No (1)

The published cessation time of a Restricted or Danger Area or Class C CTR may be amended by voice without the issue of a NOTAM provided the new cessation time is less than one hour prior to the original published cessation time.

Yes (1)

When less than 30 minutes notice is provided, any early deactivation of a Restricted Area or Class C CTR must be agreed to by the accepting authority.

a) Do not issue instructions that contradict those issued by the RA (1); and

b) Acknowledge the report by using the phrase “(callsign) ROGER” (1)

Resume responsibility for separation after:

a) a separation standard is re-established (1); and b) the responding aircraft has:

i) returned to its assigned level (1) and the pilot advises that the ACAS manoeuvre is completed; (1) or

ii) executed an alternate clearance.

The ATS Officer first becoming aware (1)

of an aircraft operating in other than normal circumstances (1), and

there is doubt concerning the aircraft's safety (1), is responsible for declaration of the phase appropriate to the emergency situation.

What Emergency Phase, if any, should be declared in the following scenarios? Explain the reason for your answer.

a. QFA801, an arriving B738 deviates from their cleared route to avoid hazardous weather into R666, a restricted area active for naval firing. (2 marks)

What Emergency Phase, if any, should be declared in the following scenarios? Explain the reason for your answer.

b. You have accepted radar handoff from Centre on QFA793 and five minutes later, having conducted initial communications checks, there is no contact with the pilot (include in answer by what time this phase should be declared). (2 marks)

Declare an INCERFA (1) when a pilot fails to report after an ATS directed frequency change at an appropriate time and

no later than 15 minutes after the call is due. (1)

What Emergency Phase, if any, should be declared in the following scenarios? Explain the reason for your answer.

c. DNGO50, an arriving B350, has reported a hydraulic failure. The pilot reports the controls have become slow to respond however the pilot remains in control of the aircraft. (2 marks)

What Emergency Phase, if any, should be declared in the following scenarios? Explain the reason for your answer.

d. QLK757, a DH8B, is inbound to your airfield and begins to squawk 7500. The aircraft begins to accelerate and descend rapidly. You try to contact QLK757 without response. (2 marks)

What Emergency Phase, if any, should be declared in the following scenarios? Explain the reason for your answer.

e. TROJ37, a C130 on a low level NAVEX, has recorded a NOCOM time of 0720Z for cancellation on your frequency. It is now 0750Z and, having previously declared an ALERFA, you have completed wide-spread communication checks without success. CO 37SQN has been informed.

What Emergency Phase, if any, should be declared in the following scenarios? Explain the reason for your answer.

a. You receive a phone call from Mrs Fisher who is concerned because Mr Fisher has not yet returned from his Saturday flight in their ultra-light and he is normally home by now. Mr Fisher has not filed a flight plan. (2 marks)

What Emergency Phase, if any, should be declared in the following scenarios? Explain the reason for your answer.

b. BYK, a VFR C210 cleared direct to your airfield, is deviating from the cleared track and appears to be having difficulty maintaining the assigned altitude. The pilot advises they are ‘OPS NORMAL’ however sounds uncertain and flustered. (2 marks)

If fuel is dumped in an emergency, or fuel must be dumped without adequate warning or delay:

a. make every effort to keep other aircraft clear of the vapour zone (1);

b. note the area where the fuel was dumped (1);

c. record the weather conditions (1); and

d) report the incident to the appropriate authority without delay.

"Points to remember are:

a. positive identification (1);

b. check fuel reserves (1);

c. check of nearest available aerodrome (1);

d. instil confidence in the pilot (1);

e. keep instructions simple (1); and

f. avoid transponder code changes as they can lead to disorientation.

When deviation into active restricted areas is unavoidable:

a. upon entry, advise the pilot that they are no longer operating under a clearance (1) and are proceeding at their own risk (1)

b. terminate control services (1)

c. continue to provide Flight Information and Alerting services; and

d) declare an Alert Phase.

"Maintain SARWATCH via:

a. continuous visual (1) or surveillance (1) monitoring, or

b. a time nominated by ATS or a pilot (1) which may include:

1. an estimate (1)

2. a NOCOM time (1)

3. a time to report, (1) such as SKED or an operations normal time

When coordinating formation or in-company flights, include the type of formation (1) and dimensions if appropriate (1).

For tactical formations or in-company flights, include the disposition of group members in the coordination. (1)

Issue traffic avoidance advice, prefixed by the phrase 'AVOIDING ACTION' (1), to an aircraft that:

a. is receiving an ATS surveillance service (1); and

b. in your judgement, is in a situation that places it at risk of a collision with another aircraft under surveillance.

