term
| 8.8 What is used in a split wheel to keep air from leaking between the two wheel halves? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 9.8 What causes an aircraft tire to wear more on the shoulders than in the center of the tread? |
|
Definition
| Operating the tire in an underinflated condition. |
|
|
Term
| 10.8 What causes an aircraft tire to wear more in the center of the tread than on the shoulders? |
|
Definition
| Operating the tire in an overinflated condition. |
|
|
Term
| 11.8 What should be done to an aircraft tire if the sidewalls are weather checked enough to expose the cord? |
|
Definition
| The tire should be scrapped. |
|
|
Term
| 12.8 Why is it important that some aircraft with retractable landing gear be given a retraction test after new or retreaded tires are installed? |
|
Definition
| It is possible in some aircraft that a new or retreaded tire can be different enough in size from the previous tire that it could lock up in the wheel well when the landing gear is retracted. |
|
|
Term
| 13.8 How is the correct amount of air in an oleo shock strut determined? |
|
Definition
| By the amount the strut extends out of the cylinder when the weight of the aircraft is on it. |
|
|
Term
| 14.8 What should be done with a tire that was on a wheel which was overheated enough to melt the fusible plug in the wheel? |
|
Definition
| The tire should be scrapped. |
|
|
Term
| 15.8 Where can you find the correct inflation pressure for the tires on an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| In the aircraft service manual. |
|
|
Term
| 16.8 What is the purpose of the compensator port in the master cylinder of aircraft brakes? |
|
Definition
| The compensator port in the master cylinder opens the brake reservoir to the wheel cylinders when the brakes are off. This prevents pressure from building up in the brake lines and causing the brakes to drag. |
|
|
Term
| 17.8 What is the purpose of the shuttle valve in the brake system of an aircraft using hydraulic power brakes? |
|
Definition
| The shuttle valve is an automatic transfer valve. It allows the brakes to be operated by hydraulic system pressure under all normal conditions, but if this pressure is lost, it allows the brakes to be operated by the emergency backup system. |
|
|
Term
| 18.8 How does an antiskid brake system keep the wheels of an aircraft from skidding on a wet runway? |
|
Definition
| The antiskid system monitors the rate of deceleration of the wheels. If any wheel slows down faster than it should (as it would at the beginning of a skid), the pressure on the brake in that wheel is released until the wheel stops decelerating, then the pressure is reapplied. |
|
|
Term
| 1.9 What are the two basic types of hydraulic fluid that are used in modern aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Mineral base fluid and phosphate ester base fluid. |
|
|
Term
| 2.9 What kind of filter is a micronic filter? |
|
Definition
| A filter with a special paper element. |
|
|
Term
| 3.9 Does the main hydraulic pump take its fluid from the bottom of the reservoir, or from a standpipe? |
|
Definition
| The main pump normally takes its fluid from a standpipe, while the emergency pump takes its fluid from the bottom of the reservoir. If a break in the system should allow the main pump to pump all of its fluid overboard, there will still be enough fluid in the reservoir to allow the emergency system to extend the landing gear and actuate the brakes. |
|
|
Term
| 4.9 Why are some hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? |
|
Definition
| Pressurization ensures that fluid will be supplied to the inlet of the pumps at high altitude where there is not enough atmospheric pressure to do this. |
|
|
Term
| 5.9 What is a double-action pump? |
|
Definition
| A pump that delivers fluid with the movement of the pump handle in both directions. |
|
|
Term
| 6.9 Why do most engine-driven hydraulic pumps have a shear section in their drive couplings? |
|
Definition
| If the pump should seize, the shear section will break, disconnecting the pump from the engine and preventing further damage. |
|
|
Term
| 7.9 What does an unloading valve do in a hydraulic system? |
|
Definition
| The unloading valve, or pressure regulator, controls system pressure by shifting the pump outlet fluid from the pressurized system back into the reservoir when the system pressure is high enough. The fluid circulates with very little load on the pump until the system pressure drops to the regulator kick-in value. The pump then forces fluid into the system until the pressure builds back up to the regulator kick-out value. |
|
|
Term
| 8.9 What is the purpose of an accumulator in an aircraft hydraulic system? |
|
Definition
| The accumulator holds pressure on the hydraulic fluid in the system. The pressure is held by compressed air or nitrogen acting on the fluid through a bladder, a diaphragm, or a piston. |
|
|
Term
| 9.9 What is the purpose of an orifice check valve in an aircraft hydraulic system? |
|
Definition
| An orifice check valve allows full flow of fluid in one direction through the valve, but restricts the flow in the opposite direction. |
|
|
Term
| 10.9 Where are line-disconnect fittings normally located in an aircraft hydraulic system? |
|
Definition
| Normally in the lines that connect the engine-driven pump to the aircraft hydraulic system. |
|
|
Term
| 11.9 What is meant by a single-action hydraulic actuating cylinder? |
|
Definition
