| Term 
 
        | 'Left Shift' indicates what? What is it? |  | Definition 
 
        | Acute Infection 
 Increase in the relative number of immature forms of neutrophils (>10%)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When might leukocytosis occur without left shift? |  | Definition 
 
        | when the body is stressed: exercise anxiety fight or flight |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Segs or Bands: which are mature neutrophils? |  | Definition 
 
        | Segs: (segmented) = mature |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | MOST VIRULENT (true pathogen) 
 ONLY one that is COAGULASE+
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Commensal (part of normal skin flora) 
 Diseases: associated with immunocompromised, burns (violations of natural barriers), foreign devices (pacemakers)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Rarely causes infection 
 Most noted in UTIs in women
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | pus producing lesion on skin infection of hair follicle or sweat gland
 acne vulgaris
 stye
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | spreading of lesions to SQ tissue serious-can lead to bloodstream infection
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | highly communicable, superficial skin infection large blisters containing viable staff
 Mostly in infants/kids
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Does staph or strep appear in clusters? |  | Definition 
 
        | Staph: clusters Strep: chains/pairs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | S. pyogenes (classification) |  | Definition 
 
        | Group A, beta hemolytic strep 
 prominent cause of bacterial pharyngitis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | S. pneumoniae (classification) |  | Definition 
 
        | alpha hemolytic (no group) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | S. agalactiae (classification) |  | Definition 
 
        | Group B, beta hemolytic strep |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | alpha hemolytic strep (no group) 
 usually in mouth and nasopharynx
 
 can cause subacute bacterial endocarditis (in kids/teens = very damaging to heart)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Enterococci classification |  | Definition 
 
        | Group D gamma hemolytic strep |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Rapid Strep test (for strep throat) |  | Definition 
 
        | Test to rule out Group A strep Good specificity, fair sensitivity = false negative likely
 
 SO, if test comes back negative for strep, might still have it
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why we are concerned with strep pharyngitis infections: |  | Definition 
 
        | Sequella (additive risk with each sequential infection) 1. Rheumatic fever (heart valve disease)- more common with strep pharyngitis
 2. acute glomerulomephritis (Chronic renal failure) - more common with strep impetigo (NOT same as STAPH impetigo)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Most common infections with Strep agalactiae |  | Definition 
 
        | a leading cause of pneumonia, sepsis, and meningitis during first 2 months of life 
 contamination in birth canal and/or not enough of mothers IgG
 
 Tx: Penicillin and aminoglycoside
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Infections associated with strep pneumo |  | Definition 
 
        | bacterial CAP (most common) meningitis (most common)
 URI (sinusitis and otitis media)
 endocarditis, arthritis, peritonitis
 
 **Consider location when selecting drug**
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the 3 most common causes of bacterial meningitis? What do they all have in common? |  | Definition 
 
        | H. flu N. meningiditis
 S. pneumoniae (most common)
 
 all capsular
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which enterococcus is more resistant to antibiotics (including vancomycin) |  | Definition 
 
        | faecium (bad) 
 faecalis = more common and susceptible to abx
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spectrum of oxygen dependency (most oxygen-requiring to least) |  | Definition 
 
        | Obligate aerobes Facultative anaerobes
 Microaerophilic bacteria (aerotolerant anaerobes)
 Obligate anaerobes (most difficult to culture)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Gram positive, obligate anaerobes 
 botulism (flaccid paralysis)
 tetanus (rigid paralysis)
 gas gangrene (C.perfringens - endotoxins destroy skin, soft tissue, and muscle
 pseudomembranous entercolitis (C.diff)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | gram negative, anaerobes 
 B.fragilis: most common bacteria in colon, beta-lactamase prodcuer
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | gram negative, aerobes (diplococci) 
 N. meningiditis:
 -meningitis
 -transmitted via droplet nuclei (ex. sneezing)
 -vaccination available
 -Tx: pen G, alternatively 3rd gen ceph
 
 N.gonorrhea
 -asymptomatic (more so in women)
 -chlamydia trachomatis often a co-infection - usually treat both)
 -Tx: 2nd/3rd gen ceph, fluoroquinolones, spectinomycin (increased resistance to Pen G)
 -can cause blindness in baby (prophylaxis with silver nitrate soln 1%)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | gram negative aerobic diplococci 
 low pathogenicity
 increasing concern in URIs and pneumonia (esp in chronic bronchitis)
 
