Term
| What is the core AFSC training document used for training enlisted personnel? |
|
Definition
| Career Field Education and Training Plan |
|
|
Term
| What is as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field(s) which makes a diproportionate contribution to the success of providing the right skills needed for military operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which document would you reference to see your specific AFSC responsibilities? |
|
Definition
| Refer to Secion B, "Career Field Progression and Information," of your AFSC specific CFETP. |
|
|
Term
| The cyberspace support family consists of which two sub-groups? |
|
Definition
| Cyberspace Operations (3D0XX), and Cyberspace Systems (3D1XX). |
|
|
Term
| With whom does the Air Force career field manager directly communicate to disseminate policies and program requirements? |
|
Definition
| MAJCOM functional managers and AETC training managers. |
|
|
Term
| Whose duty is it to assist in gathering input and data to complete enlisted grade allocation for career progression requirements? |
|
Definition
| MAJCOM funtional managers. |
|
|
Term
| On what action does the MAJCOM functional manager act as the primary reviewer? |
|
Definition
| CDC training and classification waiver request. |
|
|
Term
| What information is used to make classification decisions and verify the need to correct classification documents, remove tasks personnel no longer perform, and identify new responsibilities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of workshop brings MAJCOM functional managers and subject matter experts together to determine the most effective and efficient way to ensure training standards and skill-level requirements of a career field are accurate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What do the training advisory groups provide? |
|
Definition
| A comprehensive approach to address training management issues affecting AFSCs. |
|
|
Term
| Why do 3D personnel need job rotation? |
|
Definition
| To foster personal and professional growth, as well as obtain a breadth of experience. |
|
|
Term
| What must you know to progress up the career ladder? |
|
Definition
| All aspects of the career field. |
|
|
Term
| What are some of the positive impacts that job rotation studies have shown? |
|
Definition
| It reduces boredom, reduces work stress, increases innovation, and increases production. |
|
|
Term
| What do AFOSH standards and publications provide? |
|
Definition
| Air Force Occupational Safety and Health guidance for fundamental occupational environments and work areas/shops. |
|
|
Term
| What must you do if you believe a potential safety hazard may exist in your work area? |
|
Definition
| You must immediately secure the area and contact your supervisor, unit safety representative, or ground safety office. |
|
|
Term
| How does the Air Force obtain the AFOSH goal of minimizing incidences of chemically induced occupation illnesses and injuries in the work areas/shops? |
|
Definition
| The Air Force does this by establishing guidance for training employees on the health and physical hazards associated with proper preventive measures. |
|
|
Term
| What is ionizing radiation (radioactivity)? |
|
Definition
| Electromagnetic radiation whose waves contain energy sufficient to overcome the binding energy of electrons in atoms or molecules, thus creating ions. |
|
|
Term
| With whom would you coordinate the disposal of hazardous waste material? |
|
Definition
| With the host installation environmental management such as the base bioenvironmental engineering. |
|
|
Term
| Who normally conducts first-aid and CPR training for unit instructors? |
|
Definition
| The installation medical facility normally conducts first-aid and CPR training for unit instructors who, in turn, train unit personnel. |
|
|
Term
| Define operational risk management. |
|
Definition
| ORM is a decision-making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation. |
|
|
Term
| Name the four principles that govern all actions associated with the ORM. |
|
Definition
| Accept no unnecessary risk; make risk decisions at the appropriate level; accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs; integrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels. |
|
|
Term
| Which document would you reference to learn about the ORM program? |
|
Definition
| AFI 90-901, Operational Risk Management (ORM) Program. |
|
|
Term
| What hazards do noise areas with above 85 decibels create? |
|
Definition
| Noise could restrict verbal communication; while extensive exposure at levels at or above 85 decibels (dB) can cause hearing loss. |
|
|
Term
| What should you consider when cleaning raised computer room floors? |
|
Definition
| Raised floors will not be cleaned with flammable liquids or abrasive scrubbing powders. When toxic cleaning agents are used, adequate ventilation must be provided to remove vapors. |
|
|
Term
| Where should emergency control switches be installed in data processing rooms; what should they disconnect? |
|
Definition
| Emergency controls are best located at designated exit doors. These controls will disconnect the ventilation system serving the room and selective power to all electrical equipment in the room except lighting. |
|
|
Term
| How are electrostatic charges generated? |
|
Definition
| Whenever there is motion between various types of material. |
|
|
Term
| When handling computer memory chips, what can you do to reduce electrostatic hazards? |
|
Definition
| You should use a grounding strap to eliminate the buildup or discharge of electrostatic energy before you touched them to prevent possible chip damage. |
|
|
Term
| State the three classes of ESD. |
|
Definition
Class I--Sensitive items from 0 to 999 volts.
