Term
| Where is the repository for all mishap investigation reports? |
|
Definition
| The Air Force Safety Center |
|
|
Term
| What are the four specific disciplines in the USAF safety program? |
|
Definition
Flight safety
Weapons safety
Ground safety
System safety |
|
|
Term
| At the local level, who is responsible for implementing safe practices to prevent mishaps? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are annual physical examinations and routine medical care designed to do for aircrew members? |
|
Definition
| Monitor and maintain the health of the crew |
|
|
Term
| What general topics should be discussed periodically during the unit flying safety briefing? |
|
Definition
Self-medication
Environmental stresses
Cardiovascular risk factors
Self-imposed stresses |
|
|
Term
| What major command is responsible for missle operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four primary hazards associated with a missle launch facility? |
|
Definition
Tripping
Falling
Confined spaces
Noise |
|
|
Term
| What are the causes of most personnel issues within a missle alert facility? |
|
Definition
| Extended duty rotations, boredom, fatigue, and interpersonal problems |
|
|
Term
| How does the categorize mishaps? |
|
Definition
| By the environment in which they occur |
|
|
Term
| Concerning aircraft mishaps, when does an "intent for flight" condition exist? |
|
Definition
Fixed wing-from start of takeoff roll until landing complete
Rotary wing-from start of power application to break ground contact until controlled ground contact is reestablished |
|
|
Term
| Which class of mishap exists when reportable damage to an aircraft is $1,000,000 or more? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of event is deemed important enough to trend for mishap prevention, despite the fact that they do not meet other mishap class reporting criteria? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The crash ambulance must approach an accident site from which direction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What procedure is used to classify the type and severity of an injury? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the four triage categories? |
|
Definition
Minimal
Expectant
Delayed
Immediate |
|
|
Term
| Which triage category has the highest priority? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the advantages of establishing a casualty holding area? |
|
Definition
| Simplifies transportation and permits more effective use of supplies and skills of medical personnel |
|
|
Term
| When may the ambulance leave an accident site? |
|
Definition
| Until the fire chief declares the area safe and all rescue and recovery personnel have left the area |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the 72-hour activities report? |
|
Definition
| To determine the presence of adverse physiological factors in the crewmembers and whether they meet medical qualifications to perform flying duties |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for the search and recovery of human remains at an accident site? |
|
Definition
| The mortuary affairs officer |
|
|
Term
| Why must you avoid using alcohol-based solutions during autopsies? |
|
Definition
| Alcohol can contaminate the sample and cause false levels of alcohol in the deseased |
|
|
Term
| When an off-base accident occurs, who has the authority to release the remains for transportation to the medical treatment facility (MTF)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why does the Air Force investigate mishaps? |
|
Definition
| To determine the cause and recommend changes to prevent the recurrance of a similar mishap or injury |
|
|
Term
| What form is used to document all physiological episodes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Define the term Class E Physiological event |
|
Definition
| Any physiological episode that could potentially affect the physical or mental capabilities of any of the primary aircrew to safely perform the mission |
|
|
Term
One reason the flight surgeon conducts mishap investigations is to
a. appropriately administer nonjudicial punishment
b. calculate total dollars losr
c. prevent future mishaps
d. assess blame |
|
Definition
| c. prevent future mishaps |
|
|
Term
| Specifically, who makes the final determination on return to flying status when aircrew members are treated in other clinics or medical specialties? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Flight surgeons review all mishps reports and summaries to... |
|
Definition
| identify human factor elements pertinent to the flying mission. |
|
|
Term
What major command is responsible for intercontinental ballistic missle (ICBM) operations?
a. Space Command
b. Systems Command
c. Air Combat Command
d. Special Operations Command |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of the following is a unique characteristic of the solid propellant used in most missle systems? |
|
Definition
| Once ignited, it cannot be extinguished |
|
|
Term
Record mishaps as aircraft flight mishaps when
a. the pilot declares it
b. they occur off the ground only
c. they occur on the taxi-way
d. there is an intent for flight |
|
Definition
| d. there is an intent for flight |
|
|
Term
What class of mishap results in reportable damage of $1,000,000 or more?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The four triage categories are
a. priority, urgent, delayed, and expectant
b. urgent, immediate, delayed, and minimal
c. priority, immediate, minimal, and expectant
d. minimal, immediate, delayed, and expectant |
|
Definition
| d. minimal, immediate, delayed, and expectant |
|
|
Term
What is the triage category for a patient with partial thickness burns of less than 15 percent of the body?