| A linear actuating cylinder that uses hydraulic fluid under pressure to move the piston in only one direction. The piston is returned by a spring. |
|
|
Term
| 12.9 What is the source of the compressed air that is used in a medium-pressure pneumatic system on a turbine-engine powered aircraft? |
|
Definition
| This air is normally bled from one of the stages of the engine compressor. |
|
|
Term
| 13.9 What kind of device is used to control the speed of movement of the piston in a pneumatic actuator? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 14.9 Why do most high-pressure pneumatic systems include a moisture separator? |
|
Definition
| When the pressure of the stored air is reduced to the value that is needed in the system, the temperature drops enough to freeze any water that is in the air. The moisture separators remove this water before it can freeze and block the system. |
|
|
Term
| 15.9 What is the difference between an open-center selector valve and a closed-center selector valve? |
|
Definition
| Open-center selector valves are installed in series with each other, and the hydraulic fluid flows through their center when no component is being actuated. The valves act as a pump unloading valve. Closed-center selector valves are installed in parallel with each other. They direct fluid under pressure to one side of the actuator, and fluid from the other side of the actuator to the system return manifold. In their off position, they trap fluid in the lines between the valve and the actuator. |
|
|
Term
| 16.9 What is used to flush a hydraulic system that uses Skydrol hydraulic fluid? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 17.9 What is used to flush a hydraulic system that uses mineral base hydraulic fluid? |
|
Definition
| Naphtha, varsol or Stoddard solvent. |
|
|
Term
| 18.9 Where can you find the type of hydraulic fluid that is required for a particular aircraft? |
|
Definition
| In the maintenance manual for the aircraft. This information is also on a placard on the system reservoir. |
|
|
Term
| 19.9 What is used to remove phosphate-ester base hydraulic fluid from aircraft tires? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 20.9 What must be done to the lines that are disconnected when servicing an aircraft hydraulic system? |
|
Definition
| They must be capped with the correct fluid line cap or plug. Masking tape or other types of adhesive tape should never be used. |
|
|
Term
| 21.9 What are two ways aircraft hydraulic reservoirs may be pressurized? |
|
Definition
| By an aspirator in the fluid return line or by bleed air from one of the engine compressors. |
|
|
Term
| 22.9 Why do some hydraulic pressure gages have a snubber installed between them and the hydraulic pump? |
|
Definition
| The snubber keeps the gage from fluctuating. |
|
|
Term
| 1.10 What are the two main gases that make up our atmosphere? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2.10 Why are the cabins of most turbine-powered aircraft pressurized? |
|
Definition
| These aircraft fly at such high altitudes that supplemental oxygen would be needed for the occupants if the cabins were not pressurized. |
|
|
Term
| 3.10 Where does the pressurizing air come from on most turbine-powered aircraft? |
|
Definition
| From air bled from one of the engine compressors. |
|
|
Term
| 4.10 Where does the pressurizing air come from on most of the smaller reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft? |
|
Definition
| From the engine turbocharger. |
|
|
Term
| 5.10 What determines the amount of pressurization that an aircraft can use? |
|
Definition
| The structural strength of the aircraft cabin. |
|
|
Term
| 6.10 How is cabin pressure controlled in a pressurized aircraft? |
|
Definition
| More pressure than is needed is pumped into the aircraft cabin, and the pressure controller modulates the outflow valve to maintain the correct pressure in the cabin. |
|
|
Term
| 7.10 What is meant by the isobaric mode of cabin pressurization? |
|
Definition
| The isobaric mode of cabin pressurization is the mode that keeps the cabin altitude constant as the aircraft changes its flight altitude. |
|
|
Term
| 8.10 What is meant by the constant differential mode of cabin pressurization? |
|
Definition
| After the pressure in the aircraft cabin reaches the maximum value that is allowed by structural considerations, the constant differential mode of operation is the mode that holds the pressure inside the cabin a constant amount above the outside air pressure. |
|
|
Term
| 9.10 What is the function of the cabin outflow valve on a pressurized aircraft? |
|
Definition
| The cabin outflow valve, which is controlled by the pressure controller, maintains the correct amount of pressure inside the cabin. |
|
|
Term
| 10.10 What is the function of the cabin pressure safety valve on a pressurized aircraft? |
|
Definition
| The cabin pressure safety valve prevents cabin pressure from exceeding the maximum allowable differential pressure. |
|
|
Term
| 11.10 Why must pressurized aircraft have a negative pressure relief valve? |
|
Definition
| The structure of an aircraft cabin is not designed to tolerate the inside pressure being lower than the outside pressure. |
|
|
Term
| 12.10 What keeps the cabin of a pressurized aircraft from being pressurized when the aircraft is on the ground? |
|
Definition
| A squat switch on the landing gear holds the safety valve open when the aircraft is on the ground. |
|
|
Term