Class II--Sensitive items from 1000 to 3999 volts.
Class III--Sensitive items from 4000 to 14999 volts. |
|
|
Term
| What preventive measure can you take against ESDs when you are at a workstation? |
|
Definition
| You should wear a conductive wrist strap when using a grounded workbench; also include an ionizing air blower. |
|
|
Term
| What Air Force command is appointed as the primary for cyberspace missions? |
|
Definition
| AFSPC is the USAF Major Command for the cyberspace mission. |
|
|
Term
| How do offensive operations support US cuberspace objectives? |
|
Definition
| Offensive operations support US cyberspace objectives by denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying, or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. |
|
|
Term
| How do defensive operations handle network intrusions? |
|
Definition
| Defensive operations detect and deny access when unauthorized intrusions are attempted, determine the source, minimize the effectiveness and help to recover in timely manner. |
|
|
Term
| How do we influence the adversary's decision-making while protecting our operations? |
|
Definition
| By integrating the capabilities of inluence operations, electronic warfare operations and network warfare operations in concert. |
|
|
Term
| How would you define SCADA? |
|
Definition
| The term SCADA refers to centralized systems which monitor and control industries sites, or complexes of systems spread out over large areas. |
|
|
Term
| How are SCADA systems typically implemented? |
|
Definition
| SCADA systems typically implement a distributed database, commonly referred to as a tag database, which contains data elements called tags or points. |
|
|
Term
| What do DOD IT DISR requirements mandate as a minimum? |
|
Definition
| That a minimum set of standards and guidelines for the acquisition of all DOD IT systems that produce, use, or exchange information. |
|
|
Term
| What is the goal of AFNetOps? |
|
Definition
| To provide effective, efficient, secure, and reliable information network services used in critical DOD and Air Force C&I processes. |
|
|
Term
| What center is the execution arm for the AFNetOps/CC for the command and control of Air Force networks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the two divisions that are a functional part of the AFNOC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for the networthiness of information technology systems? |
|
Definition
| Information system owners. |
|
|
Term
| Who is the focal point for Tier-2 (regional level) execution of enterprise network security and centralizes those aspects of network security previously performed by the MAJCOM NOSCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the Operations Flight (SCO) provide to their customers? |
|
Definition
| Technical and systems support for wing communications and computer systems including ground radio, voice networks, airfield systems, and secure communications maintenance. |
|
|
Term
| What are the responsibilites of the Plans and Resources Flight (SCX)? |
|
Definition
| SCX is responsible for base-level communication security programs, such as Communications Security, Emission Security, and Spectrum Information Assurance. |
|
|
Term
| How are expeditionary units established to operate? |
|
Definition
| Expeditionary units are established to operate with an Air Expeditionary Task Force. |
|
|
Term
| What is the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the US? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which title of the US code spells out the general provisions and punitive articles of the UCMJ? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who mainly develops ROE, and who is responsible for individual unit compliance? |
|
Definition
(1) General officers with approval from the National Command Authority.