 Tx: erythromycin, tetracycline, augmentin, cephalosporins
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1. Non-diarrheagenic - most common cause of UTIs 2. Diarrheagenic - different strains
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | enterobactericeae 
 Diseases:
 -predominately nosocomial
 -pneumonia, UTIs, bateremia
 
 beta-lactamase production
 endotoxin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Enterobacteriaceae 
 Diseases:
 UTIs (pyelonephritis and cystitis)
 Nosocomial pneumonia and bacteremia
 
 entotoxin and beta-lactamase production
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Enterobacteriaceae 
 Diseases:
 UTIs
 Nosocomial pneumonia and bacteremia
 Infective arthritis for intra-auricular injections (steroid shots)
 
 Endotoxin and beta-lacatase production
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | enterobacteriaceae indole positive
 
 Disease:
 UTIs, urolithiasis
 
 endotoxin, flagella, some beta-lactamase production
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | enterobacteriaceae true pathogen
 
 Disease:
 enteric fever (Typhoid fever)-->bacteremia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | causes watery diarrhea with fever, N/V, usually self-limiting 
 bacteremia occasionally
 
 transmitted: fecal/oral, contaminated food
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | dysentery: watery diarrhea, fever, N/V |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | bubonic plague: rapidly fatal fever, chills, sudden onset-->bacteremia, sepsis, vasculitis and gangrene
 
 transmitted by fleas
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | meningitis epiglotittis (most common cause in kids)
 sinusitis and otitis media (most common)
 purulent conjunctivitis
 
 vaccine available for type b strain (common)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Burkholderia |  | Definition 
 
        | hot tubs, pools ->swimmers ear cystic fibrosis
 ventilator associated pneumonia
 
 multiple forms of resistance-usually requires multiple drugs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Stenotrophomonas and Acinetobacter |  | Definition 
 
        | gram negative aerobes 
 multiple drug resistance
 
 Disease:
 often in hospitalized patients who have undergone recent courses of antibiotics
 nosocomial pneumonia and bacteremia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | legionar's disease exotoxin (unique) impairs phagocytes Atypical pneumonia that is fatal in immunocompromised and elderly Treatment:erythromycin DOC macrolides, tetracyclines, fluoroquinolones |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | urease producer-so can live in stomach 
 Disease:
 chronic gastritis-superficial mucosal inflammation
 gastric and duodenal/peptic ulcer- extension of chronic gastritis
 gastric carcinoma
 
 Tx: clarithromycin amoxicillin and PPI (PrevPak)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Disruption of cell wall synthesis by binding to PGP (inhibits transpeptidases) 
 irreversible
 time-dependent killing
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | given with penicillin to block drugs tubular secretion (increase half-life of penicillin) 
 Also given with colcrys
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which penicillin formulation has the longest half-life |  | Definition 
 
        | Benzathine Penicillin G IM suspension |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Penicillin used to treat? |  | Definition 
 
        | Syphillis Strep A pharyngitis (pyogenes)
 oral cavity infections
 some anaerobes (Clostridia [not difficile])
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What two penicillins are administered IM? |  | Definition 
 
        | Procaine Pen G Benzathine Pen G
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | GI: NVD 
 rare: seizures, acute interstitial nephritis, anaphylaxis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Two drugs to treat MRSA out-patient |  | Definition 
 
        | Bactrim and Cleocin (clindamycin) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the advantage of dicloxacillin over cloxacillin? |  | Definition 
 
        | increased bioavailability (can halve the dose) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is ampicillin used to treat? |  | Definition 
 
        | H.flu and Entercocci (URI) Some strains of E.coli and P.mirabilis (UTI)
 *not active against beta-lactamase producers
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Biggest drawback with ampicillin |  | Definition 
 
        | diarrhea 
 amoxicillin has much less associated (+ better bioavailability)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Otitis media bacterial sinusitis
 exacerbations of chronic bronchitis
 some Salmonella
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | N/V Diarrhea (less than with Ampicillin)
 Rash (higher than with other penicillins)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Klebsiella, Pseudomonas, Serratia, Enterobacter, Enterococci, and anaerobes 
 empiric use in hospitals as Zosyn
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What patients are at an increased risk of rash with amoxicillin/ampicillin |  | Definition 
 
        | patients with mononucleosis (~90%) 
 will be falsely branded with a penicillin allergy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is Jarixch-Herxheimer reaction? When does it occur? |  | Definition 
 
        | Occurs with penicillins used to treat spirochete infections -occurs because the drug is so effective at treating it causes the release of toxins at once
 