| 13.10 What are two types of air conditioning systems that may be installed on an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Air-cycle systems and vapor-cycle systems. |
|
|
Term
| 14.10 Where does the warm air come from that is used to heat the cabin of a large jet transport aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Warm engine compressor bleed air is used. |
|
|
Term
| 15.10 Where does the warm air come from that is used to heat the cabin of most small single engine reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft? |
|
Definition
| From a shroud around the engine muffler. |
|
|
Term
| 16.10 Where does the fuel come from that is used in an aircraft combustion heater? |
|
Definition
| From the aircraft fuel tanks. |
|
|
Term
| 17.10 What happens to a combustion heater if the flow of ventilating air is restricted? |
|
Definition
| If the ventilating air is restricted and the temperature reaches a preset value, the limit switch will cause the fuel to be shut off to the heater. |
|
|
Term
| 18.10 How is the heat removed from an aircraft cabin with a vapor-cycle air conditioning system? |
|
Definition
| The cabin heat is absorbed by the refrigerant in the evaporator, and it is carried outside the aircraft where it is given up to the outside air in the condenser. |
|
|
Term
| 19.10 What produces the cool air in a vapor-cycle air conditioning system? |
|
Definition
| Warm cabin air is blown across the evaporator where its heat is transferred into the refrigerant. The air that leaves the evaporator is cool. |
|
|
Term
| 20.10 Why must air-cycle air conditioning systems incorporate a water separator? |
|
Definition
| The rapid cooling of the air in the expansion turbine causes moisture to condense in the form of fog. This moisture is trapped in the moisture separator before the air is released into the cabin. |
|
|
Term
| 21.10 What is used as the refrigerant in a vapor-cycle air conditioning system? |
|
Definition
| A Freon-type liquid refrigerant known as Refrigerant 12, or the more environmentally friendly R-134a. |
|
|
Term
| 22.10 What are three ways supplemental oxygen can be carried in an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| As a high-pressure gas, in its liquid form, and as a solid in the form of a chemical candle. |
|
|
Term
| 23.10 What kind of gaseous oxygen must be used to service an aircraft oxygen system? |
|
Definition
| Only aviators' breathing oxygen. Hospital oxygen and welding oxygen contain too much moisture to be used. |
|
|
Term
| 24.10 What is used to check an oxygen system for leaks? |
|
Definition
| A special leak detector liquid that is a form of non-oily soap. |
|
|
Term
| 25.10 What is a continuous-flow oxygen system? |
|
Definition
| An oxygen system that continuously flows a metered amount of oxygen into the mask. |
|
|
Term
| 26.10 What is a pressure-demand oxygen system? |
|
Definition
| An oxygen system that flows oxygen to the mask only when the wearer of the mask inhales. Above a specified altitude, the regulator meters oxygen under pressure into the mask when the wearer inhales. |
|
|
Term
| 27.10 What identification must be stamped on an oxygen bottle that is carried in an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| The identification DOT 3AA or DOT 3HT, the date of manufacture, and the date of all of the hydro-static tests. |
|
|
Term
| 1.11 What instruments in an aircraft are connected to the static system? |
|
Definition
| The airspeed indicator, the vertical speed indicator, and the altimeter. |
|
|
Term
| 2.11 What types of repairs or alterations can a certificated A&P mechanic make to aircraft instruments? |
|
Definition
| None. All repairs and alterations must be made by the instrument manufacturer or by an FAA-approved repair station certificated for the particular instrument. |
|
|
Term
| 3.11 What is the significance of a red radial line on the dial of an aircraft instrument? |
|
Definition
| A red radial line marks a never-exceed condition. |
|
|
Term
| 4.11 What is the significance of a yellow arc on the dial of an aircraft instrument? |
|
Definition
| A yellow arc marks a caution range of operation. |
|
|
Term
| 5.11 What is the significance of a green arc on the dial of an aircraft instrument? |
|
Definition
| A green arc indicates the normal range of operation. |
|
|
Term
| 6.11 What is the significance of a white arc on the dial of an airspeed indicator? |
|
Definition
| A white arc on an airspeed indicator indicates the airspeeds at which the flaps may be lowered. |
|
|
Term
| 7.11 What is used to warn a mechanic that the glass on an aircraft instrument that contains the range marks has slipped? |
|
Definition
| A white slippage mark that extends across the lower part of the instrument cover glass and the instrument case bezel shows whether or not the glass has slipped. A slipped glass would put the range marks over the incorrect numbers. |
|
|
Term
| 8.11 Where can a mechanic find the range markings that are required on the instruments in a particular aircraft? |
|
Definition
| In the Type Certificate Data Sheets for the aircraft. |
|
|
Term
| 9.11 What check must be made if a mechanic replaces any instrument that is connected to the instrument static system? |
|
Definition
| The static system must be checked for leaks. |
|
|
Term
| 10.11 Why are many of the electrical instruments mounted in steel cases? |
|
Definition
| A steel case concentrates the flux produced by magnets in the instrument and keeps it from affecting other nearby instruments. |
|
|
Term