a. Immediate
b. Expectant
c. Minimal
d. Delayed |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Who must give permission to remove tha fatalities following an off-base accident that involves a military aircraft?
a. Local hospital
b. Local civilian officials
c. Flight surgeon
d. Base commander |
|
Definition
| b. Local civilian officials |
|
|
Term
At a crash site, if there is a possible hazard from life support equipment, what agency should be notified?
a. Security Forces
b. Fire department
c. Flight surgeon's office
d. Explosive ordinance disposal |
|
Definition
| d. Explosive ordinance disposal |
|
|
Term
| You must report any episode that produces abnormal physical, mental or behavioral symptoms that are noticed by individual crewmembers or by others during or after the flight, as what type of physiological event? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Class E Physiological events are reported by message using the format found is
a. AFI 91-202, The USAF Mishap Prevention Program
b. AFI 91-204, Safety Investigations and Reports
c. AFI 91-205, Nonnuclear Munitions Safety Board |
|
Definition
| b. AFI 91-204, Safety Investigations and Reports |
|
|
Term
| What are the objectives for assisting with flightline related activities? |
|
Definition
Promote flying safety
Provide medical indoctrination
Perform facility inspections |
|
|
Term
| What five specefic areas are you required to visit and evaluate while performing facility inspections? |
|
Definition
1. Squadron/alert facilities
2. Air traffic control facilities
3. Life support sections
4. Flightline
5. Missle launch facilities |
|
|
Term
| Regarding flying personnel, what four things should aerospace personnel be on alert for and continually try to improve? |
|
Definition
1. Health
2. Morale
3. Safety
4. Flying efficiency of aircrew members |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for initiating an AF Form 1042? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are five situations that require the preparation of an AF Form 1042? |
|
Definition
1. DNIF
2. Return to flying status
3. Initial or periodic physical exam
4. Incoming clearance
5. Post aircraft mishap evaluation |
|
|
Term
| Where are copies of the AF Form 1042 distributed for local personnel? |
|
Definition
Original in health record
One copy to HOSM office
One copy to person's squadron operations section |
|
|
Term
| When flying personnel who are away from their home station are found to have a serious medical condition, what should the treating flight surgeon do? |
|
Definition
| Notify the home base flight surgeon by telephone |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the AF Form 1041? |
|
Definition
Record medical disqualification or disqualification actions
Monitor the status of disqualified flying and special operational personnel
Provide MAJCOMs with statistical data |
|
|
Term
| When is a new AF Form 1041 prepared? |
|
Definition
| On the first day of each month |
|
|
Term
| How long are you required to keep AF Form 1041 on file? |
|
Definition
| 2 years-current year plus one |
|
|
Term
| List the five aspects of a productive SCL program. |
|
Definition
1. Training
2. Early identification of personnel wearing contacts
3. An accurate tracking database
4. Documentation
5. Initial and routine evaluations |
|
|
Term
| Which office briefs Aircrew members regarding the USAF SCL program? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which office maintains an updated list of approved SCLs and solutions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the primary reference for everyday Air Force writing? |
|
Definition
| AFH 37-137, The Tongue and Quill |
|
|
Term
| Describe the guidelines for using letterhead paper in correspondence. |
|
Definition
| Use letterhead for official correspondence only. For correspondence outside the unit. |
|
|
Term
| How do you correct a medical record if you make a mistake filling in a block? |
|
Definition
| Draw a single line through the mistake and initial it. Write in the correct information |
|
|
Term
| Describe the difference between policies and procedures. |
|
Definition
Policies provide guidance and bounderies for making decisions
Procedures provide the "how to" of a task |
|
|
Term
| Define the term information. |
|
Definition
| Any statement or reception of knowledge |
|
|
Term
| List three ways to store data. |
|
Definition
1. Floppy disk drive
2. Hard disk drive
3. CD-ROM drive |
|
|
Term
| The overall purpose of flightline visits from the flight surgeon is to... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The overall purpose of flightline visits from the flight surgeon is to... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
In addition to providing flyers with medical care, which is also provided by the flight surgeon and 4N0?