 begins 2 hours after administration and lasts about a day
 
 fever, chills, sweating, tachycardia, myalgias, hyperventilation
 
 Treat symptoms with ASA and prednisone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How long should a second form of birth control when antibiotics are given to a patient on OC? |  | Definition 
 
        | up to two weeks after finishing the antibiotic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Most common penicillin hypersensitivity reaction |  | Definition 
 
        | Morbiliform eruption 
 maculopapular rash (late reaction)
 
 treat with antipruritic (ex: hydroxyzine or diphenhydramine)
 
 occurs where the patient has been laying (ex: pressure), then will spread
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What type of bacteria are NEVER covered by cephalosporins? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two notable first generation cephalosporins? (Hint 1 IV and 1 PO) |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What do the first generation cephalosporins cover? |  | Definition 
 
        | Class effect (all first generations cover the same things) Good gram positive (NOT Coag negative, MRSA, Enterococci) use for MSSA or Strep E.coli, K.pneumoniae, P.mirabilis most anaerobes BUT B.fragilis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Advantages of second generation ceph over 1st gen. (General) |  | Definition 
 
        | greater anaerobic coverages (B.frag) - can be used in colon procedures enhanced beta-lactamase stability and relative loss of G+ activity H.flu, Strep pneumo, Moraxella catarrhalis (respiratory) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name 2 IV 2nd gen cephalosporins and 1 PO |  | Definition 
 
        | Cefoxitin (colon surgery) Cefuroxime (respiratory) Cefuroxima axetil |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the cross sensitivity rate between penicillins and cephalosporins |  | Definition 
 
        | ~8% Dont give cephalosporins to patients to people with anaphylactic rxn or severe rash with penicillins low risk in patients who exhibited a mild rash |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Name 2 IV 3rd generation cephalosporins and 2 PO |  | Definition 
 
        | Ceftriaxone (enterobatericeae; meningitis) 
 Ceftazidime (anti-pseudomonal)
 
 PO: cefdinir, cefixime
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the only 4th generation ceph currently approved? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cefepime (=cefazolin + cefrazidime) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Only cephalosporin approved for MRSA |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the SPACE bugs and what is their significance? |  | Definition 
 
        | Serratia Pseudomonas
 Acineobacter
 Citrobacter
 Enterobacter
 
 When encounter put on 2 drugs (ceph + aminoglycoside) because will induce their own beta-lactamase production
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the best empirically used drug for infection (in hospital) |  | Definition 
 
        | Zosyn (pipericillin + tazobactam) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the four carbapenems |  | Definition 
 
        | Imipenem Meropenem
 Ertapenem
 Doripenem
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the benefit to using carbapenems? |  | Definition 
 
        | Usually resistant to beta-lactamases BUT are very potent inducers of beta-lactamase production (bad for other drugs) 
 Use only when necessary
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Imipenem administration and ADR |  | Definition 
 
        | must be given with cilastatin (blocks hydrolysis of drug in kidney - prevents toxicity and promotes antibiotic effect) 
 Seizure risk with high doses
 
 Broad spectrum
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Meropenem compared to imipenem |  | Definition 
 
        | similar spectrum with less seizure potential |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | long half-life so QD Good G+, enterogacteriaceae, anerobes but BAD psuedomonas
 -good for intra-abdominal infections
 -bad for ICU hospitals (need pseudo coverage)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Broad spectrum antibiotics used empirically should have coverage of what two bacteria? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Broad spectrum 
 Good against G+, enterobacteriaceae, psuedomonas, anaerobes
 
 Extered infusion time takes advantage of interval dependent killing
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 'designer drug' 
 ONLY gram NEGATIVE
 -no anaerobes of G+
 
 Anti-psuedomonal
 
 Good for patients with a penicillin allergy
 
 Should always be combined with something, but dont combine with other beta-lactams
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Adults 125-500 mg Q6-8H adjust for renal impairment
 
 250 and 500 mg tab
 125 and 250 mg/5 mL susp (refrigerate)
 
 Take on empty stomach (1-2 hr before meal)
 