| 11.11 Why must an aircraft instrument panel be electrically bonded to the primary aircraft structure? |
|
Definition
| The bonding straps carry the return current from the instruments into the aircraft structure. |
|
|
Term
| 12.11 What error is corrected when an aircraft compass is swung? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 13.11 What fluid is used in an aircraft magnetic compass? |
|
Definition
| A special water-clear fluid that is similar to kerosine. |
|
|
Term
| 14.11 What is the maximum amount of deviation error that is allowed when a magnetic compass is installed in an aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 15.11 What is the maximum amount of leakage that is allowed when checking the static system of an aircraft that is operated under Instrument Flight Rules? |
|
Definition
| For an unpressurized aircraft, the system is checked with a 1,000-foot indication on the altimeter. It must not leak more than 100 feet in one minute. For a pressurized aircraft, the system is checked at the maximum certificated pressure differential of the cabin. It must not leak, in one minute, more than 2% of the equivalent altitude of the maximum differential pressure or 100 feet, whichever is greater. |
|
|
Term
| 16.11 Why must the length of the thermocouple leads not be altered when installing a cylinder head temperature indicator? |
|
Definition
| An instrument operated by a thermocouple is a current-measuring device. The resistance of the thermocouple and its leads must be kept at the value specified for the indicator. |
|
|
Term
| 17.11 What should a manifold pressure gage read when the engine is not operating? |
|
Definition
| It should read the existing barometric pressure. |
|
|
Term
| 18.11 What is the difference between a two-minute and a four-minute turn and slip indicator? |
|
Definition
| A two-minute turn indicator gives a one-needle-width deflection for a standard rate of turn (three degrees per second). A four-minute turn indicator gives a one-needle-width deflection for a half-standard rate of turn (1-1/2 degrees per second). A four-minute turn indicator has doghouse shaped marks located two needle widths away from the center mark. When the needle is lined up with a doghouse, the aircraft is making a standard rate turn. |
|
|
Term
| 19.11 What is the difference between a turn and slip indicator and a turn coordinator? |
|
Definition
| A turn and slip indicator is sensitive about only the yaw (vertical) axis of the aircraft. A turn coordinator uses a canted gyro which makes it sensitive about both the roll and yaw axes. |
|
|
Term
| 20.11 What is used as the sensor in the fuel tank for an electronic-type fuel quantity indicating system? |
|
Definition
| Tubular capacitors which extend across the fuel tank from top to bottom. |
|
|
Term
| 21.11 Why is a dual tachometer used on a single-engine helicopter? |
|
Definition
| One needle indicates the speed of the engine, and the other indicates the speed of the main rotor. When the needles are married, the clutch is not slipping and the rotor is solidly engaged to the engine. |
|
|
Term
| 22.11 In what units is the tachometer used on a turbine engine calibrated? |
|
Definition
| In percentage of the takeoff RPM. |
|
|
Term
| 23.11 What kind of system is used to measure the exhaust gas temperature of a turbine engine? |
|
Definition
| An averaging system made up of a series of thermocouples arranged around the inside of the exhaust duct of the engine. |
|
|
Term
| 24.11 What would likely cause the needle of an electrical oil temperature gage to peg on the high side of the instrument dial? |
|
Definition
| There is probably an open in the bulb circuit that is causing the instrument to see an infinite resistance. The higher the resistance of the bulb circuit, the further the needle moves across the dial. |
|
|
Term
| 25.11 What is used as a flowmeter for most of the small horizontally opposed fuel injected aircraft engines? |
|
Definition
| A pressure gage that measures the pressure drop across the injector nozzles. |
|
|
Term
| 26.11 What two sources of power are used to operate the gyro instruments in an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| They may be air operated, either by suction or pressure, or they may be electrically operated. |
|
|
Term
| 1.12 Is a certificated airframe mechanic allowed to adjust a communications transmitter? |
|
Definition
| No, this requires a license issued by the Federal Communications Commission. |
|
|
Term
| 2.12 Which frequency band is used for most aircraft communications? |
|
Definition
| The VHF band, between 30 and 300 megahertz. |
|
|
Term
| 3.12 In which frequency band does the VOR equipment operate? |
|
Definition
| In the VHF band, between 108.0 and 117.95 megahertz. |
|
|
Term
| 4.12 What is the preferred location for a VOR antenna on an airplane? |
|
Definition
| On top of the aircraft, along the center line of the fuselage. |
|
|
Term
| 5.12 Which component of the Instrument Landing System shares the antenna with the VOR? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 6.12 In what frequency band does the DME equipment operate? |
|
Definition
| In the UHF band, between 962 and 1,024 megahertz and between 1,151 and 1,213 megahertz. |
|
|
Term
| 7.12 What is the preferred location for a DME antenna? |
|
Definition
| Along the center line of the belly of the aircraft as far from any other antenna as is practical. |
|
|
Term
| 8.12 On what frequency is the marker beacon signal transmitted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 9.12 What do the three marker beacon lights indicate to the pilot? |