To assist the pilot in identifying the other aircraft, include relevant information from the following:

a) aircraft identification;

b) type, and description if unfamiliar;

c) position information;

d) estimated time of passing or closest point of approach;

e) direction of flight or route of aircraft;

f) level;

g) intentions of the pilot, such as:

i) initial departure track and intended cruising level; and

ii) inbound track or direction, level and next estimate; and

h) advice that an aircraft is not yet on the appropriate frequency.

Provide position information by:

a. clock reference; (1)

b. bearing and distance; (1)

c. relation to a geographical point; (1)

d. reported position and estimate; (1) or

e. position in the circuit (1)."

Identify what, if any, elements are missing from the following airways clearances. (4 marks)

a. “QFA300 cleared via ALBEE FPR, FL350, ALBEE 2 departure, squawk 1234”

b. “DAGR05 cleared Low Flying Area not above A030V VSD squawk 4321”

c. “STAL15 cleared WASOE direct A040 VSD”

d. TIGR56 cleared to Jimmy’s Bridge via position FE060032, low level, squawk 3131”

destination (1)

route of flight (1)

nil (1)

assigned level (1)

The clearance, and its amendments during the flight only apply:

a) to the first point at which the aircraft leaves controlled airspace;

b) to the first landing point if the flight is wholly within controlled airspace;

c) to the clearance limit if issued;

d) until the expiration of a clearance void time; or

e) until cancelled by a controller.

A description of a holding path to be flown at a clearance limit is not required when:

a. the holding fix is published in aeronautical documents; (1) or

b. it has been imposed temporarily, and it is expected that the requirement to hold will have lapsed before the aircraft arrives at the designated holding fix (1).

Which of the following instructions to aircraft are not designated readback requirements for pilots to ATC? (2 marks)
a. TACAN CH77
b. maintain A030
c. contact TWR 132.8
d. MAPL10, QNH 1017
e. all stations, qnh 1017
f. cleared visual approach
g. turn right heading 210
h. make left turn
i. reach A030 by 10 DME
j. fly heading 320
k. expect RWY 28
l. squawk 2314
m. cleared RWY 17 ILS approach
n. resume normal speed
o. TACAN CH84

e. all stations, QNH 1017 (1)

k. expect RWY 28 (1)

STKR14 has been cleared to your aerodrome at A040. STKR14 has requested descent but is not yet ‘visual’. Between their present position and the aerodrome, they will remain in the same RTCC and MSA step. The MSA is A022 and the RTCC lowest assignable altitude is A030

a. you intend on vectoring STKR14 for sequencing, and

b. you don’t intend on vectoring STKR14? (2 marks)

A030 (1)

A022 (1)

separation (1);

terrain clearance (1);

the tables of cruising levels (1);

provision for radio failure (1); and

priority (1)."

STTPP

You may assign a pilot a level below LSALT provided that:
a. by night, to an IFR pilot that has reported 'VISUAL' (1) or a VFR pilot, you prefix the clearance with 'WHEN ESTABLISHED IN THE CIRCLING AREA, ...' (1); or

b. by day:
      i) the IFR pilot has reported 'VISUAL' (1);  and
      ii) 'VISUAL' is appended to the level assigned (1).

What level can be assigned in an airways clearance in the following scenarios. It is night time, VMC and the 10NM MSA is A025.

a. BKBD (2 x F18) requests clearance gate 1, A015.

b. BKBD (2 x F18) requests clearance gate 1, A010 Military Terrain Clearance.

c. ACHR (2 x C130) requests clearance Bathurst Direct, A015 NVG.

d. RSCU27 (BK117) requests clearance Wisemans Ferry direct, A010 visual.

e. RSCU27 (BK117) requests clearance Wisemans Ferry direct, A010 NVG.

a. A025

b. A010 MTC

c. A015 NVG

d. NA025 Visual

e. A010 NVG

No. (1)

Repeat level restrictions/requirements issued by ATC in air-ground communications in conjunction with subsequent level clearances in order for them to remain in effect. (1)

When applying speed control:

a) avoid alternate decreases and increases in speed;

b) avoid the use of minimum speed when a higher speed is practicable;

c) do not vary the final approach speed;

d) advise the pilot of future intentions;

e) advise the pilot to resume desired speed as soon as the application of speed control is no longer necessary; and

f) make speed adjustments judiciously in advance of the point at which the new speed is required, depending on the aircraft type and amount of adjustment involved.