a. Medical indoctrination
b. Medical equipment training
c. Oxygen mask fitting
d. Aircrew efficiency monitoring |
|
Definition
| a. Medical indoctrination |
|
|
Term
Which includes rated officers only?
a. Air traffic controllers, flight surgeons, and pilots
b. Pilots, missle launch officers, and astronauts
c. Weapons controllers, pilots, and navigators
d. Navigators, pilots, and flight surgeons |
|
Definition
| d. Navigators, pilots, and flight surgeons |
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for completing an AF Form 1042?
a. The flight surgeon only
b. Any flight surgeon or 4F0X1
c. Any licensed physician treating a flyer
d. Any individualwho discovers a medical defect |
|
Definition
| a. The flight surgeon only |
|
|
Term
What do you do with the original AF Form 1042 after it's completed?
a. Place it in a permanent office file
b. File it in the individual's health record
c. Send it to the local flight management office |
|
Definition
| b. File it in the individual's health record |
|
|
Term
For transient personnel, how many copies of the AF Form 1042 are sent with the original to an individual's home base flight surgeon's office?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
When must you start a new AF Form 1041?
a. First day of every month
b. Fifteenth day of every month
c. First day of every other month
d. Fifteenth day of every other month |
|
Definition
| a. First day of every month |
|
|
Term
Administration of the soft contact lenses (SCL) program is the responsibility of the
a. Optometry clinic
b. Family practice clinic
c. Flight surgeons office
d. Force health protection office |
|
Definition
| c. Flight surgeons office |
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for training aircrew members on the emergency removal of soft contact lenses (SCL)?
a. Optometry Clinic
b. Family Practice Clinic
c. Flight Surgeons Office
d. Force Health Protection Office |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The primary reference for everyday Air Force writing is
a. AFH 37-137, The Tongue and Quill
b. AFI36-2306, The Education Services Program
c. AFP 36-2241, Promotion Fitness Examination
d. AFMAN 36-2234, Instructional System Development |
|
Definition
| a. AFH 37-137, The Tongue and Quill |
|
|
Term
What type of paper is used for intra-departmental memos and letters?
a. Letterhead
b. Plain bond paper
c. Lined bond paper
d. Legal note paper |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do you do if you make a mistake while documenting information on a patient record? |
|
Definition
| Draw a single line through the error, make the correction, and initial the error |
|
|
Term
What is the primary device used to store information on a computer?
a. Floppy disk drive
b. Hard disk drive
c. Zip drive
d. Compact disk read only memory |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What program emphasizes information protection precepts and promotes consistent application of security principles in the use of Air Force information systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What administrative tool identifies each and eveyrecord series maintained for an office of record, regardless or the record's location? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of medical standards and physical examinations? |
|
Definition
| To ensure aquisition and retention of members who are medically acceptable for military life |
|
|
Term
| In what written publication would you find the different types of medical examinations and their scope and frequency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| During an examination, what dictates the depth of the evaluation of the body system? |
|
Definition
| The type or class of the medical examination |
|
|
Term
| Accession physicals are governed by what policy? |
|
Definition
| Respective DODMERB or MEPS policy |
|
|
Term
| What are medical standards for flying duty designed to do? |
|
Definition
| Avoid compromise of flying safety, mission complettion, or the member's well being |
|
|
Term
| When is a person on an assignment limitation code-C re-evaluated? |
|
Definition
| At intervals determined by HQ AFPC |
|
|
Term
| How often are 4T profiles reviewed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the AF Form 422? |
|
Definition
| Communicate information to nonmedical authorities in layman terms on the general physical condition or specific duty limitations of military members |
|
|
Term
| What profile grade is an upper back injury causing moderate functional interference, yet capable of strong effort for short periods? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What profile grade is a slightly limited mobility of joints which do not prevent moderate marching? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What profile grade is it when range of movement of the lumbar vertebrae is severely compromised? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What profile grade is it when vision is correctable to 20/40 in one eye and 20/70 in the other? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What profile grade is infectious disease, diabetes, and seizure disorder? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What profile grade is 20/100 vision correctable to 20/20 in each eye? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What profile grade is free of any identified organic defect? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What profile grade is able to do hand-to-hand fighting? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the absence of a suffix on a profile indicate? |
|
Definition
| That the profile is permanent |
|
|
Term
| List the three categories of the assignment availability roster. |
|
Definition
1. 31-all 4 profiles
2. 37-MEB/PEB actions
3. 81-pregnancies |
|
|
Term
| When utilizing the Army's DA Form 3349, Physical Profile Serial, what must a 3 profile grade be converted to? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the basis of military medicine? |