|
Definition
| The blue light indicates passage over the outer marker in an ILS approach, the amber light indicates passage over the middle marker, and the white light indicates passage over any other location specified on the instrument approach. |
|
|
Term
| 10.12 What precautions should be observed when working around aircraft radar? |
|
Definition
| The pulses of electrical energy transmitted from a radar antenna are strong enough that they can seriously injure a person struck by them. They can be reflected from nearby buildings and return with enough power to destroy the receiver circuitry. For this reason, aircraft radar should never be operated when there are people or buildings within 100 yards of the antenna sweep, and it must not be operated when the aircraft is being fueled or defueled. |
|
|
Term
| 11.12 Which frequency band is used for long range communications from an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| The high frequency band (2 to 25 megahertz). |
|
|
Term
| 12.12 What is meant by a transceiver? |
|
Definition
| A piece of radio communications equipment in which all of the circuits for the receiver and the transmitter are contained in one housing. |
|
|
Term
| 13.12 On what two frequencies does the Emergency Locator Transmitter operate? |
|
Definition
| 121.5 and 243.0 megahertz. |
|
|
Term
| 14.12 Where is the ELT transmitter normally located on an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| In the tail of the aircraft or as far aft as possible, so it will be least likely to be damaged in a crash. |
|
|
Term
| 15.12 What three components of an Instrument Landing System are installed in an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| The receivers for the localizer, the glide slope, and the marker beacons. |
|
|
Term
| 16.12 What kind of antenna is used for VHF communications? |
|
Definition
| A vertically polarized whip antenna. |
|
|
Term
| 17.12 What kind of antenna is used for the ATC transponder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 18.12 What is the preferred location for the ATC transponder antenna? |
|
Definition
| 18. What is the preferred location for the ATC transponder antenna? |
|
|
Term
| 19.12 What kind of conductor is used to connect a VHF or UHF antenna to its receiver or transmitter? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 20.12 What two types of antenna are used with most ADF receivers? |
|
Definition
| A directional loop antenna and a nondirectional sense antenna. |
|
|
Term
| 21.12 Why is it important that all shock-mounted electronic equipment be connected to the aircraft structure with a bonding braid? |
|
Definition
| The bonding braid is used to carry the return current from the equipment into the aircraft structure. |
|
|
Term
| 22.12 Why is it necessary to install a doubler on the inside of the aircraft skin when antenna is mounted on the skin? |
|
Definition
| The doubler reinforces the skin so wind loads on the antenna will not cause the skin to flex and crack. |
|
|
Term
| 1.13 What are two reasons Prist is added to the fuel that is used in a turbojet aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Prist is a biocidal agent that (1) kills the scum-forming bacteria in the fuel tank, and (2) acts as an antifreeze agent, lowering the freezing point of the entrained water that is released from the fuel. |
|
|
Term
| 2.13 What are two types of fuel cells that are used in modern aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Integral fuel cells (cells that are a sealed-off portion of the structure) and bladder-type cells. |
|
|
Term
| 3.13 Why are fuel tanks divided into compartments or have baffles installed in them? |
|
Definition
| The compartments or baffles keep the fuel from surging back and forth as the aircraft changes its attitude in flight. |
|
|
Term
| 4.13 What is meant by an integral fuel cell? |
|
Definition
| A part of the structure in which all of the seams and joints are sealed so they will be fuel tight. The structure itself then becomes the fuel tank. |
|
|
Term
| 5.13 Where are fuel system strainers located? |
|
Definition
| One strainer is located in the outlet to the tank, and the main strainer is located in the fuel line between the outlet of the fuel tank and the inlet to the fuel metering device. |
|
|
Term
| 6.13 What are three uses of a centrifugal booster pump that is installed in an aircraft fuel tank? |
|
Definition
| Booster pumps are used to produce fuel pressure for starting the engine, to keep the fuel from vapor locking at high altitude, and to transfer fuel from one tank to another. |
|
|
Term
| 7.13 What is meant by a compensated engine-driven fuel pump? |
|
Definition
| An engine-driven fuel pump whose pressure relief valve is acted upon by the pressure of the atmosphere. A compensated pump varies its outlet fuel pressure so it will stay a constant amount higher than the pressure of the air that is entering the carburetor. |
|
|
Term
| 8.13 Why do engine-driven fuel pumps have a bypass valve in them? |
|
Definition
| The bypass valve allows fuel from the booster pump to flow around the engine-driven pump mechanism for starting the engine and to supply the engine with fuel if the engine-driven pump should fail. |
|
|
Term
| 9.13 Why must an aircraft fuel valve have a detent in its operating mechanism? |
|
Definition
| The detent gives the pilot a positive indication by feel when the selector valve is in the full ON and full OFF position. |
