Term
| Which healthcare providers found in the Air Forcemedical facilities are authorized to both treat and admit patients? |
|
Definition
| Military and civilian physicians, dentists, and CNM |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for notifying the inpatient unit that a routine patient is being admitted? |
|
Definition
| The physician or physician's designated representative |
|
|
Term
| What is the basic difference between a routine admission and an emergency or newborn admission? |
|
Definition
| The order in which the various procedures are carried out |
|
|
Term
| What two factors determine where the patient goes after finishing with the admissions and dispositions office? |
|
Definition
| Condition of the patientand policy of the facility |
|
|
Term
| When are patients who are not eligible for the DEERS program admitted to Air Force medical facilities? |
|
Definition
| Only under emergency circumstances |
|
|
Term
| What are two advantages of preadmissions? |
|
Definition
| Cuts down on patient waiting time and frustration |
|
|
Term
| When should you begin to assemble the inpatient record? |
|
Definition
| When the unit is first notified that a new patient is coming |
|
|
Term
| Briefly describe your responsibilities for the inpatient record when there is no UIRT assigned. |
|
Definition
| Assemble the record, ensure the patient's ID is either imprinted or written on the ID space of each form, add additional forms as needed, and make sure the chart presents a neat appearance |
|
|
Term
| What are two uses for AF Form 3066? |
|
Definition
| Transmit written orders for the patient's care and treatment to the nursing personnel and establish and maintain a drug profile on the patient |
|
|
Term
| How does the nurse indicate that the physician's orders have been carried out? |
|
Definition
| Writes "noted" to indicate that the orders have been carried out, the time, and the date; signs the column next to the physician signature |
|
|
Term
| What items should you bring to the bedside of a newly admitted patient? |
|
Definition
| Pajamas or gown, slippers, towel, washcloth, bath basin, emesis basin, water pitcher, cup, and if needed, a urine specimen cup and an IV pole |
|
|
Term
| Normally, what admission procedures are done by the admissions nurse and technician? |
|
Definition
| Nursing medical history, patient evaluation, vital signs, and height and weight |
|
|
Term
| How should you greet a patient when he or she first arrives on your unit? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where should you place the call bell? |
|
Definition
| Attach it to the bed within the patient's reach |
|
|
Term
| What should you tell the patient about fire and safety regulations during the admission process? |
|
Definition
| Explain the regulations and ensure the patient knows what to do during a drill or actual evacuation; point out the location of the emergency exits, fire extinguishers, etc. |
|
|
Term
| What aspects of the inpatient unit routines should you explain to the patient? |
|
Definition
| Anything that affects the patient, including times for meals, vital signs, AM and PM care, and lights out |
|
|
Term
| What two methods are used in inpatient units to help monitor the location of patients? |
|
Definition
| Patient status board and sign-out registers |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a patient pass? |
|
Definition
| It allows the patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually 24 and 48 hours |
|
|
Term
| Who is the approval authority for a patient pass? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is immediately notified when a patient does not return from a pass? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of convalescent leave? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name three types of patient dispositions. |
|
Definition
| Transfer, subsisting elsewhere, and discharge |
|
|
Term
| What information is included in the nurse's discharge note? |
|
Definition
| Observations of the patient's condition, any final treatments, and discharge instructions |
|
|
Term
| What Air Force instruction provides a list of forms to be assembled after a discharge of a patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the last office to be cleared by a patient when discharged? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an interservice transfer and when does one usually occur? |
|
Definition
| A transference from one service to another with no physical movement involved; it occurs when the physician determines that the patient requires some sort of specialized care |
|
|
Term
| Who approves a medical facility transfer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for the preparation of the patient's records for an aeromedical evacuation? |
|
Definition
| An aeromedical evacuation clerk |
|
|
Term
| What is the weight limit for the patient's baggage during aeromedical evacuation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How are paraplegic patients transferred during aeromedical evacutation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are nursing activities designed to do? |
|
Definition
| Resolve nursing diagnoses |
|
|
Term
| What are four steps you use when you plan nursing care? |
|
Definition
1. Set priorities
2. Establish goals
3. State objectives or outcomes
4. Select nursing activities |
|
|
Term
| How are patient problems and diagnoses prioritized? |
|
Definition
| According to the most life-threatening problem |
|
|
Term
| Briefly define a goal in terms of patient care. |
|
Definition
| A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior or condition |
|
|
Term
| Who should you consult with when you set priorities and establish goals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do objectives relate to goals? |
|
Definition
| Objectives are the day-to-day activities a patient must do to reach a goal |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if a nursing activity is unsuccessful? |
|
Definition
| Try and find out what went wrong and develop a better plan |
|
|
Term
| What are the three major goals during the preoperative period? |
|
Definition
| Prepare the patient mentally, spiritually, and physically for his or her operation |
|
|
Term
| What two emotions can interfere with the patient's response to surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What nursing intervention can help to relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery? |
|
Definition
| Good preoperative teaching |
|
|
Term
| Why is a chest x-ray taken prior to surgery? |
|
Definition
| To rule out any possible lung disease |
|
|
Term
| What are three methods of hair removal? |
|
Definition
| Shaving, clipping, depilatory |
|
|
Term
| Why is the skin washed and disinfacted prior to surgery? |
|
Definition
| It reduces the risk of infection |
|
|
Term
| What is taught to the patient to help prevent hypostatic pneumonia? |
|
Definition
| How to turn, cough, and deep breathe |
|
|
Term
| Why are nylon or wool clothing not worn to surgery? |
|
Definition
| Nylon and wool produce static electricity |
|
|
Term
| Why is fingernail polish removed prior to surgery? |
|
Definition
| To determine if the patient is being properly oxygenated |
|
|
Term
| Why is preoperative medication given to the patient? |
|
Definition
| Sedate, dry mucous secretions, reduce the patient's ability to feel pain, and reduce the tendoncy to vomit following anesthesia |
|
|
Term
| What is the aim of care provided during the immediate postoperative period? |
|
Definition
| Prevention and detection of postoperative complications |
|
|
Term
| What three possibilities should you suspect if the blood pressure of a postoperative patient begins to drop? |
|
Definition
| Loss of blood, drug affect, or shock |
|
|
Term
| List three signs of shock. |
|
Definition
| Cold, clammy, and pale skin |
|
|
Term
| How do you determine the patient's level of consciousness? |
|
Definition
| Ask the patient his or her name, date, and location |
|
|
Term
| What and who determines when the patient can be discharged from the recovery room? |
|
Definition
| When the vital signs are stable and the patient's responsiveness has returned; anesthetist |
|
|
Term
| How are patients with implanted isotopes handled in the recovery room? |
|
Definition
| They must be isolated from other patients |
|
|
Term
| List the itmes needed in the patients room prior to return from the recovery room. |
|
Definition
| Vital sign equiptment, emesis basin, waterproof bed protector, I & O sheet, vital signs record, oxygen regulator, and suction regulator |
|
|
Term
| What observation must you take upon the initial assessment of the postoperative patient? |
|
Definition
| Amount and type of IV solution infusing, patient skin temperature and color, observe the dressing for bleeding, and check any drainage bags and tubes |
|
|
Term
| How are wounds classified? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of wound is created during surgery? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of accidental wound is a cut produced by a sharp object? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of accidental wound results in loss of epidermis as the result of the skin being rubbed or scraped? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of accidental wound is caused by a stab with a pointed object? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of accidental wound is characterized by skin torn completely loose or left hanging as a flap? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of accidental wound is a pool of blood that forms beneath the skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of accidental wound is referred to as a bruise? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a good example of first intention healing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The filling in of new pink tissue in a wound |
|
|
Term
| What term is used to describe the bulling together of tissue prior to suturing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used to refer to a wound when the initial suture closure breaks open? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Give three reasons for the use of dressing over the wound. |
|
Definition
1. Protection from trauma and bacteria
2. Apply pressure
3. Patient comfort |
|
|
Term
| What direction do you wipe when cleaning a wound? |
|
Definition
| Swipe from the wound edge and then outward |
|
|
Term
| What is wound debribement? |
|
Definition
| The removal of foreign particles and mutilated or dead tissues from the wound and surrounding area |
|
|
Term
| What affect does the application of heat have on the superficial blood vessels? |
|
Definition
| Superficial blood vessels in the area become dilated or enlarged |
|
|
Term
| How often should you check on a patient receiving a heat treatment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What effect do cold temperatures have on the blood vessels? |
|
Definition
| Causes the vessels to constrict |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of shivering? |
|
Definition
| An attempt by the body to produce heat |
|
|
Term
Which would be a responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?