(2) Subordinate commanders. |
|
|
Term
| Who has inspection responsibility over the Natinoal Guard? |
|
Definition
| The department secretaries of the US Army and Air Force. |
|
|
Term
| What can the results of the Schmitt Analysis be used for? |
|
Definition
| To classify operations as either military or diplomatic. |
|
|
Term
| When was the Air Force IO doctrine finalized and published? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who was the principal defense policy advisor to the president? |
|
Definition
| The Secretary of Defense. |
|
|
Term
| Who manages Air Force publications? |
|
Definition
| Air Force publications are managed by the AFDPO. |
|
|
Term
| According to the Air Force's operations doctrine what are the two pillars of IO? |
|
Definition
| Information warefare and information-in-warfare. |
|
|
Term
| What are AFNOIs and what are they used for? |
|
Definition
| AFNOIs are directive specialized publications providing operating procedures and checklists for network operations. AFNOIs are used to document standard processes as well as operate, maintain, or troubleshoot network software and equipment and are generated for technical subjects not covered by Air Force publications or technical orders. |
|
|
Term
| How do AFPDs relate to AFIs? |
|
Definition
| AFPDs are drafted at the Air Force level and provide guidance for AFIs. AFIs are drafted at the MAJCOM and FOA level. |
|
|
Term
| What do OIs assign and how do they differ from AFIs? |
|
Definition
| OIs assign directive actions, responsibilities, and prescribe procedures. OIs differ from AFIs in that they are written at a much lower organizational level such as a squadron or flight level. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| TOs provide official guidance on producing, configuring, installing, maintaining, modifying and operating equipment or systems. |
|
|
Term
| Define telecommunications and what does it provide us with? |
|
Definition
| Telecommunications is known as electronic communications and provides us with the transmission of analogs or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate. |
|
|
Term
| What does the Air Force portal provide Air Force users? |
|
Definition
| The Air Force portal provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location. |
|
|
Term
| What are the Air Force portal's three key features? |
|
Definition
(1) Common virtual platform for access and sharing accurate information.
(2) Catalyst for reducing overlap and duplication among cross-functional information systems.
(3) Means for conducting self-service functions. |
|
|
Term
| What spectrum of topics does the Air Force portal cover? |
|
Definition
| The Air Force portal covers the spectrum of Air Force missions and processes including business, combat support and command and control processes. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important part of the Air Force portal initiative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the single-sign-on enable authorized users with on the Air Force portal? |
|
Definition
| To enter their passwords once and gain access to all their applications with no further log-in. |
|
|
Term
| Who manages access groups for organizational content publishers? |
|
Definition
| Advanced content managers. |
|
|
Term
| Who works in collaboration with the content publishers to ensure information on the Air Force portal is accurate and applicable with AFIs and Air Force portal guidance? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is considered the "owner" of some amount of content on the Air Force portal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Air Force goal concerning accessibility to Internet resources? |
|
Definition
| To provide personnel requiring access for official business maximum accessibility to Internet resources. |
|
|
Term
| Who may authorize personal use of government provided hardware and software? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFI 33-129, Web Management and Internet Use, by military personnel is a violation of which UCMJ article? |
|
Definition
| UCMJ, Article 92, Failure to Obey Order or Regulation. |
|
|
Term
| Who appoints Air Force portal content managers and content publishers for public and private websites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What exactly is electronic mail or e-mail? |
|
Definition
| E-mail, is a method of exchanging digital messages from one originating party to one or more recipients. |
|
|
Term
| When should you use e-mail summaries? |
|
Definition
| Use summaries to sum up a lengthy e-mail or to re-emphasize topics of significant importance. |
|
|
Term
| What plays a vital role in managing and operating Air Force activities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Whose rights must be protected through the proper implementation of the records management programs? |
|
Definition
| Protects the rights of the government and of persons directly affected by Air Force actions. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Those that can be altered and have not been signed or officially released. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Those that have been signed, officially released, and cannot be altered. |
|
|
Term
| How must Air Force units at all levels manage records? |
|
Definition
| Systematically to make sure they are complete, accurate, trustworthy, and easily accessible. |
|
|
Term
| What records relate solely to an individual's private affair? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a staging area? |
|
Definition
| For temporary storage of records pending destruction of transfer to a federal records center. |
|
|
Term
| Who ensures installation offices of record conduct periodical unit self-inspections and receive a SAV at least every 24 months? |
|
Definition
| RM ensures offices of record receive a SAV at least every 24 months. |
|
|
Term
| What contributed to the need for an ERM solution? |
|
Definition