|
|
Term
| 10.13 What characteristic of the fuel is measured with the mass-flow fuel flowmeter that is used with turbine engine aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 11.13 What is used as a flowmeter for a fuel-injected, horizontally opposed aircraft engine? |
|
Definition
| A pressure gage that measures the pressure drop across the injector nozzles in the engine. |
|
|
Term
| 12.13 What is meant by a cross-feed system in an aircraft fuel system? |
|
Definition
| A cross-feed system allows fuel from any tank to flow to any engine. |
|
|
Term
| 13.13 Why do some aircraft have provisions for jettisoning fuel in flight? |
|
Definition
| Aircraft that are certificated with a higher takeoff weight than their allowable landing weight must have provision for jettisoning fuel. This allows enough fuel to be dumped to bring the weight down to that allowed for landing in case an emergency occurs before this amount of fuel can be burned off. |
|
|
Term
| 14.13 What must be done to a welded fuel tank before it can be repaired by welding? |
|
Definition
| All of the fuel vapors must be purged by flowing live steam through the tank, by soaking it in boiling water, or by chemically neutralizing the fumes. |
|
|
Term
| 15.13 What safety precautions must be taken before a person enters the fuel cell of a large aircraft? |
|
Definition
| The cell must be thoroughly purged of all fumes, the person entering the cell must wear proper safety equipment, and there must be a person standing by on the outside of the cell. |
|
|
Term
| 16.13 What is meant by a single-point fueling system? |
|
Definition
| A pressure fueling system in which the fuel is pumped into the aircraft through an underwing fueling port. The fuel flows into a manifold, and then into the correct fuel tank as selected at the fueling station. |
|
|
Term
| 17.13 What gas is used to purge a fuel tank of all fuel vapors? |
|
Definition
| Carbon dioxide or nitrogen. |
|
|
Term
| 18.13 Why do turbojet aircraft normally have fuel temperature indicators? |
|
Definition
| Because of the low temperatures at which these aircraft operate, it is possible for water to precipitate out of the fuel and freeze on the filters, shutting off fuel to the engines. The temperature can be kept above freezing by directing it through a fuel heater as is needed. |
|
|
Term
| 19.13 How is a fuel leak indicated on a reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft? |
|
Definition
| The dye that is in the gasoline stains the area around the leak. |
|
|
Term
| 20.13 What is the purpose of a drip gage in the fuel tank of a large aircraft? |
|
Definition
| The drip gage allows a mechanic to check the fuel level in a tank from the bottom of the tank. |
|
|
Term
| 21.13 What safety precautions should be taken before an aircraft is defueled? |
|
Definition
| Be sure that the fuel truck is properly located, the truck and the aircraft are electrically grounded, all electrical power except that needed for the defueling operation is turned off, and the fuel is returned to the proper truck or other container. |
|
|
Term
| 22.13 What markings must appear near the filler opening of the fuel tanks on reciprocating-engine-powered aircraft, and on a turbine-powered aircraft? |
|
Definition
On a reciprocating engine powered-aircraft: the word FUEL and the minimum grade of fuel.
On a turbine engine powered aircraft: the word FUEL, the permissible fuel designations, the maximum permissible fueling supply pressure, and the maximum permissible defueling pressure. |
|
|
Term
| 1.14 What two things must you take into consideration when selecting the wire size to use in an aircraft electrical system installation? |
|
Definition
| The current carrying capability of the wire and the voltage drop caused by the current flowing through the wire. |
|
|
Term
| 2.14 What is the maximum number of wires that should be connected to any single stud in a terminal strip? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 3.14 How is a wire bundle protected from chafing where the bundle goes through a hole in a fuselage frame or bulkhead? |
|
Definition
| The edges of the hole are covered with a flexible grommet, and the bundle is secured to the structure with a cushioned clamp. |
|
|
Term
| 4.14 What kind of clamp is used to secure a wire bundle to the aircraft structure? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 5.14 Why are solderless splices usually better than soldered splices in the wiring of an aircraft electrical system? |
|
Definition
| Soldered joints are usually stiff, and vibration can harden the wire and cause it to break. Solderless splices are designed to keep the joint flexible so vibration cannot cause the wire to break. |
|
|
Term
| 6.14 What size generator must be used in an aircraft electrical system if the connected electrical load is 30 amps, and there is no way of monitoring the generator output? |
|
Definition
| When monitoring is not practical, the total continuously connected electrical load must be no more than 80% of the rated generator output. This would require a generator with a rating of 37.5 amps. Practically, a 40-amp generator would be installed. |
|
|
Term
| 7.14 Why must a switch be derated if it is used in a circuit that supplies incandescent lamps? |
|
Definition
| The high inrush current caused by the low resistance of the cold filaments requires that the switches be derated. |
|
|
Term