a. Evaluate patient
b. Obtain patient's history
c. Transcribe doctor's orders
d. Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight |
|
Definition
| d. Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight |
|
|
Term
How many pounds of baggage are allowed for the patient being aeromedically evacuated to another facility?
a. 56
b. 66
c. 76
d. 10 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient who is authorized to live outside the hospital while still receiving treatment is considered
a. on pass
b. subsisting out
c. on convalescent leave
d. discharged and an outpatient |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?
a. Planning
b. Assessing
c. Evaluating
d. Implementing |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When planning a nursing activity, what is the main goal?
a. Assist the patient in activities of daily living
b. Assist the patient to accept the doctor's prognosis
c. Help the patient to reach the highest possible level of health |
|
Definition
| c. Help the patient to reach the highest possible level of health |
|
|
Term
| Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal? |
|
Definition
| A realistic, measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior |
|
|
Term
What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?
a. Sedation
b. Back massage
c. Oxygen therapy
d. Preoperative teaching |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What action would you take when recovering a postoperative patient who is hypoxic due to respiratory depression from anesthetic agent?
a. Administer oxygen
b. Evaluate the head of the patient's bed
c. Insert an airway and give breaths |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which position is the bed placed in preparation to receive a postoperative surgical patient?
a. Low
b. High
c. Fowler's
d. Trandelenburg |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The postoperative patient is required to turn, cough, and deep breeathe every
a. hour
b. two hours
c. three hours
d. four hours |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What dressing is applied to a wound when debribement is needed?
a. Dry
b. Wet
c. Dry to wet
d. Wet to damp |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What size suture material is used to close an incicion on the bottom of the foot?
a. 2-0
b. 4-0
c. 6-0
d. 8-0 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A prolonged heat treatmentcan cause what reflex action in the human body?
a. Reflex vasoconstriction
b. Reflex vasodilation
c. Babinski's reflex
d. Haab's reflex |
|
Definition
| a. Reflex vasoconstriction |
|
|
Term
| List three factors that can result in an orthopaedic problem. |
|
Definition
| Congenital problems, infectous disease, and trauma |
|
|
Term
| What is a fracture that results from a disease called? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| List three symptoms of a fracture. |
|
Definition
Pain
Swelling
Discoloration |
|
|
Term
| Why is exercise important to the patient with arthritis? |
|
Definition
| It keeps the muscles toned and prevents contractures and deformities |
|
|
Term
| What condition is indicated if a patient complains of pain that increases with activity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What actions should you take when your patient complains of pain? |
|
Definition
| Assess the pain and report your findings to the nurse or physician |
|
|
Term
| How does inflammation affect movement of body parts? |
|
Definition
| Limits joint motion and causes fibrous tissue to form, producing fibrous or bony ankylosis |
|
|
Term
| What information should you obtain regarding joint paralysis? |
|
Definition
| Time and mode of onset, sensory disturbances, location of the paralysis, atrophic changes, and disturbances in bowel and bladder control |
|
|
Term
| What does the term crepitus mean? |
|
Definition
| Noise heard when bones are moved |
|
|
Term
| What is the first level of care provided for injuries of the joint? |
|
Definition
| Adequate transportation and splinting to prevent further damage to soft tissues by bone fragments |
|
|
Term
| What five factors determine the length of time required for a fracture to heal? |
|
Definition
| Extent of the injury, location of the fracture, the age of the patient, the size of the bone, and the circulation to the area |
|
|
Term
| Define the term reduction as related to orthopaedics. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How is closed reduction performed? |
|
Definition
| By manipulation and manual traction |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A surgical procedure to set, align, and stabilize a fracture |
|
|
Term
| What equiptment is needed to apply a plaster of paris cast? |
|
Definition
| Bucket of tepid water, large bandage scissors, stockinet or sheet wadding, felt padding, and rolls of plaster bandage of the desired width |
|
|
Term
| What skin preparation should you complete prior to applying a plaster cast? |
|
Definition
| Clean, dry, and protect the skin with stockinet or sheet wadding |
|
|
Term
| How much time is required for complete drying of a cast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you look for when you are inspecting extremities that have been casted? |
|
Definition
| Circulatory impairments and pressure on body tissues, especially over bony parts |
|
|
Term
| What type of orthopaedic patients requires special skin care? |
|
Definition
| One who is in a cast or traction |
|
|
Term
| How do you detect qn infection on a body part that is inside a cast? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should you treat the skin after the cast is removed? |
|
Definition
| Wash it gently with soap and water |
|
|
Term
| What type of traction is a skin traction used for fractures of the shaft of the humerus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of traction is a skin traction applied to the leg as a temporary treatment for fractures of the upper portion of the shaft of the femur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of traction is for cervical spine disorders? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of traction is a skin traction for treating some fractures of the shaft and neck of the femur? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a Balkan frame? |
|
Definition
| To attach various pulleys for traction devices and a trapeze bar to assist patients in helping themselves as much as possible |
|
|
Term
| What orthopaedic appliance is used after the amputation of an extremity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What orthopaedic appliances include the Stryker frame and the CircOlectric? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What orthopaedic appliances serve as legs for an indefinate period of time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What orthopaedic appliance is most often used to support and immobilize extremities during emergencies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is an amputation usually done? |
|
Definition
| Usually due to trauma or disease of the limb |
|
|
Term
| What is the nursing team's goal for the patient with an amputation? |
|
Definition
| Help the patient attain the highest possible level of independence |
|
|
Term
| Define phantom limb pain? |
|
Definition
| Mostly experienced by the patient who was experiencing pain prior to surgery. Described as coldness, cramping, shooting, burning, or crushing pain in the missing extremity |
|
|
Term
| Define phantom limb sensations. |
|
Definition
| Described as a feeling of aching, tingling, or itching in the missing limb |
|
|
Term
| What are the immediate postoperative goals for the amputee? |
|
Definition
| Prevention of hemorrhage, infection, and contractures |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The loss of sensation and/or the ability to move a part of the body |
|
|
Term
| List five causes of paralysis. |
|
Definition
| Trauma, spinal chord tumors, disease, infections, and congenital defects |
|
|
Term
| What body functioning must be monitored carefully for the first 48 hours after spinal cord injury? |
|
Definition
| Respiratory, cardiac, and gastrointestinal functioning |
|
|
Term
| Why are patients who have been placed in a skeletal traction to immobilize the spine placed on a special bed such as a Stryker Frame? |
|
Definition
| To help prevent pressure sores, cardiorespiratory complications, muscle atrophy, and urinary complications |
|
|
Term
| What are two physiological causes of a stroke? |
|
Definition
| Ischemia or Hemorrhage in the brain |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary goal during the acute stage of a stroke? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What neurological checks need to be done frequently on a stroke patient? |
|
Definition
Level of consciousness
Pupil reactions
Hand-grip strength
Foot strength
Vital signs |
|
|
Term
| List four stressors that influence the way children cope with hospitalization. |
|
Definition
Separation
Loss of control
Fear of bodily injury
Pain |
|
|
Term
| Name three phases of separation anxiety. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What ideal situation helps a child cope with separation anxiety? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What can cause a child to feel a sense of "loss of control"? |
|
Definition
Physical restrictions
Altered routines
Dependency |
|
|
Term
| What are the four signs that an infant may be experiencing pain? |
|
Definition
Open mouth
Eyes tightly closed
Flaring nostrils
Loud crying |
|
|
Term
| Which age group will most likely act very emotionally to pain? |
|
Definition
| Toddlers and preschoolers |
|
|
Term
| Which of the vital signs is taken first for pediatric patients? Why? |
|
Definition
| Respirations, because taking the pulse or temperature may disturb and irritate the infant or child causing them to cry |
|
|
Term
| How is pulse taken on children less than two years of age? |
|
Definition
| Ausculated over the apex of the heart for one minute |
|
|
Term
| Which method of temperature assessment is the easiest? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What important factor of blood pressure assessment is essential to obtaining acurate results? |
|
Definition
| An appropriately sized cuff |
|
|
Term
| How can you prevent slipping in the bath tub? |
|
Definition
| Place a towell in the bottom of the tub |
|
|
Term
| What nursing intervention can help to prevent dehydration when a child has anorexia? |
|
Definition
| Offer small amounts of flavored fluids at frequent intervals |
|
|
Term
| What are two causes of temerature elevations in children and what is the difference between the two? |
|
Definition
| Fever and Hyperthermia. Fever is a symptom of illness and hyperthermia is caused by external conditions |
|
|
Term
| What type of medication is given to reduce a fever? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When the patient has hyperthermia, what can be done to help lower the body's core temperature? |
|
Definition
| Use of commercial cooling blankets, cool applications, and tepid bath |
|
|
Term
| What is the temperature of a tepid bath? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long is a tepid bath given? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do you not want a child with temperature elevation to shiver? |
|
Definition
| Shivering is rapid muscle contractions that produce more heat |
|
|
Term
| What are three reasons for the use of restraints with pediatric patients? |
|
Definition
1. Ensure safety
2. Facilitate exams
3. Carry out procedures |
|
|
Term
| How often are restraints checked? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of restraint is used to prevent the child from reaching his or her face or head, or to prevent the child from scratching? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are five physical needs of geriatric patients? |
|
Definition
1. Personal hygiene
2. Rest and sleep
3. Elimination
4. Nutrition
5. Exercise |
|
|
Term