|
Definition
| The requirement to maintain a physically fit force |
|
|
Term
| What is the first step in the Air Force disability evaluation process to determine who is not worldwide qualified? |
|
Definition
| The Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) |
|
|
Term
| Who appoints the Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) members? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a Physical Evaluation Board? |
|
Definition
| A fact-finding body that investigates the nature, origin, degree of impairment, and probable permanence of the physical or mental defect or condition of any member whose case it evaluates. |
|
|
Term
| What are the duties of the PEB liaison officer (PEBLO)? |
|
Definition
| To make sure each case is complete, accurate, and fully documented |
|
|
Term
| List the possible dispositions of the Review-in-lieu of MEB process. |
|
Definition
| Return to Duty (with or without assignment code C), direct an MEB, direct an MEB at another MTF, returned without Action (reason will be specified), or continued Military Medical Observation and Care |
|
|
Term
| How does the use of the Air Force TDRL protect the government and the member? |
|
Definition
| Protects the government from permanently retiring a member who may partially or fully recover at a later date and protects the member from being permanently retired at a level of impairment that may worsen in the near future. |
|
|
Term
| What is the general intent of a health record review? |
|
Definition
| To identify and prevent illness and injury to maintain a healthy work environment |
|
|
Term
| What specific task requires you to review AFM 36-21-8, Airman Classification? |
|
Definition
| Processing retraining requests and special duty applications |
|
|
Term
| Why do you review the medical record of an active duty member when they are discharged from the hospital? |
|
Definition
| To ensure proper profiling and administrative disposition of the member |
|
|
Term
| Who is required to meet security clearance and Personnel Reliability Program requirements for their position? |
|
Definition
| All personnel directly involved with the maintenance or operations of nuclear weapons |
|
|
Term
| Briefly explain the term potentially disqualifying information (PDI). |
|
Definition
| Any information regarding, but not limited to, a person's physical, mental, or emotional status, on and off duty, which may cast doubt on his or her ability to perform nuclear weapons related duties. |
|
|
Term
| What actions must the flight surgeon take when potentially disqualifying information (PDI) is uncovered on an individual during a Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) certification screening? |
|
Definition
| The flight surgeon considers all PDI uncovered and continuously monitors the person's behavior to detect signs of unreliable performance before any compromise can occur. |
|
|
Term
| For waiver consideration on an initial flight or special operational duty physical, what dictates which category of standards applies and where the waiver authority lies? |
|
Definition
| The purpose of the examination |
|
|
Term
| Which form is used to establish and maintain a medical waiver suspense file of all personnel who are on a medical waiver for flying duty? |
|
Definition
| AF Form 1485, Flight Medicine Follow-Up Suspense Card |
|
|
Term
| Who is the waiver/certification authority for all initial waivers in cases previously certified medically disqualified by MAJCOM on rated members? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| To where is the waiver/certification authority reverted when a local flight surgeon is not a 48G4/3 or a 48A4X? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is the waiver/certification authority for any controversial waiver that in the opinion of the MAJCOM warrants a higher decision? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is the waiver/certification authority that forwards a copy of disqualified cases on rated members to HQ AFMOA? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is the waiver/certification authority that provides information to the Centralized Flying Waiver Repository? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is the waiver/certification authority that uses only a specifically identified tenant 48G4 flight surgeon? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is the ultimate waiver authority? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is the waiver/certification authority that consists of all general officers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What action must occur when a member on a medical waiver moves (PCSs) from one MAJCOM to another? |
|
Definition
| The member's medical waiver must follow |
|
|
Term
| When a member on a medical waiver has a permanent change of station (PCS), how long does the losing MAJCOM have to transfer the active waiver case file to the gaining MAJCOM? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The medical standards, the frequency, scope and instructions for completing required physical examinations properly are specified in
a. AFI 48-123
b. AFI 48-133
c. AFM 36-2108
d. AFPAM 48-133 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The foemat and procedures for conducting and recording a physical examination are found in
a. AFI 44-157
b. AFI 48-123
c. AFM 36-2108
d. AFPAM 48-133 |
|
Definition
| d. AFPAM 48-133, Physical examination techniques |
|
|
Term
| The purpose of the AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial Report is to... |
|
Definition
| communicate information to nonmedical authorities in layman terms |
|
|
Term
For members possessing 4T profiles, the AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial Report, must be reviewed every
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
d. 45 days |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Including the "X" factor, how many human function factors are considered in the physical profile serial?