| 8.14 On which wing is the red navigation light? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 9.14 What kind of fault can be found in a generator armature with a growler? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 10.14 Does an aircraft engine electric starter use a series or a parallel motor? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 11.14 What is the main disadvantage of aluminum wire over copper wire for use in an aircraft electrical system? |
|
Definition
| Aluminum wire is more brittle than copper. It is more subject to breakage when it is nicked or when it is subjected to vibration. |
|
|
Term
| 12.14 What kind of rectifier is used in the small DC alternators installed in most light aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Six silicon diodes arranged in a three-phase, full-wave rectifier. |
|
|
Term
| 13.14 What kind of instrument would you use to measure very high resistance? |
|
Definition
| A megohmmeter. Megger is the registered trade name of such an instrument. |
|
|
Term
| 14.14 When is it important that aircraft electrical system wire bundles be enclosed in some type of conduit? |
|
Definition
| Any time a wire bundle is routed in an area where it is subject to abrasion or rough handling, it should be enclosed in a conduit. |
|
|
Term
| 15.14 What size aluminum wire would be proper to replace a piece of four-gage copper wire? |
|
Definition
| Two-gage. When you substitute aluminum wire for copper wire, use a wire that is two gage numbers larger. |
|
|
Term
| 16.14 What is the smallest size aluminum wire that is approved for use in aircraft electrical systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 17.14 What three things must be synchronized before an aircraft AC generator is placed on the same bus with another AC generator? |
|
Definition
| The voltage, the frequency, and the phase rotation. |
|
|
Term
| 18.14 How can the direction of rotation of the armature of a DC shunt-wound electric motor be reversed? |
|
Definition
| By reversing the connections to the shunt field coil with reference to the armature. |
|
|
Term
| 19.14 What is meant by flashing the field of a generator? |
|
Definition
| Restoring the residual magnetism to the frame of the generator. This is done by passing battery current through the field coils in the direction it normally flows when the generator is operating. |
|
|
Term
| 1.15 What is an annunciator panel in an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| A single location that contains all of the warning and condition lights for the aircraft. This makes it easy for the pilot to monitor all of the systems at a glance. |
|
|
Term
| 2.15 Which device in an antiskid brake system would likely cause the brakes to fail to release when a skid developed? |
|
Definition
| A malfunctioning antiskid valve. |
|
|
Term
| 3.15 Where are the skid detectors located in an antiskid brake system? |
|
Definition
| In the center of the wheel hub. |
|
|
Term
| 4.15 What condition could cause a takeoff warning system to actuate? |
|
Definition
| The takeoff warning system gives an aural warning when the power lever is advanced for takeoff if the flight controls for the stabilizer, the flaps, and the speed brakes are in an unsafe condition for takeoff. |
|
|
Term
| 5.15 What would cause the warning horn to sound when the throttles are pulled back, reducing the engine power for landing? |
|
Definition
| The warning horn will sound if any of the landing gears are not down and locked. |
|
|
Term
| 6.15 What is indicated by a red light in the landing gear position indication portion of the annunciator panel. |
|
Definition
| The red light indicates that the landing gear is not in a safe condition for landing. |
|
|
Term
| 7.15 Where is the landing gear safety switch normally located? |
|
Definition
| On one of the landing gear shock struts so the switch is actuated when the weight of the aircraft is on the landing gear. |
|
|
Term
| 8.15 What information is given to a pilot to indicate that all of the landing gears are down and locked? |
|
Definition
| Three green lights are used on most aircraft to indicate that all three landing gears are down and locked. |
|
|
Term
| 1.16 Why is it important that ice not be allowed to build up on airplane wings in flight? |
|
Definition
| Ice distorts the shape of the airfoil and destroys the aerodynamic lift. The weight of the ice loads the aircraft down. |
|
|
Term
| 2.16 Are pneumatic deicer boots operated before ice forms or after it has formed? |
|
Definition
| Pneumatic deicer boots are not operated until ice has formed over them. When the boot inflates, it breaks the ice, and the air flowing over the airfoil blows it away. |
|
|
Term
| 3.16 Where does the air come from to operate the pneumatic deicer boots on a reciprocating-engine powered airplane? |
|
Definition
| From the discharge side of the air pump that is used to operate the gyro instruments. |
|
|
Term
| 4.16 What is meant by a wet vacuum pump? |
|
Definition
| A vacuum pump that uses engine oil to lubricate its steel vanes. A dry vacuum pump uses carbon vanes, and it does not require any oil for lubrication. |
|
|
Term
| 5.16 What is the purpose of the oil separator in a deicer system? |
|
Definition
| Oil separators are used with wet vacuum pumps to remove the lubricating oil from the discharge air before this air is used in the deicer boots. |
|
|
Term
| 6.16 How are rubber deicer boots cleaned? |
|
Definition
| By washing them with mild soap and water |
|
|
Term