| What should NOT be used for a backrub on an elderly patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two benefits does the patient receive from frequent oral hygiene? |
|
Definition
1. Refreshes the patient
2. Stimulates appetite |
|
|
Term
| What are three reasons an elderly patient may have difficulty with regular bowel eliminations? |
|
Definition
1. Lack or proper exercise
2. Reduced muscle tone in the GI tract
3. Less roughage and fluids in the diet |
|
|
Term
| What is probably the greatest stimulant to the appetite of an elderly patient? |
|
Definition
| Serving an attractive meal with consideration to the patient's likes and dislikes, and catering to the patient's personal customs |
|
|
Term
| What is probably the greatest cause of fear and anxiety in an elderly patient? |
|
Definition
| Uncertainty of the future or the prognosis of a disorder |
|
|
Term
| Where do you need to place yourself when walking with a blind person? |
|
Definition
| Slightly ahead of the patient |
|
|
Term
| List five needs of the terminally ill patient. |
|
Definition
1. Spiritual
2. Psychological
3. Cultural
4. Economic
5. Physical |
|
|
Term
| How do some patients find the courage and strength to face death? |
|
Definition
| Through their religious beliefs |
|
|
Term
| What are five emotional stages of death and dying? |
|
Definition
1. Denial
2. Anger
3. Bargaining
4. Depression
5. Acceptance |
|
|
Term
A fracture that results from a disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called
a. hairline
b. pathologic
c. congenital
d. traumatic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What type of traumatic fracture does whiplash cause?
a. Spiral
b. Pathologic
c. Greenstick
d. Compression |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Avoid the semi-recumbant position for long periods of time for the orthopaedic patient because it
a. causes foot drop
b. causes venous stasis
c. causes external hip rotation
d. promotes flexion deformities of the hip |
|
Definition
| d. promotes flexion deformities of the hip |
|
|
Term
Which term is used to describe the sound that bones make as they rub together?
a. Crepitus
b. Vibration
c. Resonance
d. Itonation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which procedure or treatment is used to prevent or alleviate irritation around the edge of a cast?
a. Bivalving
b. Petaling
c. Applying hot compress
d. Applying cold compress |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a
a. phantom limb pain
b. phantom limb sensation
c. physiological phenomena
d. psychological phenomena |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?
a. Tourniquet
b. Oxygen
c. Suction
d. NG tube |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
During the acute stage of a stroke, the primary goal is to
a. sustain life
b. stop ischemia
c. maintain mobility
d. monitor vital signs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control?
a. Strictly enforced rules
b. Use of safety restraints
c. Change in daily routine
d. Established daily rituals and routines |
|
Definition
| d. Established daily rituals and routines |
|
|
Term
The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they loose their sense of control is
a. fantasy
b. projection
c. regression
d. displacement |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be
a. hypernatremia
b. hyperkalemia
c. dehydration
d. aspiration |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The amount of sleep required at night for an elderly patient is generally
a. more than for youthful patients
b. the same as required for all ages
c. less because of frequent daytime naps
d. more because of insufficient activity |
|
Definition
| c. less because of frequent daytime naps |
|
|
Term
Which is a sign of uremia?
a. Oliguria
b. Hematuria
c. Polyuria
d. Dysuria |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How can height and weight influence a person's personality? |
|
Definition
| Short or fat people may feel inferior to those around them |
|
|
Term
| What are environmental factors? |
|
Definition
| All of the outside influences and conditions that affect a person's life and development |
|
|
Term
| How do environmental factors influence personality development? |
|
Definition
| People develop personality characteristics by imitating or rebelling against people or objects in their environment |
|
|
Term
| What term is used for a state identified by feelings of gaity and well being, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used for a fixed morbid fear of an object or a situation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used for a state of indecision that arises when an individual is confronted by alternatives of action or by contradictory ideas or ideals? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term describes "pertaining to or affected with a neurosis"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used for a complex emotional state of tension or uneasiness, the cause of which is not recognized? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used for "pertaining to or caused by psychosis"? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What term is used for a false sensory perception occuring without external stimulus? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A psychotic disorder characterized by disorientation and disorganized patterns of thinking |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Partial or almost complete unconsciousness |
|
|
Term
| What type of behavior is characterized by being physically or verbally active? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of behavior is best dealt with by being consistent; assigning simple tasks that won't make the patient feel inadequate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of behavior is characterized by feeling unloved, unneeded, or unwanted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of behavior requires you to be factual, concise, and sincere with the patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of behavior is characterized by the patient usually feeling guilty, sinful, and worthless? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of behavior is characterized by fear of unknown causes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of behavior requires you to try to channel the patient's energy into safe, nonstimulating outlets? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of behavior is characterized by the patient possibly feeling suicidal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of behavior is characterized by the environment being seen as being hostile and threatening? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of behavior will false praise cause a loss of trust and increase the patient's condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How should you react to a patient who becomes verbally or physically abusive? |
|
Definition
| Set limits and enforce these limits. Let the patient see that you have the support of others |
|
|
Term
| What type of person needs security, self-esteem, recognition, love, and affection? |
|
Definition
| No particular type, everybody has these needs |
|
|
Term
| What type of need is security, self-esteem, love, and affection? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of need is a person's strong preference for a certain type of food, music, or art? |
|
Definition
| Cultural and social needs |
|
|
Term
| What type of need is the need for bathing, oral hygiene, and care of the hair and nails? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of need is a specific need determined by the severity of the patient's illness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the ABCs of observing and reporting the mentally ill patient's condition? |
|
Definition
Appearance of the patient
Behavior of the patient
Conversation with the patient |
|
|
Term
| How exact should your reports about the patient be? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the basic purposes of patient restraints? |
|
Definition
To protect the patient or others from harm
To give certain necessary treatments
To restrain the patient for traveling when necessary |
|
|
Term
| How does the frequent use of restraints reflect the quality of nursing care? |
|
Definition
| It is a general indication that the quality of care is poor |
|
|
Term
| When should restraints be removed? |
|
Definition
| When the physician feels that removal is advisable |
|
|
Term
| Why must anyone caring for a mentally ill patient be familiar with procedures used to handle physical emergencies? |
|
Definition
| Physical emergencies can occur in the mentally ill patient the same as with other patients |
|
|
Term
| What word is used to indicate that a mentally ill patient left the nursing unit without permission? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What steps should you take if you discover a mentally ill patient cannot be aroused? |
|
Definition
| Start resuscitative measures, notify the physician, and try to locate the type of drug or poison and the amount the patient took |
|
|
Term
| In most cases, why do parents abuse their children? |
|
Definition
| They have no other way to cope with the situation at hand |
|
|
Term
| Describe how you would care for an abused child who does not trust anyone. |
|
Definition
Show consistency in your care
Show acceptance and tenderness toward the child |
|
|
Term
| Describe third degree child sexual abuse. |
|
Definition
| Consists of nudity, disrobing, genital exposure, observation of the child in a state of undress, intimate kissing of a child, fondling, and pornography |
|
|
Term
| When a child discloses that he or she was sexually abused, what type of attitude should you as a medic display? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Describe the cycle of spouse abuse. |
|
Definition
Build-ip of tension stage
Abuse stage
Honeymoon stage or "loving phase" |
|
|
Term
| What type of behavior can you expect of a person who abuses his or her spouse? |
|
Definition
Abuser displays distrust, isolates from others, will not ask for help in a crisis, and does not offer anyone else help
Personality characteristics include a poor self-image, immaturity, use of drugs or alcohol to help handle difficulties, and lack of confidence in handling stressful situations |
|
|
Term
| Why is substance abuse behavior not compatible with military duty? |
|
Definition
| The military's need for continuous readiness and reliability adaptability for contigency missions is gravely threatened if personnel are unavailable or only marginally effective due to psychoactive substance abuse |
|
|
Term
| What classification of drug has the following signs and symptoms: slurred speech, flushed face, poor coordination, confusion, altered LOC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What classification of drug has the following signs and symptoms: Tachycardia, rapid breathing, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, excitement, euphoria, and anorexia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What classification of drug has the following signs and symptoms: Sluggish, lack of coordination, slurred speech, pulse and breathing slow, sleepiness? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What classification of drug has the following signs and symptoms: rapid pulse, dilated pupils, flushed face, agressiveness, tremors, patient sees and hears things? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What classification of drug has the following signs and symptoms: reduced pulse, and respiratory rate, pupil constriction, coma, diaphoresis, euphoria, sleepiness, and anxiety? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why do you never restrain a person who is drug or alcohol intoxicated in a supine position? |
|
Definition
| Due to the possibility of aspiration |
|
|
Term
| List three goals of successful rehabilitation for substance abusers. |
|
Definition
1. Accept the need for change
2. Stop the abuse
3. Attain sobriety |
|
|
Term
Moodiness, bad temper, and extreme neatness are influenced by what factor?