Establish identification by one of the following procedures:
Observe compliance with an instruction to:
      i. operate the Special Position Identification (SPI) (1) or
      ii. change to a specific SSR code (1)

Correlate a particular radar position symbol with an aircraft reporting its position over, or bearing and distance from, a point shown on the situation display, provided the track of the radar position symbol is consistent with the aircraft path or reported heading (1)

Ascertain the aircraft heading, if required, and following a period of track observation:
      i. instruct the pilot to execute one or more changes of heading of 30 degrees or more and correlate the movements with the aircraft’s acknowledged execution of the instructions given; (1) or
      ii. correlate the movements of a particular radar position symbol with the reported manoeuvres of an aircraft. (1)

"Verify the accuracy of displayed pressure altitude-derived level information:

a. as soon as possible after initial contact with an aircraft (1) and prior to use (1); and

b. where continuous monitoring has not been carried out (1)."

"Verify by simultaneous comparison with (1):

a. altimeter-derived level information received from the same aircraft by radiotelephony (1); or

b. the aerodrome elevation during the take-off roll (1), provided that the level information subsequently indicate a positive climb after take-off.

When the displayed pressure altitude-derived level information differs from the pilot reported or known altitude by more than 200 FT:
a. advise pilot (1)
b. request check of pressure setting; (1) and
c. confirm current level.(1)

Where there is a continuing discrepancy after confirmation of the correct pressure setting:
a. request the pilot to stop pressure altitude data transmission provided there is no loss of position and identification information; (1) and
b. coordinate this action with the next ATC unit. (1)

When relaying the identification of an aircraft from one controller to another, and transfer of control is not effected, the relaying Controller advises that the aircraft is FOR IDENT (1).

The receiving Controller acknowledges identification by replying with the callsign for the aircraft. (1)

Effect transfer of identification by one of the following methods:
a. designation of the position symbol by automated means,  provided that only one position is indicated and there is no doubt as to the correct identification (1)
b. notification of the aircraft’s discrete SSR code or aircraft address (1)
c. notification that the aircraft is SSR Mode S equipped with an aircraft identification feature when SSR Mode S coverage is available (1)
d. not applicable
e. direct designation (pointing with the finger) of the position symbol, on a shared or an adjacent situation display. Be aware of any errors resulting from parallax effects. (1)

f. designation of the position symbol by reference to, or in terms of bearing and distance from, a geographical position or navigational facility accurately indicated on both situational displays. (1)
g. instruct the aircraft to change SSR code and the change is observed by the accepting Controller.
Note: requires prior coordination between Controllers, as observed indications by the accepting Controller are of short duration. (1)
h. instruct the aircraft to SQUAWK IDENT  and the change is observed by the accepting Controller.
Note: requires prior coordination between Controllers, as observed indications by the accepting Controller are of short duration. (1)

Advise an aircraft provided with an ATS surveillance service of its position:
a. on identification, unless identification is established:
      1. based on a pilot’s report of the aircraft’s position; or
      2. within 1 NM of the runway on departure, if the observed position on the situation display is consistent with the aircraft’s time of departure; or
      3. by use of ADS-B aircraft identification, SSR Mode S aircraft identification or assigned discrete SSR codes if the location of the observed position symbol is consistent with the current flight plan of the aircraft; or
      4. by transfer of identification
b. after commencement of vectors by approach control as soon as a distance to run to touchdown becomes evident
c. when a pilot requests position information
d. when an identified aircraft’s reported position differs significantly from its observed position
e. when an identified aircraft is observed to have deviated from its previously approved or advised route

f. when the aircraft is resuming its own navigation after vectoring
g. when a regular circuit pattern is used to vector an aircraft onto the final approach path, at least once on each leg; and
h. when provided with vectors for a straight-in approach, at least once before commencement of final approach.

Do not vector:
a. not applicable
b. not applicable
c. special VFR aircraft, except when warranted by emergency conditions; (1) or
d. an aircraft that is OCTA, except when warranted by emergency conditions; (1) or                             

e. an aircraft at a pilot calculated LSALT that is below the lowest applicable grid LSALT, MSA or MVA. (1)

in VMC (1)

by day (1)

provided that the responsibility is specifically assigned to the pilot. (1)

Assure separation through the process of

assessing traffic (1),

identifying conflicts (1),

planning to ensure separation (1),

executing the plan (1) and

monitoring the situation to ensure the standard is not infringed (1).