| Electronic mail (e-mail) revolutionized the flow of communication and significantly contributed to the need for an ERM solution. |
|
|
Term
| Who will use dedicated space on the SANs to store e-records? |
|
Definition
| Network control center staff. |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for ensuring designated storage, proper use and integrity of e-files/e-records? |
|
Definition
| Base/unit records professional, BRMs, FARMs, RC, and COR. |
|
|
Term
| How will protection be applied to files and folders containing sensitive privacy act data? |
|
Definition
| By using passwords and group permissions. |
|
|
Term
| Who must monitor the e-file box and assist and or file the records in the box? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first step in filing a document? |
|
Definition
| Assemble documents for filing in the same manner as required for their creation, dispatch, and use with the latest action on top. |
|
|
Term
| What should you do prior to filing a document if an attachment is missing? |
|
Definition
| Take action to get the missing records or information included in the file or make a notation to show what part of the file is missing or where filed, if included in another series. |
|
|
Term
| What items do you remove from a document prior to filing? |
|
Definition
| Remove all mail control forms and receipts, envelopes, and memo routing or coordination slips, except those containing remarks of significant record value. |
|
|
Term
| How is a record marked for filing? |
|
Definition
| Mark records for file by using the work "file" and the proper official's initials. Mark for file and file code in the upper right hand corner of the record. Use the item number of the separate series from the file plan. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary purpose for maintaining records? |
|
Definition
| To ensure we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed. |
|
|
Term
| What is the first item in a file plan? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What program generates the file disposition control labels? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many tables and rules can be applied to each record series? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the requirements for placing disposition control labels on a guide card? |
|
Definition
| Usually affixed to the first (left) tap position of the guide card, the main thing is to be consistent throughout your files. |
|
|
Term
| What purpose does the disposition guide card serve? |
|
Definition
| Serves to identify the records filed behind it and to provide cutoff and disposition instructions for the records. |
|
|
Term
| Where do you place the disposition control label on records located away from the file drawer? |
|
Definition
| Place the disposition control label either on each container or on a card or sheet of paper in the container or binder, where it is obvious. |
|
|
Term
| Where do you place the disposition control label when a series is filed in more than one container? |
|
Definition
| Place on the first container or on each container. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three record cutoff categories. |
|
Definition
(1) N/A--disposition instruction does not contain a month or year.
(2) MO--disposition instructions contain 1 to 11 months.
(3) 30 Sep/31 Dec--disposition instruction contains a year or 12 months or more. |
|
|
Term
| Define the term "disposition" regarding Air Force records? |
|
Definition
| Disposition is a comprehensive term that includes destruction, salvage, and donation; transfer to the staging area or records center; and transfer from one organization to another. |
|
|
Term
| How do records custodians accomplish the end-of-year closeout? |
|
Definition
| By transferring physical records to the inactive files area or to the staging area. |
|
|
Term
| What form is used as a packing list for transferred or retired records? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When is a separate SF 135 prepared? |
|
Definition
| A separate SF 135 is prepared for each series of temporary records in a shipment and for permanent records. You must also prepare a separate SF 135 for unclassified, SECRET, CONFIDENTIAL, and TOP SECRET records, regardless of volume, when records are placed in a staging area. |
|
|
Term
| Whan minimum items should be inluded on deployed unit file plans? |
|
Definition
| Maintenance and disposition, policy and precedent, delegations, general correspondence, office administrative files, transitory, word processing files hard copy maintained in organized file, and presentation in accordance with the RDS. |
|
|
Term
| What record management advice did the DOD provide on 15 Aug 2003? |
|
Definition
| That records on combat operations in Iraq and those of all major deployments are of historical value and must be preserved for future studies and analyses. |
|
|
Term
| Who is the Air Force working with to establish archiving capabilities? |
|
Definition
| NARA and other major AOR areas such as CENTAF, to establish archiving capabilities within the AOR and to develop standard procedures for formatting and transferring e-records. |
|
|
Term
| What actions must you take to prevent the compromise of paper or magnetic records? |
|
Definition
| Records may be destroyed by any method that prevents compromise, such as tearing, burning, or shredding, as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction. Degauss or overwrite magnetic tapes or other magnetic medium. |
|
|
Term
| Explain what composes an AEF organization structure. |
|
Definition
| An Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) is an organizational structure composed of Air Force capabilities that can provide the war-fighting combatant commander with rapid and responsive air and space power assets. |
|
|
Term
| How has the AEF concept changed Air Force operations? |
|
Definition