a. Heredity
b. Physical
c. Environment
d. Development |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?
a. Compulsion
b. Delusion
c. Anxiety
d. Conflict |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which psychiatric term defines a mood disorder identified by feelings of elation and well being, flight of ideas, and physical overactivity?
a. Neurosis
b. Mania
c. Obsession
d. Psychosis |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of
a. withdrawal
b. suspicion
c. anxiety
d. anger |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When does the rehabilitation process begin?
a. During preadmission
b. Within 12 hours of admission
c. Within 24 hours of admission
d. As soon as the patient is admitted |
|
Definition
| d. As soon as the patient is admitted |
|
|
Term
Psychotherapy usually includes all of the following treatments except
a. hypnosis
b. psychoanalysis
c. occupational therapy
d. electroconvulsive therapy |
|
Definition
| d. electroconvulsive therapy |
|
|
Term
What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse?
a. Counseling is sought
b. Tension and stress builds
c. Physical or verbal abuse occurs
d. Spouse states it will never happen again |
|
Definition
| d. Spouse states it will never happen again |
|
|
Term
Which classification of a harmful substance causes euphoria, excitement, dilated pupils, diaphoresis, tachycardia, and rapid breathing?
a. Depressant
b. Narcotic
c. Alcohol
d. Stimulant |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If a patient is being restrained, what position should he or she be in if the patient is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extremely agitated?
a. Supine
b. Prone
c. Semi-recumbant
d. High Fowler's |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A condition or state of resistance to disease |
|
|
Term
| What should be done if a patient is not sure whether or not he or she is allergic to a certain immunization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some symptoms of an allergic response? |
|
Definition
| Varying, but may include edema, redness, pain at site of injection, restlessness, anxiety, nasal congestion, wheezing, increasing dyspnea, pulmonary edema, hypotension, and peripheral vascular collapse |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| suspensions of live, weakened, or killed viruses or bacteria that retain enough antigenic properties to stimulate production of antibodies when administered to a patient |
|
|
Term
| What are the side effects of vaccines? |
|
Definition
Fever
Muscle pain
Joint pain |
|
|
Term
| What is an endoscopic examination? |
|
Definition
| Inspection of a body cavity or hollow organ by means of a lighted instrument |
|
|
Term
| Explain how to prepare a patient for sigmoidoscopy. |
|
Definition
| Bowel must be empty (cathartic, enemas, or both), position the patient, prepare equiptment, assist the physician, explain procedure to the patient |
|
|
Term
| What position should a patient be in for a palvic exam? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What procedure should be performed if a PAP test is positive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is your responsibility in the pseudofolliculitis barbae clinic? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To whom must the medical provider recommend that the patient be permitted to grow facial hair up to 1/4 inch long? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What phase of the PFB program is medical assistance no longer needed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is a clean-shaven face important to continued worldwide duty? |
|
Definition
| Ability to wear protective equipment for prolonged intervals |
|
|
Term
| What are three steps to proper shaving technique taught to the PFB patient? |
|
Definition
| Face preparation, the shave, the finish |
|
|
Term
| What virus is responsible for most warts? |
|
Definition
| Human papillomavirus (HPV) |
|
|
Term
| Before you begin testing on the OVT, what three questions must you ask the patient? |
|
Definition
1. Do you wear glasses?
2. Do you wear contact lenses?
3. Do you now have, or have you ever had , any eye problems? |
|
|
Term
| What is the Amsler's grid used for? |
|
Definition
| Central vision field test to detect abnormalities in the central 10 degrees of the field of vision |
|
|
Term
| What must you do if you suspect the examinee has memorized the test plates of the PIP? |
|
Definition
| Change the order of the plates and readminister the test |
|
|
Term
| What is near point of convergance? |
|
Definition
| A binocular test that evaluates the examinee's ability to fuse on an object as it comes in close to the eyes and uses the accomodation test rule |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| That part of space that can be seen when the head and eyes are motionless |
|
|
Term
| What are the reasons for visual field testing? |
|
Definition
1. Detection of abnormalities in peripheral visual field
2. Monitoring changes in a visual field |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of tonometry? |
|
Definition
| Measure the pressure exerted by the aqueous humor inside the anterior chambers of the eyes |
|
|
Term
| On a nonabbreviated physical examination, at what age should a patient's IOP be checked? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What two instruments are used to determine intraocular pressure? |
|
Definition
| The noncontact ("puff") and the contact applanation tonometers |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for the formal education of personnel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Noise assessment is conducted by whom? |
|
Definition
| Bioenvironmental Engineering Flight |
|
|
Term
| Who or what determines the best course of action for workers based on the results of audiometry? |
|
Definition
| The flight surgeon and Public Health personnel |
|
|
Term
| How are the different frequencies of sound expressed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the frequencies most important to the HCP? |
|
Definition
| 500, 1000, 2000, 3000, 4000, and 6000 Hz |
|
|
Term
| Give three important factors relating to sound and the human auditory system. |
|
Definition
Intensity
Duration
Distance |
|
|
Term
After questioning a patient, what should be done if the patient is still not sure whether or not he or she is allergic to an immunization?
a. A skin test
b. Immunization and observe
c. Half dose of immunization
d. Immunization and inform physi |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
After receiving a vaccine, how long may it take for immunity to develop?
a. 12 hours to 1 day
b. Days or weeks
c. weeks or months
d. 1 to 6 months |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A proctoscopy is an inspection of the
a. rectum
b. sigmoid colon
c. ascending colon
d. transverse colon |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The person who assumes the responsibility of patient education in the "shaving clinic" is the
a. nurse
b. medical provider
c. physician's assistant
d. aerospace medical service technician |
|
Definition
| d. aerospace medical service technician |
|
|
Term
What phase in the treatment of pseudofoliculitis barbae begins when inflammation has subsided and ends with complete control of the problem?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the PIP?