 ADR: NVD
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Dosing and administration of dicloxacillin |  | Definition 
 
        | take on empty stomach 125-250 mg Q6h (Max: 500 mg Q6H)
 
 available as capsule and susp
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Clinical uses of dicloxacillin |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Clinical uses of amoxicillin/ampicillin? |  | Definition 
 
        | otitis media sinusitis
 bronchitis
 SSTIs (including bites - augmentin)
 UTIs
 
 NOTE: augmentin covers MSSA and G- beta-lactamase producers
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Counseling points with ampicillin (ADR, admin) |  | Definition 
 
        | take on empty stomach (decreased absorption) 
 diarrhea and rash are common
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Counseling points with amoxicillin and augmentin |  | Definition 
 
        | less diarrhea than ampicillin 
 take without regard to food (with food may help GI upset)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Clinical uses of cephalexin |  | Definition 
 
        | SSTI UTIs
 Strep pharyngitis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Should you take cephalexin with or with out food? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Clinical uses of cefuroxime axetil |  | Definition 
 
        | otitis media bronchitis
 sinusitis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Should you take cefuroxime axetil with or without food? |  | Definition 
 
        | Better absorbed WITH FOOD |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Does cefdinir have good or bad gram positive coverage? |  | Definition 
 
        | Good coverage of staph and strep |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the generic for Suprax? What generation? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cefixime and 3rd generation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the generic for Cedax |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What generation cephalosporin is cefdinir? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Counseling points with cefdinir |  | Definition 
 
        | Take with or without food Decreased absorption with iron supp
 
 ADR: N/V/D
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | MSSA penicillin-susceptible S. pneumo
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Ceftibuten - dosage forms and with/without food? |  | Definition 
 
        | Suspension and capsule (interchangeable) 
 Food decreases absorption
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cefpodoxime proxetil: name brand and generation |  | Definition 
 
        | Vantin and 3rd generation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Special counseling point with cefpodoxime |  | Definition 
 
        | Requires acid and food increases its absorption. 
 Take with food and avoid antacids, H2RA, PPIs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | To refridgerate or not: (how long is it good?) Cefdinir
 Cephalexin
 Cefixime
 Cefaclor
 Cefpodoxime proxetil
 Augmentin
 Amoxicillin
 Ceftibuten
 Pen VK
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Cefdinir: no (good for 10 days) Cephalexin: yes (good for 14 days)
 Cefixime: either (good for 14 days)
 Cefaclor: yes (good for 14 days)
 Cefpodoxime proxetil: yes (good for 14 days)
 Augmentin: yes (10 days)
 Amoxicillin: either, but fridge prferred (14 days)
 Ceftibuten: yes (14 days)
 Pen VK: yes (14 days)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | competitive inhibition of dihydropteroate synthase (blocks synthesis of dihydrofolic acid) -needed for purines = block cell growth (bacteriostatic)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Why should you drink lots of water with sulfa abx? |  | Definition 
 
        | (Especially the older compounds) will crystallize in acidic urine -drinking water minimizes crystal formation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sulfisoxazole: administration, what does it treat |  | Definition 
 
        | QID (short-acting) 
 UTIs (sometimes) and otitis media
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Sulfadiazine (PO): administration, what does it treat |  | Definition 
 
        | short acting 
 readily passes into CSF due to minima protein binding (susceptible meningitis)
 
 used in combo with other antibiotics to treat nocardial infections (typically in immunocompromised) and toxoplasmosis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | BID synergistic
 drink lots of water
 
 ADRs: Rash (more common in AIDS pts), N/V/D, photosensitivity, kidney stones, thrombocytopenia/neutropenia (more common in AIDS patients)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | serum concentration: 1:20 
 Oral combos: 1:5
 (DS: 160-800)
 
 always prep bactrim based on TMP (first) component
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Mechanisms of resistance against Bactrim |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Increased production of PABA 2. Change of target (dihydropteroate synthase and/or dihydrofolate reductase)
 3. Increased production of dihydropteroate synthase (overcomes ABX)
 4. Reduced uptake of drug
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Contraindications of Bactrim (Sulfas) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Pregnant women (3rd trimester = kernicterus) and neonates < 2 mo due to immature hepatic enzymes 2. G6P dehydrogenase deficiency: increased risk of hemolytic rxns during therapy
 3. Hypersensitivity
 4. Folic acid deficiency: increased risk of hematologic toxicitiy (leukopenia, thrombocytopenia)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1. UTIs 2. prophylaxis for travelers diarrhea
 3. acute exacerbations of bronchitis, otitis media, sinusitis
 4. community acquired MRSA
 
 *NOT strep pharyngitis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spectrum of activity of Bactrim |  | Definition 
 
        | G+: MSSA, MRSA, S.pneumo, S. epidermidis 
 G-: most enterobacteriaceae, H.flu, M.catarrhalis, Salomonella, Shigella
 