| By retooling from a "stay-at-home," or fixed-base, mindset to an expeditionary/deployable one. Developing the means to spread tasking across the force to relieve the increase in deployments on a small number of units. Providing predictability and stability for our people. |
|
|
Term
| What document would you reference for information on Tempo Banding? |
|
Definition
| Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD) 10-4, Operations Planning: Air & Space Expeditionary Force (AEF). |
|
|
Term
| Who is the authority for AEF execution and who approves these orders/directives? |
|
Definition
| Global Force Management (GFM) has the authority for AEF execution. SecDef approved orders or IA directives. |
|
|
Term
| What two important principles apply in deployed communications environment? |
|
Definition
| Provide support for the joint force air component (JFACC) with ability to begin air operations and win a major theater war (MTW). Enforce operations security (OPSEC) to ensure safe and secured communications; manage acceptable levels of risk to accomplish the mission. |
|
|
Term
| What is a unit type code (UTC)? |
|
Definition
| A unit type code (UTC) is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of AEFs. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Posturing is the process of identifying and making available a unit's trained and ready capable UTCs. |
|
|
Term
| How would you best describe TDCs and its composition? |
|
Definition
| TDC is a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications via line of sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources. TDC is comprised of highly transportable commercial-off-the shelf (COTS) communications equipment, housed in transit cases, and is fully scalable to meet new Air Force mission requirments. |
|
|
Term
| Explain what MEFPAK is and the purpose it serves. |
|
Definition
| MEFPAK is the Air Force system used for UTC package management. The purpose of MEFPAK is to provide standard descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contigency planning at all levels of command. |
|
|
Term
| What is JOPES and what was designed to facilitate? |
|
Definition
| JOPES is the DOD directed integrated joint command and control (C2) system for conventional operation planning and execution (to include theater-level nuclear and chemical plans). JOPES was designed to facilitate rapid building and timely maintenance of plans and rapid development of effective optiions through adaptation of approved operations plans during crisis. |
|
|
Term
| Name three standard deployment reference files. |
|
Definition
| Three standard reference files are: GEOFILE, TUCHA, and TUDET. |
|
|
Term
| What does the TUCHA file contain? |
|
Definition
| The TUCHA file contains the deployment data for all approved DOD UTCs, including the number of passengers and the cargo increments and the weights and dimensions. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| MANFOR is a database containing the UTC and title, mission capability (MISCAP), and manpower detail for each applicable UTC. |
|
|
Term
| How does LOGDET relate to LOGFOR? |
|
Definition
| LOGFOR is a subsystem of MEFPAK and COMPES which contains the logistics detail for standard Air Force packages. LOGFOR is used to collect and store the material requirements (also called the logistics detail (LOGDET)) for UTCs. The LOGDET defines the standard equipment requirements for each. |
|
|
Term
| Name the two types of UTCs. |
|
Definition
| Standard and non-standard. |
|
|
Term
| What document should you refer to for additional guidance on using and posturing UTC? |
|
Definition
| AFI 10-401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution, Chapter 7. |
|
|
Term
| What are unmanned aircrafts/aerial vehicles (UAs/UAVs) and how are they used? |
|
Definition
| Unmanned aircraft (UA) or unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) are remotely piloted or self-piloted aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment or other payloads. They have been used in a reconnaissance and intelligence-gathering. |
|
|
Term
| What are tactical unmanned aerial vehicles (TUAVs) designed to to? |
|
Definition
| The tactical unmanned aerial vehicle (TUAV) system is designed as a ground maneuver commander's primary day/night reconnaissance, surveillance, target acquisition, and battle damage assessment system. |
|
|
Term
| What do high altitude endurance (HAE) vehicles provide? |
|
Definition
| The high altitude endurance (HAE) development program focuses on providing exploitable digital imagery to the warfighter in near real-time. |
|
|
Term
| What altitude can the RQ-4 Global Hawk reach? |
|
Definition
| The RQ-4 Global Hawk can reach an altitude of 65000 feet. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three components of the Predator system? |
|
Definition
| The UAV with its associated sensors and communications equipment; the ground control station (GCS); and the product or data dissemination system. |
|
|
Term
| Define theater deployable communications (TDC). |
|
Definition
| Theater deployable communications (TDC) is a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications via line of sight, satellite, or hard wired resources. |
|
|
Term
| What does the nature of the AEF concept requires us to do in regards to TDC equipment? |
|
Definition
| The nature of the AEF concept requires us to reduce the size, increase the flexibility and capacity of deployable communication systems. |
|
|
Term
| What characteristics should proposed TDC equipment strive to have? |
|
Definition
| Proposed TDC equipment should strive to have the following characteristics: functionality, modularity/scalability, open system standards, interoperability, mobility, survivability, security, and operability. |
|
|
Term
| What are three major components of TDC? |
|
Definition
| TDC is composed of three major components: Ground Satellite Terminals, Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP), and Network Control Center-Deployed (NCC-D). |
|
|
Term
| Describe the integrated communications access package (ICAP). |