a. 13
b. 15
c. 24
d. 30 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many inches is the Amsler's grid chart held away from the patient?
a. 10
b. 12
c. 14
d. 16 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the unit of measurement for the near point of accomodation test?
a. Inches
b. Diopters
c. Millimeters
d. Centimeters |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is that part of space that can be seen when the head and eyes are motionless?
a. Fixation point
b. Central field
c. Visual field
d. Isopter |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is a common visual field defect?
a. Foveal
b. Anopsia
c. Depression
d. Contraction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Noise assessment is conducted by
a. BEF
b. PES
c. PH
d. MAJCOM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many years is the certification for hearing conservationists valid?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 6 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The measurement expressed in Hz refers to what principle of sound?
a. Frequency
b. Duration
c. Distance
d. Intensity |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of information do you gather at the scene sizeup? |
|
Definition
| Determine threats and the need for additional help |
|
|
Term
| What are the five aspects of scene sizeup? |
|
Definition
1. BSI
2. Scene safety
3. Need for additional resources
4. Mechanism of injury
5. Number of patients |
|
|
Term
| What personal protective equiptment does the EMT wear for protection against contacting a bloodborne pathogen? |
|
Definition
| Disposable gloves and protective eyewear or a mask |
|
|
Term
| How far out from the accident scene does the danger zone extend when there are no apparent hazards? |
|
Definition
| 50 feet in all directions |
|
|
Term
| How far out from the accident scene does the danger zone extend when there is an obvious fire? |
|
Definition
| 100 feet in all directions |
|
|
Term
| While arriving at a scene there is loud shouting and gunfire; what would you do? |
|
Definition
| Retreat to safety and call the Security Police |
|
|
Term
| What are the six parts to the initial assessment? |
|
Definition
1. General impression
2. Mental status assessment
3. Airway assessment
4. Breathing assessment
5. Circulation assessment
6. Determination of priority |
|
|
Term
| What does the acronym AVPU mean? |
|
Definition
Alert
responsive to Verbal stimuli
responsive to Painful stimuli
Unresponsive |
|
|
Term
| If you suspect a patient has a spinal cord injury, what technique would you use to open the airway? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What action do you take if the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute? |
|
Definition
| Ventilate with BVM and high flow oxygen |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in the conscious patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What pulse do you palpate if you are having difficulty locating the radial? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name seven patient situations that would require immediate transport after the initial assessment. |
|
Definition
1. Poor general impression
2. Difficulty breathing
3. Shock
4. Complicated childbirth
5. Chest pain with systolic BP less than 100
6. uncontrolled bleeding
7. Severe pain anywhere |
|
|
Term
| In performing the trauma patient's history and physical, after the initial assessment, what must you first reconsider? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What acronym is used to help you remember what to look for when conducting a physical exam, and what do the letters mean? |
|
Definition
DCAP-BTLS
Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures/penetrations, Burns, Tenderness, Lacerations, Swelling |
|
|
Term
| How often are vital signs taken on a stable patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often are vital signs taken on an unstable patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does SAMPLE assist you in remembering when you are checking a patient? |
|
Definition
Signs/symptoms
Allergies
Medications
Pertinent past history
Last oral intake
Events leading to illness or injury |
|
|
Term
| What parts of the body are inspected during a rapid trauma assessment? |
|
Definition
| Areas to the body where the greatest threats to the patient are |
|
|
Term
| What are indications of internal bleeding? |
|
Definition
| Distension and firmness of the abdomen |
|
|
Term
| If the patient has a priaprism, what should you suspect? |
|
Definition
| Possible spinal cord injury |
|
|
Term
| After the initial assessment, you determine that your patient is a medical patient, what would be your next determination? |
|
Definition
| Whether the patient is responsive or unresponsive |
|
|
Term
| If your conscious medical patient is complaining of pain, what would you need to ask when gathering the history? |
|
Definition
OPQRST
Onset
Provoke
Quality
Radiation
Severity
Time |
|
|
Term
| For the unresponsive medical patient, what should you look for to give you knowledge of the patient's medical history? |
|
Definition
| Medic alert devices or Vial of life |
|
|
Term
| Why is a detailed physical exam performed and on what type of patients? |
|
Definition
To gather additional information
Significant MOI |
|
|
Term
| When examining the scalp or cranium, what do you look for when performing the detainled physical exam? |
|
Definition
| DCAP-BTLS, bleeding, tender areas, and crepitation |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bluish discoloration behind the ears |
|
|
Term
| When exposing the patient's pupils to light you notice they remain dilated, what could this indicate? |
|
Definition
| Patient may be severely frightened, unconscious, in pain, hypoxic, or suffered brain injury, a stroke, or has taken drugs such as atropine |
|
|
Term
| What is done during the ongoing assessment and how often is it performed? |
|
Definition
Repeat initial assessment
Repeat vital signs
Repeat focused physical exam
Check interventions
Every 15 minutes for stable, oriented patients
Every 5 minutes for unstable patients |
|
|
Term
| What medical term is used to describe difficulty breathing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is recommended treatment for difficulty breathing? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What position should a patient with difficulty breathing be placed in? |
|
Definition
| Position of comfort, in most cases, sitting up |
|
|
Term
| What is unique about multi-lumen airways? |
|
Definition
| They can deliver oxygen to the lungs when placed into the trachea or the esophagus |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common symptom that indicates cardiac compromise? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What causes angina pectoris? |
|
Definition
| Chest pain caused by inadequate supply of oxygenated blood in the cardiac tissue |
|
|
Term
| How do patients describe the pain of angina pectoris? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How does the pain of an MI differ from that of angina? |
|
Definition
| MI symptoms are similar but more severe |
|
|
Term
| What causes the sudden death associated with an MI? |
|
Definition
| Arrhythmias that interfere with the heart's pumping action |
|
|
Term
| What is congestive heart failure? |
|
Definition
| Heart muscle is no longer able to pump well enough |
|
|
Term
| Describe the signs and symptoms of left-sided congestive heart failure. |
|
Definition
| Recognized by lung symptoms. Dyspnea. |
|
|
Term
| What are the four factors summarized by the AHA that increases the patient's chance of survival after MI? |
|
Definition
Early access
Early CPR
Early defibrillation
Early advanced care |
|
|
Term
| What can you do as an EMT-basic to increase the patient's chance of survival during an MI? |
|
Definition
| Early CPR and defibrillation |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of defibrillation? |
|
Definition
| Terminate ventricular fibrillation |
|
|
Term
| What are two types of automated external defibrillators? |
|
Definition
| Semiautomatic and fully automatic |
|
|
Term
| What two types of heart rythms can be shocked with the AED? |
|
Definition
Ventricular fibrillation
Ventricular tachycardia |
|
|
Term
| What two rythms are considerred unshockable? |
|
Definition
| Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) and asystole |
|
|
Term
| How many initial shocks are delivered to the patient? |
|
Definition
| A "set of three stacked shocks" |
|
|
Term
| When inserting a pacemaker, what is needed to set the pace for the heart? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is diabetes mellitus? |
|
Definition
| The pancreas does not release insulin |
|
|
Term
| What hormone is necessary for glucose to be absorbed into a cell? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are two types of diabetic emergencies the EMT may respond to? |
|
Definition
Hypoglycemia
Hyperglycemia |
|
|
Term
| What term means low blood sugar and how does it happen? |
|
Definition
| Hypoglycemia happens if the patient has not eaten enough food, has overexerted, has had an illness producing fever, or vomiting |
|
|
Term
| What term means high blood sugar and how does it happen? |
|
Definition
| Hyperglycemia happens when the patient forgets to take insulin, has not taken enough insulin, evereating, or has an infection |
|
|
Term
When there is an apparent vehicle fire, how many feet should the ambulance be parked from the vehicle?
a. 50
b. 100
c. 150
d. 200 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
For accidents involving hazardous materials, where should you park the ambulance and how far away should you remain?