 NOT: enterococci, Pseudomonas, anaerobes
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | ophthalmic 
 resistance limits usefulness
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | broad spectrum topical
 used in burn patients: diffuses well thru devascularized areas
 good against Psuedomonas
 
 both mafenide and its metabolite are carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (can cause metabolic acidosis- would hyperventilate to compensate) -->use with caution in patients with renal or pulmonary insufficiency
 
 ADRs: fungal colonization (oppor), local pain, burning sensation (if nerve not damaged)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | broad spectrum (including pseudomonas) topical
 
 silver ion is an active component
 
 Advantages vs mafenide: less painful and fewer applications
 
 Sulfadiazine can be absorbed and crystaluria can be an issue
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Sulfa + anti-inflammatory agent Tx of IBD
 poor absorption in GI tract
 
 Metabolized by intestinal bacteria to sulfapyridine (which gets absorbed and renally excreted) + ASA
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | inhibition of protein synthesis 
 Binds 23s rRNA (part of 50s subunit)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spectrum of Activity of Macrolides |  | Definition 
 
        | G+: S. pneumo (resistance common) G-: H.pylori (PUD), M.catarrhalis, H.flu, C.jejuni, N.gonorrheae, N.meningitidis, B.pertussis
 Atypicals: Mycoplasma, Chlamydia, Legionella, Mycobacterium avium
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 4 mechanisms of resistance with macrolides |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. membrane penetration diminished (pores of G-) 2. Enzyme obstruction
 3. Efflux pumps
 4. Altered target (methylation)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which macrolide is safest to use in someone with renal failure? |  | Definition 
 
        | Erythromycin (not renally eliminated) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Should macrolides be taken with or without food? |  | Definition 
 
        | Erythromycin: without (food decreases the absorption of most dosage forms) 
 Clarithromycin and Azithromycin: with or without food (decreases GI SE with food)
 -Azith CAPSULES should be taken withOUT food
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is unique about azithromycin distribution? |  | Definition 
 
        | It concentrates in WBCs so it will be concentrated at the site of infection |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Does erythromycin and clarithromycin induce of inhibit CYP enzymes? |  | Definition 
 
        | 3A4 inhibitor 
 azithromycin is only minorly metabolized by this enzyme so it has less of an effect
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Interaction between macrolides and quinolones |  | Definition 
 
        | Can cause QT prolongation (most common with the quinolones that have been removed from the market) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Interaction between macrolides and Class Ia and III antiarrhythmics |  | Definition 
 
        | Can increase antiarrhythmic concentration which can lead to QT prolongation and torsades de pointes (in addition to erythromycins ability to cause QT prolongation independently) 
 (ex: quinidine, amiodarone)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1. CAP (espeically if atypicals suspected) 2. Strep throat
 3. Acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis (only C and A, NOT E)
 4. STDs (2g Azith for gonorrhea and chlamydia)
 5. PUD (PrevPak)
 6. Cat scratch fever
 7. Whooping cough
 8. Lyme Disease
 9. MAC (Mycobacterium avium complex)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | GI: N/V/D cramping Dose-related hearing loss or tinnitus (Reversible)
 QT prolongation and torsades de pointes
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | B: azithromycin and erythromycin 
 C: clarithromycin (adr in animals, no info in humans)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What other two disease states are macrolides useful in? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Cystic fibrosis (Azithromycin) 2. diabetic gastroparesis (erythromycin)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Cystic fibrosis and azithromycin |  | Definition 
 
        | reduces exacerbations 
 decreased toxins, inhibition of biofilms and quorum sensing, decreased sputum and mucus production
 
 can take QD or MWF (prophylaxis)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Diabetics gastroparesis and erythromycin |  | Definition 
 
        | MOA: binds to motilin receptor 
 take before meals to help move food along
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to 30s subunit |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spectrum of activity of tetracyclines |  | Definition 
 
        | **Little variation of activity between diff tetracylcines** G+: CA-MRSA, S.pneumo (increasing resistance)
 G-: H.flu, M.catarrhalis
 Spirochetes (Borrelia, Rickesttia, Chlamydia, Mycoplasma)
 