| 7.16 How does a thermal anti-icing system operate? |
|
Definition
| Hot compressor bleed air is ducted into a special chamber between a double skin in the leading edge of the wing. This hot air is controlled by a timer so ice is allowed to build up, and then the hot air breaks its bond to the skin. Air gets under the ice and blows it away. |
|
|
Term
| 8.16 What is used to remove frost from an aircraft before flight? |
|
Definition
| A mixture of isopropyl alcohol and ethylene glycol. |
|
|
Term
| 9.16 How is ice prevented from forming on the windshield of modern jet transport airplanes? |
|
Definition
| The windshield has a heater element embedded in it. Electric current heats the windshield and keeps ice from forming on it. |
|
|
Term
| 10.16 How is ice kept from forming on the pitot tube of an airplane? |
|
Definition
| Pitot tubes are heated by electric current flowing through heater elements that are built into them. |
|
|
Term
| 11.16 What are two ways rain can be kept from obstructing the pilot's vision through the windshield of an airplane? |
|
Definition
The rain can be blown away by a high velocity blast of compressor bleed air, or it can be wiped away with electrically or hydraulically operated wind-
shield wipers. |
|
|
Term
| 12.16 When should rain repellent be used on an airplane windshield? |
|
Definition
| Only when the windshield is wet with rain. |
|
|
Term
| 13.16 How is carburetor ice prevented in the engines of the smaller aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Heated air is directed into the carburetor. This heat comes from a muff around a part of the engine exhaust system. |
|
|
Term
| 14.16 How are rubber deicer boots attached to the leading edges of aircraft wings and tail surfaces? |
|
Definition
| Some of them are attached with machine screws and Rivnuts; others are bonded to the surface with an adhesive. |
|
|
Term
| 15.16 What keeps an electrically heated windshield from overheating? |
|
Definition
| Heat sensors built into the windshield control the current that is used to heat the windshield. |
|
|
Term
| 1.17 Does a thermocouple fire detection system warn the pilot of a general overheat condition? |
|
Definition
| No, it operates on the rate of temperature rise, and it identifies only a fire. |
|
|
Term
| 2.17 Does a thermal switch fire detection warn the pilot of a general overheat condition? |
|
Definition
| No, it only actuates when there is a fire. |
|
|
Term
| 3.17 What type of fire extinguishing agent is best for both cabin fires and engine fires? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 4.17 What is a major disadvantage of "CB" fire extinguishing agent for extinguishing aircraft fires? |
|
Definition
| It is corrosive to aluminum and magnesium. |
|
|
Term
| 5.17 Why is carbon tetrachloride not recommended as a fire extinguishing agent? |
|
Definition
| Carbon tetrachloride produces phosgene, a deadly gas, when it is exposed to flames. |
|
|
Term
| 6.17 What is used as a fire extinguishing agent in most of the high-rate discharge systems installed in aircraft? |
|
Definition
| One of the halogenated hydrocarbons, such as Halon 1301, pressurized with nitrogen. |
|
|
Term
| 7.17 What happens when the Fire-Pull T-handle is pulled in a jet transport aircraft? |
|
Definition
| The bottle discharge switch is uncovered and armed, the generator field relay is tripped, fuel is shut off to the engine, and hydraulic fluid is shut off to the pump. The engine bleed air is shut off and the hydraulic pump low-pressure lights are deactivated. |
|
|
Term
| 8.17 What releases the fire extinguishing agent in a high-rate discharge bottle? |
|
Definition
| An electrically ignited powder charge blows a knife through a seal in the HRD bottle. |
|
|
Term
| 9.17 What three types of fire extinguishers are recommended for extinguishing cabin fires in an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Water, Halon 1301, and carbon dioxide. |
|
|
Term
| 10.17 How does a carbon monoxide detector warn the occupant of an aircraft of an excess of carbon monoxide? |
|
Definition
| The detector crystals in the indicator change color. |
|
|
Term
| 11.17 What are two types of smoke detectors that are used in an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Photoelectric and visual smoke detectors. |
|
|
Term
| 12.17 Where are smoke detectors normally located in an aircraft? |
|
Definition
| Smoke detectors are located in baggage compartments and cargo areas. |
|
|
Term
| 13.17 What type of fire extinguisher is recommended for extinguishing a brake fire? |
|
Definition
| A dry-powder type extinguisher. |
|
|
Term
| 14.17 How is a CO2 fire extinguisher checked for the amount of charge it contains? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 15.17 How can you determine whether or not a built-in fire extinguishing system has been discharged? |
|
Definition
| By checking the blowout plugs on the outside of the aircraft near the extinguisher agent bottles. |
|
|
Term
| 16.17 What precaution must you observe when checking the electrical squib of an HRD fire extinguisher bottle for electrical continuity? |
|
Definition
| It takes only a small amount of current to ignite the powder charge, and the method of testing must not send this amount of current through it. |
|
|
Term
| 17.17 What is indicated if the red disk in a built-in fire extinguishing system is blown out? |
|
Definition
| The agent bottle has been discharged because of an overheat condition. |
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