a. Upwind; 2000 ft
b. Downwind; 1000 ft
c. Upwind; 1000 ft
d. Downwind; 2000 ft |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The "A" in AVPU stands for
a. able
b. alert
c. ambulatory
d. asymptomatic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide
a. high concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask
b. ventilations with a BVM and high-flow oxygen
c. high concentration oxygen |
|
Definition
| b. ventilations with a BVM and high-flow oxygen |
|
|
Term
| For what type of patient is a rapid trauma assessment performed and what is looked at? |
|
Definition
| Patient with a significant mechanism of injury; area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are |
|
|
Term
When you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, you are questioning about
a. quality
b. time
c. severity
d. radiation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about
a. onset
b. quality
c. radiation
d. provocation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A bruise behind the ears is called
a. hematoma
b. Battle's sign
c. raccoon's eyes
d. Cushing reflex |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Within how many minutes is the recommended interval for reassessment of a stable patient?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patients breathing adequately are placed in what position?
a. Prone
b. Supine
c. Comfort
d. Recumbent |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Patients suffering from a flail chest will most likely exhibit
a. paradoxical motion of chest wall
b. intercostal retractions
c. nasal flaring
d. dyspnea |
|
Definition
| a. paradoxical motion of chest wall |
|
|
Term
The all encompassing term used by EMTs to indicate any kind of problem with the heart is cardiac
a. compromise
b. emergency
c. insufficiency
d. infarction |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many shocks are recommended to be delivered after analysis of a shockable rythm byt the operation of an auto or SAED?
a. Only one shock
b. Only two shocks
c. A set of three stacked shocks
d. A set of six stacked shocks |
|
Definition
| c. A set of three stacked shocks |
|
|
Term
After a set of shocks, if the patient's pilse does not return, your next step is to
a. deliver artificial ventilations & transport
b. resume CPR & repeat cycle of shocks
c. resume CPR & intubate the patient
d. deliver another cycle of shocks |
|
Definition
| b. resume CPR and repeat cycle of shocks |
|
|
Term
Oral glucose is administered to the diabetic with an altered mental status who is able to swallow, because it
a. is high in insulin which counteracts high blood sugar
b. counteracts the effects of low blood sugar on the brain |
|
Definition
| b. counteracts the effects of low blood sugar on the brain |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| By modifying the normal metabolism of cells or by actually destroying them |
|
|
Term
| Why is it important for you to be able to recognize the signs and symptoms of poisoning? |
|
Definition
| To take appropriate corrective action quickly to save the victom's life |
|
|
Term
| What type of information is provided by poison control centers? |
|
Definition
| Information about poisons and antidotes and emergency treatment |
|
|
Term
| What are common symptoms of poisoning? |
|
Definition
| Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, dilation or constriction of the pupils, excessive salivation, sweating, difficulty breathing, cyanosis, unconsiousness, or convulsions |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of ingested poison? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Once you determine that ingested poisoning occurred, with medical direction, what do you give to the patient? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of drugs when overdosed can cause respiratory depression? |
|
Definition
| Opiates, sedatives, or barbiturates |
|
|
Term
| When should you not administer activated charcoal? |
|
Definition
| Patient is unconscious, having convulsions, or patient ingested a corrosive agent or petroleum product |
|
|
Term
| What is used to remove toxic substances from the skin? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Alcohol can have lethal effects on what major body system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the symptoms of DTs? |
|
Definition
| Sweating, trembling, anxiety, and hallucinations |
|
|
Term
| Patients who abuse injectable drugs may have what visable sign? |
|
Definition
| Soft-tissue damage such as "tracks"-these are injection sites |
|
|
Term
| What are the four possible complications from bites, stings, and irritations? |
|
Definition
| Poisons, rabies, infection, and allergic response |
|
|
Term
| What two spiders can cause serious complications? |
|
Definition
| Black widow and brown recluse |
|
|
Term
| what type of spider bite causes local tissue damage resulting in local gangrene if not treated promptly? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for a spider bite? |
|
Definition
| Apply constricting bands 2 inches above and below the site. |
|
|
Term
| What are the four species of snakes in the United States that are poisonous? |
|
Definition
| Rattlesnakes, copperheads, water moccasins, and coral snakes |
|
|
Term
| What is the biggest concern after a patient has been bitten by an insect or marine animal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of heat injury causes painful muscle spasms in the legs and is associated with dehydration and electrlyte imbalances? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most common type of heat exposure and what causes it? |
|
Definition
| Heat exhaustion; Loss of fluids and electrolytes through perspiration |
|
|
Term
| What are signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock? |
|
Definition
| Cool, clammy skin, dizzyness and weakness, pallor, nausea, headache, rapid pulse, and slightly elevated temperature |
|
|
Term
| What are signs and symptoms of heat stroke? |
|
Definition
| No longer able to sweat, hot, dry flushed skin, rapidly-rising body temperature, falling LOCs, falling pulse and BP |
|
|
Term
| If given direction to actively rewarm a patient, what would be your actions? |
|
Definition
| Application of an external heat source to the body |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between frostbite and frozen cells? |
|
Definition
Frostbite=white, waxy skin
Frozen cells=grayish yellow to grayish blue skin |
|
|
Term
| During pregnancy, hypertension and seizures are associated with what complication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is delivery of a baby determines to be imminent? |
|
Definition
| Contractions close together, cervix fully dilated, baby crowning |
|
|
Term
| During delivery, where do you place your hands on the infant's head? |
|
Definition
| Above and beneath it, exerting gentle pressure |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if you are unable to free the umbilical cord from the baby's neck? |
|
Definition
| Clamp it and cut it where it is |
|
|
Term
| When should you suction the infants airway for the first time? |
|
Definition
| As soon as the hear is clear of the vagina |
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to wrap newborns as soon as possible? |
|
Definition
| Newborns are very susceptible to the cold |
|
|
Term
| How soon is the placenta normally delivered? |
|
Definition
| Within a few minutes to 30 minutes |
|
|
Term
| What two things can be done to stimulate contraction of the uterus? |
|
Definition
| Massage the mother's abdomen (fundus) with firm, circular movement |
|
|
Term
| Why is placenta previa dangerous? |
|
Definition
| Can tear away and cause severe hemorrhage and interfere with the infant's supply of oxygenated blood. Interferes with delivery |
|
|
Term
| What are the patient's first reactions to being raped? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should the rape victom be instructed not to do prior to medical examination? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When assessing mental status using the AVPU scale, what should you not do when arousing an infant or child? |
|
Definition
| Never shake and infant or child |
|
|
Term
| Why must the EMT be careful not to hyperextend or hyperflex a child's neck? |
|
Definition
| It could close the airway |
|
|
Term
| When checking capillary refill on an infant or child, how long should it take for color to return to the extremity? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are six pediatric problems that require immediate transfer to the emergency room? |
|
Definition
1. Poor general impression
2. Unresponsive or listless
3. Airway compromise
4. Respiratory arrest or inadequate breathing
5. Shock
6. Uncontrolled bleeding |
|
|
Term
| How does the detailed physical exam performed on a child differ from an adult? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What could bulging fontanelles indicate? |
|
Definition
| Head trauma or menengitis |
|
|
Term
| When treating hypothermia for a child, what area of the body is important to cover to avoid further heat loss? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should be your primary concern when treating a pediatric patient for diarrhea and vomiting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four types of child abuse? |
|
Definition
1. Physical abuse
2. Sexual molestation
3. Emotional abuse
4. Neglect |
|
|
Term
| When responding to a call for an injured child, and you suspect abuse, what should be your actions? |
|
Definition
| Suggest the child be taken to the hospital for further examination |
|
|
Term
| What are your responsibilities when you suspect or observe child abuse? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you keep in mind during an emotional emergency? |
|
Definition
| The patient could become aggresive |
|
|
Term
| What constitutes a psychiatric emergency? |
|
Definition
| When the patient is far more out of control than a patient in an emotional emergency |
|
|
Term
| At what age are suicide rates the highest? |
|
Definition
| Ages 15 through 25 and over 40 |
|
|
Term
| What is the key element to helping diffuse a potential suicide? |
|
Definition
| The EMTs personal interaction with the patient |
|
|
Term
Activated charcoal should not be given when the patient has ingested
a. aspirin
b. poisonous plant
c. drain cleaner
d. acetominophen |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How is the contact poison phosphorus removed from the skin?
a. Dust off
b. Flush skin with tap water
c. Flush skin with sterile water
d. Flush skin with sodium chloride |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Alcohol is a drug that can have lethal effects on which nervous system?