 DOC: Brucella spp. and Vibrio cholerae
 
 Used in combo for PUD
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is nitrofurantoin used to treat? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | inhibits bacterial carbohydrate production (acetyl-CoA) and can inhibit cell wall formation 
 *MOA is dependent on urine acidity
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which form of nitrofurantoin is better tolerated |  | Definition 
 
        | Macrocrystalline form (produces fewer GI ADR) 
 this form is more slowly absorbed, taking it with food which will prolong gastric movement will increase absorption
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is the advantage of Macrobid over other nitrofurantoin products? |  | Definition 
 
        | It requires only BID dosing (not QID) x7 days |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Nitrofurantoin and pregnancy |  | Definition 
 
        | Category B, but contraindicated at term (38 weeks) because it can cause hemolytic anemia in patients deficient in G6P or glutathione in RBC (which includes neonates) 
 -gets in breast milk (must evaluate above issue before use)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Interaction between nitrofurantoin and quinolones |  | Definition 
 
        | Only relevant if the quinolone is being used to treat the UTI too Nitrofurantoin inhibits the quinolones action in the urine (not elsewhere)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1. Acute or chronic pulomary complications (may need to d/c drug) 2. peripheral neuropathy (more common in patients with existing conditions ex diabetes)
 3. GI SE (especially microcrystalline form)
 4. Hepatotoxicity (careful in hepatic disease)
 5. Urine discoloration (darken/brown)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Administration of tetracyclines |  | Definition 
 
        | Doxy and Mino are nearly completely absorbed Tetra ~60-80% absorbed
 
 Food and milk DECREASE absorption (esp tetra)
 Divalent cations can chelate to drug
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which tetracycline is more likely to penetrate CNS? |  | Definition 
 
        | Minocycline (>doxy>tetra) 
 more lipophilic
 
 **Readly crosses placenta/breast milk
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which tetracycline is better for a UTI? |  | Definition 
 
        | Tetracycline (60% unchanged in urine - much less with others) 
 NOTE: tetracycline doesnt have best coverage of E.coli (so must be susceptible to tetracycline to work)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Tetra: QID Doxy: BID
 Mino: BID
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Stomach upset (more common with tetra) photosensitivity
 tooth discoloration (usually in peds)
 hepatitis - rare
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Tetracyclines and preganacy |  | Definition 
 
        | Category D 
 inhibition of bone growth in fetus
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Unique uses for tetracyclines |  | Definition 
 
        | Rickettsial infections (Rocky mountain spotted fever) Lyme disease
 Acne
 Acute exacerbation of chronic bronchitis
 prevention of travellers diarrhea (doxy)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which tetracycline is usually used for prevention of travellers diarrhea? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is demeclocycline used for? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Tigecycline administration and use |  | Definition 
 
        | glycylcyclines (derivative of minocycline) 
 IV only (cant be absorbed from GI tract)
 
 intraabdominal infection and complicated SSTI
 
 ADR: N/V
 Greatest downfall-poor pseudomonas coverage (otherwise v. broad coverage)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the two major toxicities associated with amingoglycosides and are they reversible? |  | Definition 
 
        | Nephrotoxicity: reversible 
 Ototoxicity: irreversible
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How are aminoglycosides eliminated? |  | Definition 
 
        | Glomerular filtration only 
 All can be removed my hemodialysis
 **CAUTION in renal disease
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T or F: Aminoglycosides have more toxic potential the longer they are given. |  | Definition 
 
        | T: usually used for very short therapy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | bactericidal then post-antibiotic effect (extended interval dosing) 
 1. Diffuse through aqueous porin channels of the outer membrane of G- bacteria
 2. actively transported across the cytoplasmic membrane (rate limiting)
 3. bind to ribosomes and inhibit protein synthesis (irreversible)
 
 Causes: cell wall permeability/transport changes, inhibition of protein synthesis, misreading of genetic code
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 mechanisms of resistance with aminoglycosides |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. altered target site of action 2. decreased drug uptake
 3. **Plasmid-mediated production of inactivating enzymes (more important)
 
 Note: amikacin is designed to have the least likelihood of being inactivated my plasmid-mediated enzymes
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which aminoglycoside is least likely to be inactivated my plasmid-mediated enzymes? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When should the level for aminoglycoside dosing be drawn? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which type of aminoglycoside dosing takes advantage of their ability to kill in a concentration-dependent fashion |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which aminoglycoside has a dose and blood concentration that is 4 times greater than all other aminoglycosides? |  | Definition 
 
        | Amikacin - toxicities are the same at this level |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spectrum of activity of aminoglycosides |  | Definition 
 
        | All especially active against enterobactericeae Pseudomonas (tobra over gent)
 NOT active agst: N.gonorrhea, H.flu, M.cat or common atypicls
 