If during an emergency situation, such as a radar failure, it is not possible to ensure that the applicable procedural separation minima will be maintained,

you may temporarily use half the applicable vertical separation minima. (1)

Issue traffic information to affected aircraft. (1)

Do not clear aircraft to cruise within the transition layer.

FL115 (1).

FL110 not available when QNH is less than 1013 (1).

What distance based wake turbulence separation is required in the following scenarios (assume all aircraft involved are operating under IFR)? (1 mark each)

a. Hawk (MTOW≈9100KG) following BBJ (MTOW≈77000KG)

b. PC9 (MTOW≈3200KG) following C17 (MTOW≈265000KG)

c. F/A-18 (MTOW≈24000KG) following C17 (MTOW≈265000KG)

d. A330 (MTOW≈230000KG) following C17 (MTOW≈265000KG)

e. C172 (MTOW≈1100KG) following Hawk (MTOW≈9100KG)

f. P3C (MTOW≈64000KG) following B757 (MTOW≈123000KG)

No wake turbulence separation necessary (1)

6NM (1)

5NM (1)

4NM (1)

No wake turbulence separation necessary (1)

5NM (1)

Except when specified in Clause 10.6.1.5, apply wake turbulence separation in all controlled airspace when an aircraft is following (1)

or will operate within 760 m laterally of the track of another aircraft (1)

at the same level (1)

or less than 1000 FT below

None (1).

Wake turbulence separation is not required:

c. for VFR flights (1) except when required in accordance with 10.6.1.3;

Apply wake turbulence separation when a VFR aircraft is:

a) in flight and would operate within the wake turbulence envelope of a Super category aircraft; (1)

b) departing; (1) or

c) a Light aircraft during its landing run will cross the flight path of, or intersection of a crossing runway, behind a departing Heavy or Super aircraft that has rotated at or before the intersection;

Close Formation - when aircraft are in Close Formation, they are considered to be one aircraft (1). Separation between this type of formation and other airspace users shall be based on the lead aircraft (1).

Standard formation – when aircraft are in standard formation, they may be manoeuvred up to 1 NM either side of, co-altitude with and up to 1 NM behind the lead aircraft. S

eparation between this type of formation and other airspace users is based on the outer edges of these limits;

Military tactical formation - when aircraft are in military tactical formation, they occupy an airspace block defined in the flight notification (1).

Base separation between military tactical formations and other airspace users on the outer limits of the outer limits of the airspace block (1)

In-trail formation - when aircraft are in an in-trail formation, individual aircraft use aircraft radar and/or TACAN to maintain contact and spacing with the aircraft ahead (1). Separation between this type of formation and other airspace users is based on the first and last aircraft in the trail.

Transit to airfield - Pilots or aircraft (1)

Runway separation - ATC or tower (1)

When a pilot reports established on final approach track:

a. advise the pilot of the aircraft’s distance to touchdown; (1) and

b. instruct the pilot to transfer to the tower frequency. (1)"

When a flight...is within 30 NM of an aerodrome (1), a visual approach may be authorised by day or night to:
a. (not applicable)
b. an IFR flight when:
      1. the pilot has established and can continue flight to the aerodrome (1) with continuous visual reference to the ground or water (1); and
      2. the visibility along the flight path is not less than 5000 M (1).

In addition to the requirements of Clause 11.1.11.1, with the exception of Australian and New Zealand operators.......only assign Super or Heavy jet aircraft a visual approach when:
a. specifically requested by the pilot (1) and the pilot has reported the landing runway in sight (1); or
b. the straight-in approach aid is unserviceable. (1)

"For VFR flights by day or for IFR flights by day in VMC and not departing via a SID, use phraseology: “RUNWAY HEADING VISUAL or RIGHT/LEFT (degrees) VISUAL” (1)"

For aircraft departing via a RADAR SID a three digit numerical radar heading is to be coordinated, using the phraseology: “HEADING/ RIGHT / LEFT (degrees)” (1)"

You may issue a visual departure in lieu of a SID: a. by day (1);

b. in VMC (1); and

c. provided that the cloud base is such that the pilot can maintain flight in VMC (1) below the MVA (ATS surveillance system environment) or MSA/LSALT (procedural environment).

Yes (1) Specify tracking instructions when requested by Australian military aircraft.

In accepting the clearance, the aircraft captain (1) accepts the responsibility for terrain clearance until passing MVA or LSALT.

"1. climb to MSA/LSALT, and, (1)

2. if being vectored, maintain last assigned vector for two minutes (1), then

3. proceed in accordance with the latest ATC route clearance acknowledged (1)."