a. central
b. peripheral
c. sympathetic
d. parasympathetic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Within how many hours does a Black Widow spider bite victim usually develop systemic reactions?
a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 48 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Passive rewarming involves
a. applying heat lamps and oxygen to the patient
b. administering heated oxygen to the patient
c. applying heat lamps to the patient
d. simply covering the patient |
|
Definition
| d. simply covering the patient |
|
|
Term
A condition in which the placenta is formed low in the uterus and close to the cervical opening preventing the normal delivery of the fetus is called
a. abrupto placentae
b. placenta previa
c. stillborn
d. toxemia |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
A patient's usual first emotional reaction to rape is
a. denial
b. disbelief
c. acceptance
d. anger and hostility |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for questioning and examining a rape patient or for notifying legal authorities?
a. Nurse
b. Physician
c. Social worker
d. Aerospace medical service journeyman |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
To open the airway of a child, you must never
a. use the jaw-thrust
b. insert an op airway
c. use the head tilt-chin lift
d. hyperextend the child's neck |
|
Definition
| d. hyperextend the child's neck |
|
|
Term
A detailed physical exam on a child is completed from
a. head to toes
b. toes to head
c. hands, feet, torso, head
d. head, torso, feet, hands |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Bulging fontanelles on an infant could indicate
a. dehydration
b. brain tumor
c. head trauma
d. fluid overload |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Your responsibilities of suspected child abuse include
a. notifying the physician
b. notifying the authorities
c. taking the child from the parents
d. ignoring your suspicians; chances are you are wrong |
|
Definition
| a. notifying the physician |
|
|
Term
| A situation in which a patient exhibits abnormal behavior within a given situation either due to extremes of emotion leading to violence or a psychological or physical condition is called... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the key to helping defuse a suicide attempt?
a. Personal interaction
b. Restraining the patient
c. Calling the police
d. Skip vital signs |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much blood loss causes the average adult, child, and infant to go into shock? |
|
Definition
Adult-1000cc
Child-500cc
Infant-100cc |
|
|
Term
| What are the distinguishing characteristics of arterial bleeding? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the most effective way to stop external hemorrhage? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What should you do if the injury continues to bleed after you apply a pressure bandage? |
|
Definition
| Apply more direct pressure and reinforce with more dressing and another wrap |
|
|
Term
| What arteries are used as pressure points after other methods have failed? |
|
Definition
| Brachial or Femoral arteries |
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages to using a constrictive device such as a blood pressure cuff over a pressure bandage? |
|
Definition
| Controlable pressure over a wide surface will not completely cut off circulation to the extremity |
|
|
Term
| When should you stop tightening a tourniquet? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the basic function of the circulatory system? |
|
Definition
| Provide a constant supply of oxygenated blood to the tissues and transport used blood to the lungs for reoxygenation |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important indicator of shock? |
|
Definition
| Decrease in blood pressure |
|
|
Term
| Why should supplemental oxygen be administered to shock victims? |
|
Definition
| To reverse the hypoxic effects of shock |
|
|
Term
| Why should you elevate the lower extremities of a shock victim? |
|
Definition
| Helps blood to pool in the upper body, around the vitalorgans and tissues |
|
|
Term
| What types of shock victims should not be placed in the supine position? |
|
Definition
| Patients with some cardiac or respiratory problems cannot breathe well in the supine position |
|
|
Term
| What is the "golden hour"? |
|
Definition
| Optimum limit of one hour between time of injury and surgery for a trauma patient |
|
|
Term
| What is the "platinum 10 minutes"? |
|
Definition
| Optimum limit of 10 minutes (excluding extrication time) at the scene |
|
|
Term
| What causes hypovolemic shock? |
|
Definition
| A loss of blood or other body fluids |
|
|
Term
| How much blood loss can the PASG/MAST compensate for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When can the PASG be removed? |
|
Definition
| When patient is in acontrolled environment and under a physicians care |
|
|
Term
| What treatment measures should not be used for patients in cardiogenic shock? |
|
Definition
| Do not place patient in normal shock position or apply PASG |
|
|
Term
| What is the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A joint injury in which the joint is partially, temporarily dislocated and some of the supporting ligaments are either stretched or torn |
|
|
Term
| Because you cannot diagnose a fracture, how do you refer to the possibility of one in the field? |
|
Definition
| PSD-Painful, Swollen, Deformed |
|
|
Term
| Why is it important to determine if the fracture is open or closed? |
|
Definition
| Because open can be more serious because of blood loss |
|
|
Term
| What are the signs and symptoms of a fracture (PSD)? |
|
Definition
| Pain, swelling, deformity, tenderness, guarding, edema and ecchymosis, crepitus, exposed fragments, and false motion |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| A disruption of a joint so that the bone ends are no longer in contact |
|
|
Term
| How does splinting reduce pain? |
|
Definition
| It prevents motion of the fracture fragments |
|
|
Term
| What should you do if there is resistance to bone alignment? |
|
Definition
| Splint in position of the deformity |
|
|
Term
| What are the three basic types of splints? |
|
Definition
| Rigid, soft, and traction |
|
|
Term
| What types of fractures are traction splints used for? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a traction splint? |
|
Definition
| Counteracts muscle spasms |
|
|
Term
| How does the conjuctiva react to injury or irritation? |
|
Definition
| Frequently becomes bright red |
|
|
Term
| Why does a small particle continue to irritate the eye even after it is removed? |
|
Definition
| Often leaves a small scratch |
|
|
Term
| What should you do with a particle that lodged on the cornea? |
|
Definition
| Do not attempt to remove it; notify the doctor and allow him/her to handle it |
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for chemical burns to the eyes? |
|
Definition
| Immediate and thorough flushing with sterile saline or water for 20 minutes |
|
|
Term
| Why should compression not be applied to an eyelid laceration? |
|
Definition
| Could cause damage to the eye |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Bleeding into the anterior chamber of the eye |
|
|
Term
| Under what circumstances would you remove contact lenses in the field? |
|
Definition
| Chemical burns to the eye |
|
|
Term
| How do you detect corneal abrasions? |
|
Definition
| Perform a flourescent eye stain |
|
|
Term
| How should you handle a laceration that extends all the way through the cheek? |
|
Definition
| Apply pressure on both sides of the cheek |
|
|
Term
| How should you handle a patient who is bleeding from the mouth and has a possible spinal cord injury? |
|
Definition
| Stabalize the spine and turn the patient to the side to allow drainage |
|
|
Term
| Why should you not attempt to remove an object that has been forced into a nose? |
|
Definition
| You may end up forcing it farther into the nose |
|
|
Term
| What are indications of facial fractures? |
|
Definition
Pain and swelling
Bite irregularity
Loose or absent teeth
Inability to talk or swallow
Increased salivation
Bleeding in the mouth
Loose bone fragments |
|
|
Term
| What type of dressings should be used on neck injuries and why? |
|
Definition
| Occlusive dressing to prevent the possibility of an embolus being sucked in through a vein |
|
|
Term
| What elements can cause burns to body tissues? |
|
Definition
| Heat, chemicals, electricity, and radiation |
|
|
Term
| Why is the mortality rate high for facial burns? |
|
Definition
| usually accompanied by injuries to the respiratory tract |
|
|
Term
| What are three ways to assess a burn victim? |
|
Definition
By agent and source
By degree
By severity |
|
|
Term
| What are signs and symptoms of a superficial burn? |
|
Definition
| Localized redness, pain, tenderness, and temperature elevation |
|
|
Term
| How can you tell if a burn is partial thickness? |
|
Definition
| Appearance of vesicles or blisters |
|
|
Term
| What is the appearance of full thickness burns? |
|
Definition
| Charred, coagulated or white and lifeless surface appearance |
|
|
Term
| What is used to determine the extent of burned surface area? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Patients under what age and over what age have the most severe reactions to burns? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A partial-thickness burn that involves less than 15% of the body surface is classified as what type of burn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A full-thickness burn that involves more than 10 percent of the body surface is classified as what type of burn? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the treatment for a partial thickness burn to the back? |
|
Definition
| Wrap with a dry sterile dressing |
|
|
Term
For an adult, how much sudden blood loss is considered serious?
a. 250 cc
b. 500 cc
c. 1000 cc
d. 1500 cc |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
How many cc of blood loss is considered serious for an infant?