 G+: some activity but never DOC (always used with other drug - ex: enterococcal)
 
 NO anaerobic coverage (b/c require ATP to get across membrane)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the three notable toxicities associated with aminoglycosides |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Neuromuscular paralysis: rare and reversible (block NMJ) 2. Ototoxicity: irreversible and cumulative (auditory and vestibular)
 3. Nephrotoxicity: reversible and cumulative (dont use with other drugs that are nephrotoxic and stay hydrated)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Summary of indications of aminoglycosides |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. multi-drug resistance 2. Hospital infection
 3. multiple bug infection
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Target: DNA gyrase and Topoisomerase IV inhibit DNA replication
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which fluoroquinolones are active against Psuedomonas? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which fluoroquinolones are active against S.pneumo? |  | Definition 
 
        | All but Cipro (Levo, Moxi, Gemi) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which fluoroquinolone is active against B.fragilis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which fluoroquinolones are active against Enterococcus? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the mechanisms of resistance against fluoroquinolones? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. DNA nutations (= altered target sites) 2. Cell membrane permeability decreased
 3. Efflux pumps
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which two fluoroquinolones would be ok to use for a UTI? |  | Definition 
 
        | Cipro and Levo becuase get eliminated via kidney (partially) unchanged
 
 Also both cover PEcK
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which fluoroquinolone is metabolized hepatically |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which fluoroquinolone should NOT be used for URI? Which should be used for CAP?
 which should be used for HAP?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | Cipro - no S.pneumoniae coverage 
 CAP: Levo, Moxi, and Gemi can all be used for CAP (cover S.pneumo)
 
 HAP: levo and cipro (cover Pseudomonas)
 
 **ONLY LEVO FOR BOTH**
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are uses for fluoroquinolones (general)? |  | Definition 
 
        | UTI URI
 STD (gonorrhea)
 Bacterial Gastroenteritis (Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter)-prevent/treat travelers diarrhea
 Osteomyelitis
 SSTI (Newer agents)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ADRs with fluoroquinolones |  | Definition 
 
        | N/V/D cramps dizziness, HA, mood changes, seizures (rare)
 QT prolongation
 rhabdomylosis (tendon toxicity)
 Cartilage malformation (issue if growing)
 Hypo/Hyperglycemia (so cant plan for it if diabetic)
 Phototoxicity
 Rash
 Hepatotoxicity
 Kidney stones (mostly with older quinolones)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Quinolones are indicated for patients over ___ years old |  | Definition 
 
        | 18 (cartilage malformation risk) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Interaction between fluoroquinolones are warfarin |  | Definition 
 
        | Increases effect of warfarin |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Interaction between antacids and quinolones |  | Definition 
 
        | divalent cations - reduce absorption of antibiotic (up to 50%) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Interaction between quinolones and theophylline (and caffeine) |  | Definition 
 
        | increase theophylline concentrations |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Interaction between cipro and tizanidine |  | Definition 
 
        | Cipro increases the concentration of tizanidine (only with cipro) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Which species of Enterococci is noted for increasing resistance against Vanco? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spectrum of coverage of vancomycin |  | Definition 
 
        | most all G+ (unless resistant) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | prevents peptidoglycan cross-linking |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What would be a use for oral vancomycin |  | Definition 
 
        | Only intra-abdominal infections becuase very poor absorption |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How vancomycin eliminated? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What are the three major toxicities (ADRs) associated with vancomycin? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Renal toxicity: "Mississippi Mud" because of impurities; increased risk with other nephrotoxic drugs and high doses (less now) 2. Ototoxicity: relatively reversible
 3. "Red Man Syndrome" infusion related: itching, flushing, tachycardia, hypotension-- patient dependent and if infused to fast (**NOT true allergy)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Quinupristin/Dalfopristin 
 act synergistically
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Class and dosage form of synercid |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Bind to 50S ribosomal subunit (inhibit protein synthesis) 
 each drug component has different binding sites here
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spectrum of coverage of Synercid |  | Definition 
 