|
Definition
| Integrated communications access package (ICAP) is a suite of modules and accessory kits providing the communications backbone for deployed units. The ICAP is comprised of COTS circuit switches, hubs and routers, multiplexers, and on-base transmission (radio and laser) and encryption devices. |
|
|
Term
| What functions does the Promina multiplexer (P-MUX) provide? |
|
Definition
| The Promina multiplexer (P-MUX) module provides multiplexing and demultiplexing of voice, data, and message traffic. |
|
|
Term
| What is the airfield operations mission? |
|
Definition
| To deploy worldwide in support of operational forces at host nation or bare base locations and provide basic airfield services and combat airspace support to the theater AOC. |
|
|
Term
| What are the three systems that are part of the TPN-19? |
|
Definition
| Two operations (A and B), the airport surveillance radar (ASR), and the precision approach radar (PAR). |
|
|
Term
| How many display indicators present information to the air traffic controllers from ASR and PAR systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the range of the TPN-24 for air traffic controllers to identify and locate aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What information is provided by the PAR? |
|
Definition
| Both azimuth and elevation information from 20 nautical miles away from an airfield to touchdown. |
|
|
Term
| What does the MSN-7 provide? |
|
Definition
| Air traffic controller's access to landlines, UHF/VHF radios, crash phones, emergency signals, tape recorders, navigational aids monitor and wind measuring equipment. |
|
|
Term
| What MAJCOM does the 85th EIS fall under? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How fast can the 85th EIS respond to wartime and emergency peacetime restoration of information systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of major systems do C-E technicians within SCMG? |
|
Definition
| These systems consist of initial telecommunications engineering, RF direction finding and engineering installation needs for Ground Radio, Satellite, Wideband and Secure Communications Systems, ATCALS, and METNAV systems. |
|
|
Term
| What service does the 85th EIS provide under SCMC? |
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Definition
| It provides worldwide rapid response for engineering, installation, and repair of all forms of copper and fiber-optic cables for telephone, LAN/WAN, antenna, and application-specific systems, as well as antenna for radar, narrow and wideband radio, and satellite antenna systems. |
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Term
| What is the AOC used for? |
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Definition
| For planning, executing, and assessing theater-wide air and space operations. |
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Term
| What are the elements of GTACS? |
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Definition
| The AOC, CRC, ASOC, and TACP. |
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Term
| What is an air tasking order? |
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Definition
| It is the lead planning document commanders follow to start all missions. Normally it provides specific instructions to include call signs, targets, controlling agencies, etc., as well as general instructions. |
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Term
| List the five teams of the Chief of AOC Systems. |
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Definition
| AOC Area Support, CFP, AOC Networks, C2 Systems, and Data Links. |
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Term
| How many sites employ the GCCS system? |
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Definition
| GCCS is employed at more than 600 sites across the GIG. |
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Term
| What are the four systems that make up the GCCS-AF program? |
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Definition
| Joint Operations Planning and Execution System, GCCS Status of Resources and Training, Deliberate Crisis Action Plannin & Execution System, Common Operating Picture. |
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Term
| Which of the four systems that make up GCCS provides a comprehensive picture of the AOR battlespace? |
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Definition
| The COP provides a comprehensive picture of the battlespace within the AOR. |
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Term
| What is the primary information that GCSS handles? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the requirements to log into the different portions of the GCSS? |
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Definition
| A SIPRNET or NIPRNET computer and a Common Access Card or Public Key Infrastructure Certificate. |
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Term
| How was the planning and execution of the Air War handled in Operation DESERT STORM? |
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Definition
| Much of the plannin and execution of the air war was done by hand. |
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Term
| Where are TBMCS found operating as the main planning and execution system? |
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Definition
| The Air Operations Centers. |
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Term
| What is the responsibiliy of the NMCC? |
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Definition
| The generation of Emergency Action Messages (EAMs) to notify launch control centers, nuclear submarines, reconnaissance aircraft and battlefield commanders around the world. |
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Term
| What component of the GIG supports the President, SECDEF, and JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities? |