a. Seven
b. Six
c. Five
d. Three |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the main consideration (function of the body part) under the physical profile factor "E"?
a. Near vision only
b. Organic eye disease
c. Distant visual acuity only
d. Distant and near visual acuity |
|
Definition
| c. Distant visual acuity only |
|
|
Term
A strength aptitude test (SAT) is rated in profile factor
a. P
b. U
c. L
d. X |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which organization authorizes an L suffix on AF Form 422, Physical Profile Serial Report?
a. Local MEB
b. MAJCOM
c. HQ USAF
d. HQ AFPC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When you use the Department of the Army (DA) Form 3349, Physical Profile Serial, in lieu of the AF Form 422, what must be done to the Army 3 profile grade to identify an Air Force member as not compatible with worldwide assignment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Which of the following is the first step in the Air Force disability evaluation process to determine members who are not worldwide qualified?
a. PEB
b. MEB
c. IPEB
d. SAFPC |
|
Definition
| b. Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) |
|
|
Term
Record review in lieu of board processing is accomplished when
a. the MEB is convened for the MTF CC
b. the MTF has only 2 qualified board members
c. a defect is discovered as an incidental finding and the evaluee seems qualified for service |
|
Definition
| c. a defect is discovered as an incidental finding and the evaluee seems qualified for military service |
|
|
Term
The body responsible for determining if a member's physical defect or condition renders the member unfit for duty is the
a. PRC
b. PEB
c. MAT
d. MEB |
|
Definition
| b. Physical Evaluation Board (PEB) |
|
|
Term
| Who has the authority to retire or separate members who are found physically unfit to perform the duties of their office or grade? |
|
Definition
| The Secretary of the Air Force or a designated special assistant only |
|
|
Term
Which of the following is not a Physical Evaluation Board (PEB) recommended disposition?
a. Return to Duty
b. Permanent Retirement
c. Discharge with Severence Pay
d. Forward to a Medical Evaluation Board |
|
Definition
| d. Forward to a Medical Evaluation Board |
|
|
Term
Members may be retained on the temporary disability retired list (TDRL) for no more than
a. 12 months
b. 18 months
c. 3 years
d. 5 years |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
The physical, psychological and educational qualifications all members must meet for each AFSC can be found in
a. AFI 44-113
b. AFI 48-123
c. AFM 36-2108
d. AFPAM 48-133 |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
Individuals applying for PRP status must meet the medical requirements specified in
a. AFI 31-501
b. AFI 36-2104
c. AFI 48-123
d. AFI 91-103 |
|
Definition
| b. AFI36-2104, Nuclear Weapons Personal Reliability Program |
|
|
Term
Potentially disqualifying information (PDI) is any information regarding, but not limited to a person's
a. physical status only
b. physical and mental status
c. physical and emotional status
d. physical, mental, and emotional status |
|
Definition
| d. physical, mental, and emotional status |
|
|
Term
Who is responsible for reporting potentially disqualifying information to the commander of a TDY individual on PRP?
a. The flight surgeon
b. The TDY commander
c. The TDY first sergeant
d. The mental health physician |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What action is taken when a disqualifying defect is found during a flying class I physical examination? |
|
Definition
| Complete the exam regardless of the defect and send it to the appropriate certifying authority |
|
|
Term
The ultimate waiver authority for all medical waivers is
a. HQ ARC/SG
b. HQ USAF/SG
c. MAJCOM/SG
d. HQ AFMOA/SGOA |
|
Definition
|
|