        | ALL G+ except E. faecalis (unique that it only covers faecium) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Important points about the administration of Synercid |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Incompatible to NaCl (will crystallize) -MUST use D5W
 2. Stable at room temp for ONLY 5 hours
 3. Must flush line with dextrose before and after infusion
 4. Central line infusion is recommended due to phlebitis with peripheral lines
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Hyperbilirubinemia (hepatically metabolized) Infusion-line rxns (pain, inflammation, edema)
 Arthralgias (joints)
 Myalgias (muscles)
 N/V/D
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | oxazolidinone (Synthetic) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What was linezolid originally investigated to be used for? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Inhibits protein synthesis through binging at the 50S ribosomal subunit 
 ALSO weak MAOI
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is linezolid administered? |  | Definition 
 
        | Orally (100% F) or IV 
 is NOT affected by food
 
 BID
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Approved indications for linezolid? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. VRE infections 2. Nosocomial MRSA pneumonia
 3. Complicated/Uncomplicated SSTIs
 4. CAP
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1. Peripheral neuropathy 2. HTN
 3. HA
 4. Insomnia
 5. Dizziness
 6. Fever
 7. Myelosuppression/Thrombocytopenia - get CBC if on linezolid >1 week
 8. Mood swings (remember original use)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What drugs should linezolid be used with extreme caution when given concommitantly? |  | Definition 
 
        | SSRIs MAOIs
 TCA
 
 because of increased risk of serotonin syndrome
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | cyclic lipopeptide antibiotic |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Calcium-dependent binding to cell membrane 
 lipophilic tail gets inserted into membrane, which forms channels, which cause essential electrolytes to leak (K+)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Administration of daptomycin |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spectrum of activity of daptomycin |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Indications for daptomycin |  | Definition 
 
        | Complicated SSTIs (other trials currently being studied)
 
 NOT pneumonia - increased MIC with surfactant of lungs
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1. Breakdown of muscle 2. Hepatotoxicity (rare)
 3. Injection site rxns
 4. Nausea
 5. Rash
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T or F: there are no notable drug interactions with daptomycin |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spectrum of activity for clindamycin |  | Definition 
 
        | G+: S.pyogenes, S.aureus (not ideal to use though) 
 No G-
 
 Anaerobes: B.frag, C.perfringens
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spectrum of activity of metronidazole |  | Definition 
 
        | No aerobes 
 Trichomonas, Giardia, amebiasis
 Anaerobes
 C.diff (DOC)
 Bacteriodes (DOC)
 
 GI INFECTIONS
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | prevents peptide formation by binding to 50S subunit |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | becomes a metabolite that interacts with DNA to cause breakage, leads to inhibition of protein synthesis/cell death |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Clindamycin - with or without food? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Metronidazole - with or without food? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | BIG issue with clindamycin |  | Definition 
 
        | Suppresses bacterial growth of GI - leads to opportunistic infections (C.diff) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | T or F: clindamycin is NOT the agent of choice for any infection |  | Definition 
 
        | T - only used as an alternative (2nd line) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | When is clindamycin indicated? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Alternative for Bacteriodes fragilis infections (Flagyl - DOC) 2. Alternative in allergic patients (ex: cant take Pen/Ceph for G+)
 3. Osteomyelitis: good bone penetration
 4. Use with Pen or Vanco to decrease endotoxin production
 5. Recurrent Strep pharyngitis
 6. Acne
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What is metronidazole the drug of choice for? |  | Definition 
 
        | Bacteriodes fragilis infections 
 C.diff
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Metronidazole and pregnancy |  | Definition 
 
        | Overall category B 
 Contraindicated in first trimester
 -carcinogenic/mutagenic in animals/in vitro but not proven to be in humans
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | Antabuse-like rxn with alcohol peripheral neuropathies (high doses/long-term use)
 Seizures
 Increase effectiveness of warfarin
 GI symptoms
 metallic taste (take with chocolate)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | C.diff diarrhea Allergic rxns
 Hepatotoxicity
 Bone marrow suppression (neutro/thrombopenia)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | 1. Candida 2. Cryptococcus neoformans
 3. Pneumocystis jiroveci
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | What does endemic fungi mean? |  | Definition 
 
        | Associated with a specific region (geographical) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | binds to fungal membrane sterols (ergosterol) and alters permeability of K+ and Mg2+ |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | How is amphotericin supplied |  | Definition 
 
        | IV Only - poorly absorbed |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Spectrum of Activity of Amphotericin B |  | Definition 
 
        | Very broad - all major fungi is covered 
 Yeasts: Candida, Cryptococcus
 Molds: Aspergillus, Zygomycetes
 Dimorphic: Histoplasma, Cryptococcus, Blastomyces
 |  | 
        |  |