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 200 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The time within which surgery must take place for a successful resuscitation from shock is called the
a. platinum 10 minutes
b. bronze half hour
c. golden ten minutes
d. golden hour |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of shock is caused by a loss of blood or other body fluids?
a. Hypovolemic
b. Cardiogenic
c. Anaphylactic
d. Neurogenic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The PASG can compensate for up to what percentage of lost blood?
a. 30
b. 40
c. 50
d. 60 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which type of shock is an internal failure of the body to control the diameter of the blood vessels?
a. Cardiogenic
b. Hypovolemic
c. Psychogenic
d. Neurogenic |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which acronym is used by EMT in the field to describe a possible fracture?
a. PSD
b. PPD
c. AVPU
d. ROM |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which classification of fracture are considered more serious because a greater blood loss is possible?
a. Open
b. Closed
c. Internal fixation
d. External fixation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
With injuries in and around a joint, make sure that the splint immobilizes the
a. injured bone only
b. bone below the injury
c. bone above the injury
d. bone above and below the injury |
|
Definition
| d. bone above and below the injury |
|
|
Term
There is a high rate of success for tooth replacement if a dentist carries out the procedure within how many minutes of the accident?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A burn is classified as moderate if it involves... |
|
Definition
| a. full-thickness burns that involve 2-10 percent of the body surface |
|
|
Term
When caring for a patient with electrical burns, your first priority is
a. to protect yourself from the electricity
b. management of the patient's airway
c. infection control policy
d. to begin CPR |
|
Definition
| a. to protect yourself from the electricity |
|
|
Term
| What type of emergency vehicles do you encounter in the Air Force emergency services? |
|
Definition
| Standard ambulances, med-evac helicopters, aircraft, bus-ambulances, and power wagons |
|
|
Term
| Where should the Star of Life be positioned on an ambulance? |
|
Definition
| On the sides, rear, and roof |
|
|
Term
| What type of permit do you need to drive an Air Force ambulance? |
|
Definition
| Current U.S. Government Motor Vehicle Operator's Identification Card (SF 46) |
|
|
Term
| When should you check your radio equipment? |
|
Definition
| At the begining of your shift and prior to each run |
|
|
Term
| What is the responsibility of a dispatcher? |
|
Definition
| Receiving and processing calls, providing medical instructions to patients, dispatching and coordinating emergency personnel, coordinating with other on-base agencies |
|
|
Term
| What is a code 3 response? |
|
Definition
| Emergency response using lights and sirens or HOT |
|
|
Term
| What type of information is considered inappropriate for transmission over the radio? |
|
Definition
| Names of the patients or personal information about them |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for completing the information in the ambulance log? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| As a minimum, how often should the crash ambulance be checked? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why should ventilation masks be transparent? |
|
Definition
| To easily monitor respirations and to easily nitice vomiting |
|
|
Term
| What types of litters should be carried in an ambulance? |
|
Definition
| Wheeled litter, folding litter, and collapsable device |
|
|
Term
| Why should equipment and supplies be checked daily? |
|
Definition
| To ensure proper function, proper quantities, cleanliness, and expiration date |
|
|
Term
| How should equipment and supplies be stored in the ambulance? |
|
Definition
| According to relative importance and frequency of use |
|
|
Term
| If you are driving an ambulance and notice it is hydroplaning, what should you do? |
|
Definition
| Gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes |
|
|
Term
| What is themaximum speed limit on the flight line, away from aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum speed limit while driving near aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During what phase of an ambulance call do you accomplish an initial scene sizeup? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the minimum number of strapsused to secure a patient to a litter or strtcher? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When should the CISD occur? |
|
Definition
| As soon as possible following the incident |
|
|
Term
| What does the term extrication mean? |
|
Definition
| Rescuing trapped patients from vehicles, buildings, tunnels, etc. |
|
|
Term
| How do we as medics prepare for aircraft mishaps or disasters? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is considered a safe zone after a hazardous material incident? |
|
Definition
| At the same level as, and upwind from the site |
|
|
Term
| What is done by the first EMT to reach a patient? |
|
Definition
| Manual in-line stabilization of the head and neck |
|
|
Term
| When using the KED, when is the head secured? |
|
Definition
| Torso first and head last |
|
|
Term
| Under what circumstances should a one-rescuer carry be used? |
|
Definition
| When there is a life-threatening hazard and no help available |
|
|
Term
| How does the blanket in the blanket drag technique help with moving patient? |
|
Definition
| Reduces friction and helps protect the patient's head, neck, and extremities |
|
|
Term
| When should a side-crutch support be used? |
|
Definition
| Patient is capable of suppporting som of hir or her own weight |
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of a two-rescuer carry? |
|
Definition
| Additional support and protection for the patient and the technicians |
|
|
Term
| Which rescuer is normally in charge in performing extremity lift or other lifts? |
|
Definition
| The rescuer at the patient's head |
|
|
Term
| What is a disadvantage of the scoop stretcher? |
|
Definition
| It pinches the patient as the sides come together |
|
|
Term
| In a four-level triage system, what color is used to indicate priority 1 patients? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of patient is considered priority 2? |
|
Definition
| Serious but not life-threatening illness or injuries |
|
|
Term
| The "walking wounded" is given what priority code? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who at the triage scene classifies victims and directs activities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary rule of triage? |
|
Definition
| To do the greatest good for the greatest number of victims |
|
|
Term
| What is the second rule of triage? |
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Definition
| Preservation of life takes precedence over preservation of limb |
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Term
| What are the four patient classifications under the military triage system? |
|
Definition
| Minimal, immidiate, delayed, and expectant |
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Term
| During peacetime triage rules, who is treated first? |
|
Definition
| The most seriously wounded |
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Term
| During wartime triage who is treated frst? |
|
Definition
| Minimal, to allow them to return to duty in the shortest possible time |
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Term
| What is used to document evaluation and treatment of wartime casualties? |
|
Definition
| DD Form 1380, U.S. Field Medical Card |
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|
Term
| What type of transportation is preferred for transporting patients between different echelons of care? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the second echelon located? |
|
Definition
| First level wherethe casualty encounters medical personnel |
|
|
Term
| Which is the first echelon staffed and equipped to provide surgical care? |
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Definition
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|
Term
What regulations govern the number, type, colors, and locations of the rotating beacons and warning lights on the ambulance?
a. DOD
b. National
c. Air Force
d. State and local |
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Definition
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Term
Which emergency response refers to an emergency with lights and sirens?
a. Code 1;cold
b. Code 2;cold
c. Code 3;hot
d. Code 4;hot |
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Definition
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Term
How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?
a. 100 mm Hg
b. 150 mm Hg
c. 200 mm Hg
d. 300 mm Hg |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
At what speed (mph) does hydroplaning occur?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which is the correct order for applying a short spine immobilization device?
1)Secure device to torso
2)Secure head to device
3)Position device behind patient
4)Evaluate torso fixation/pad behind neck |
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Definition
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|
Term
Which device is commonly used for patient tranfers in wartime and disaster situations?
a. Army field litter
b. Stoke's basket
c. Long backboard
d. Scoop stretcher |
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Definition
|
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Term
Mass casualty victims are categorized according to
a. type of injury
b. probability of recovery
c. amount of attention needed
d. priority for treatment and transportation |
|
Definition
| d. priority for treatment and transportation |
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|
Term
Using the civilian four-level triage system, a patient with complicated burns is classified as priority
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4 |
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Definition
|
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Term
How are patients classified under the military triage system?
a. Immediate and delayed
b. Minimal, immediate, delayed, expectant
c. Highest priority, second priority, lowest priority |
|
Definition
| b. Minimal, immediate, delayed, expectant |
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|
Term
Under the military triage system a patient with extensive burns is classified as
a. delayed
b. minimal
c. expectant
d. immediate |
|
Definition
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|
Term
What is used to document patient evaluation and treatment in wartime situations?
a. US Field Medical Card
b. USAF Medical Card
c. Outpatient record
d. Inpatient record |
|
Definition
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