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Definition
| The National Military Command System. |
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Term
| What are the command nodes for the NMCS? |
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Definition
| The NMCC, National Airborne Operation Center, USSTRATCOM Command Center, USSTRATCOM and USNORTHCOM mobile consolidated command centers, and other command centers designated by the SECDEF. |
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Term
| What is SACCS designed to support? |
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Definition
| The Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. |
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Term
| How does the SACCS system achieve the requirement for survivability? |
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Definition
| By using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths. |
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Term
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Definition
| The worldwide telecommunications network supporting voice, data, and video for both classified and unclassified (i.e., Internet) requirements. |
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Term
| What project will replace SEAMARK? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the Distributed Common Ground System? |
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Definition
| The Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS) is a collection of communications systems. |
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Term
| What is the DOD directive in response to the FY 97-03 Defense Planning Guidance? |
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Definition
| The DOD DCGS program to migrate to a multi-intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture. |
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Term
| What must the DOD DCGS do to support today's joint and combined war fighter and accomplish tomorrow's JV2020 operational mission? |
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Definition
| Convert the voluminous amount of data received from space, air, and surface ISR platforms into "decision superiority--better decisions arrived at and implemented faster than an opponent can react, or in a combat situation, at a tempo that allows the force to shape the situation or react to changes to accomplish its mission." |
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Term
| What is the Battlefield Control System? |
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Definition
| It is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server based computer system which takes inputs from long range and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (computer monitor). |
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Term
| The CONUS is divided into how many air defense sectors? |
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Definition
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Term
| Where is the Alaskan Regional Air Operations Center (AKRAOC) located? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the mission of the Global Broadcast Service? |
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Definition
| The GBS mission is to provide warfighters with a one-way, high data rate and high volume of intelligence info to forces garrisoned, deployed, or on the move. |
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Term
| How does the GBS suite keep two-way satellite systems from having to handle every field data request? |
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Definition
| GBS uses a form of "push and store" to distribute high-bandwidth information for local relay. |
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Term
| What is the mission of the HF-GCS? |
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Definition
| To provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users. |
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Term
| Which of the 15 Global HF System stations does not remotely control from the CNCS? Why? |
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Definition
| The south Atlantic Station. Because it only provides dedicated ALE support for AMC aircraft. |
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Term
| What is the purpose of the DCS HF entry? |
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Definition
| To provide nonsecure voice and secure/nonsecure data connectivity to commanders and tactical units operating in areas of the world where DCS connectivity in unavailable or insufficient. |
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Term
| What GTACS provide the war fighter's arsenal? |
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Definition
| The Ground Theater Air Control System (GTACS) provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support. GTACS brings a combination of range, precision, low signature and control. |
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Term
| What provides the MCE with a unique ATO message handling and interface processing suite? |
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Definition
| The Automated Air Tasking Order (AATO) software application. |
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Term
| What do AtHoc solutions provide the DOD with? |
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Definition
| Provide the DOD with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via PCs, personal digital assistants (PDAs), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and giant voice systems in real time. |
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Term
| What capability does INWS give command post staff? |
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Definition
| Provide installation personnel with quick access to critical information. |
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