Term
| What includes, at a minimum, all core tasks that correspond to the duty position, and tasks assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) Air Force Instruction (AFI) 36 - 2201, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted). |
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Definition
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Term
| What is defined as an integrated bundle of expert knowledge and organizational skills inherent to a particular career field(s) |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the minimum qualification requirement for everyone within a AFSC, regardless of duty position? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who is the advisor for all matters affecting the career field? |
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Definition
| Air Force Career Field Manager |
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Term
| Who ensures that the development, implementation, and maintenance of your CFETP is completed as required? |
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Definition
| Air Force Career Field Manager |
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Term
| Who is the Final authority to waive career field education training plan requirements belongs to the AFCFM? |
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Definition
| Air Force Career Field Manager |
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Term
| Who advises MAJCOM commanders and their staff on manpower utilization and training issues? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who assists in gathering inputs and data to complete enlisted grade allocation for career progresstion group reviews? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who will assist with the dissemination of information regarding Air Force and career field policies, plans, programs, and procedures. |
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Definition
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Term
| Who's duty is to assist in identifying qualified subject matter experts to help with the development of specialty knowledge tests and your career development course. |
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Definition
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Term
| Who coordinates on all MAJCOM staffing and manpower issues? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who's duties are normally assigned to the on-station ranking 3DXXX cyberspace superintendent or chief enlisted manager (CEM). |
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Definition
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Term
| Who establishes training requirements and training programs to meet local knowledge and certification requirements? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who assists unit personnel in the management of the unit's training programs to include upgrade training, qualification training, and formal training programs. |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the main goal of the Utilization and Training Workshop (U&TW) |
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Definition
| The mail Goal of the U&TW is to establish a viable CFETP. |
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Term
| How often are workshops initiated? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Who establishes workshops? |
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Definition
| Air Force Career Field Manager |
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Term
| Who has the responsibility of ensuring that job rotation takes place? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are the advantages of job rotation? |
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Definition
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Term
| What term best decribes employees' perceptions, attitudes, and beliefs about risk and safety, typically measured by questionnaire surveys and providing a "snapshot" of the current state of safety. |
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Definition
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Term
| What are publications which provide us guidance for fundamental occupational environments and work areas/shops. |
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Definition
| Air Force Occupational Safety and Health |
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Term
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Definition
| Occupational Noise and Hearing Conservation Program |
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Term
|
Definition
| Material Handling and Storage Equipment |
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Term
|
Definition
| Communications Cable, Antenna & Communications-Electronivs Systems |
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Term
|
Definition
| Data Processing Facilities |
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
|
Definition
| Air Force Occupational and Environmental Safety, Fire Protection, and Health program. |
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
|
Definition
| Enviromental, Safety, and Occupational Health |
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Term
| What is the minimum ammount of current that could induce cardiac arrest? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What type of injury can be caused my electrical arcing? |
|
Definition
| Serious burns to the body |
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Term
| What is the primary hazard associated with climbing? |
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
| A ion is an atom or group of atoms in which the number of electrons is different from the number of protons. |
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Term
|
Definition
| A cation is an atom or group of atoms in which the number of electrons is less than the number of protons. |
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Term
|
Definition
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Term
| What do you in the situation that a hazard cannot be eliminated? |
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Definition
| Report it to the ground safety office |
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Term
| What form can training be documented on? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the primary purpose of a safety observer? |
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Definition
| Ensure injuries do not take place |
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Term
| At what voltage is a safety board required? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the most logical choice for accomplishing a mission are those that meet all mission requirements whileexposing personnel and resources to the lowest acceptable risk? |
|
Definition
| Accept no unnecessary risk |
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Term
| What is the processes of adding ORM to every level of the planning instead of it being an addon step? |
|
Definition
| Intergrate ORM into operations and planning at all levels |
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Term
| What are the six steps of ORM? |
|
Definition
| Step 1 - Identify the hazard |
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Term
|
Definition
| Operational Risk management (ORM) Program |
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Term
|
Definition
| Operational Risk Management (ORM) Guidelines and Tools |
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Term
| At what noise level is it considered hazardous and signs must be placed at entrances? |
|
Definition
| 85 decibles (dB) and above |
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Term
| What is an important element of mishap prevention in data processing facilities and may lead to unhealthy or unsafe working conditions, fires, and injuries to personnel. |
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Definition
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Term
| Is eating and drinking allowed within a computer room or while operating remote equiptment or keypunches because spilled food or drinks can damage electrical componets. |
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Definition
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Term
| National Fire Protection Association 101 |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What is the maximum height that all tape stands and storage racks can stand? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the closest distance that materials can be stacked withing a ceiling fire sprinkler heads or Halon nozzles? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Who must approve firefighting equiptment? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who will provide a means of protection computer equiptment in the event of water leaks or sprinkler activation? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| When is an electrostatic charge generated and released? |
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Definition
| Whenever there is a motion between various types of material and you touch something conductive. |
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Term
| What does an ionizing blower do? |
|
Definition
| An ionizing blower neutralizes ionized air |
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Term
| what term refers to centralized system which monitory and control industrial sites of complexes of systems spread out over large areas? |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of system is typically implement a distributed database, commonly referred to as a tag database, which contrains date elements called tages of points. |
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Definition
|
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Term
|
Definition
| A Hard point represents an actual input or output within the system. |
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Term
|
Definition
| A soft point represents results from logic and math operations applied to other points. |
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Term
|
Definition
| Network Opeations (NetOps) |
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Term
| What is defined as the globally interconnected, end-to-end set of information capabilities, associated processes, and personnell for collectiong, processing, storing, disseminating, and managing information on demand to warfighters, policymakers, and support personnel. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What includes and Air Force provisioned system, equiptment, software, or service residing on the NIPRNET, SIPRNET, or Constellation Net? |
|
Definition
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Term
| What has the goal to provide effective, efficient, secure, and reliable information network services used in critical DOD and Air Force C&I processes? |
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Definition
| Air Force Network Operations |
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Term
| Who has the overall authoritative source for the status, control, and defense of Air Force networks. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Who ensures that NetOps and Network Defense actions are synchronized across the globe? |
|
Definition
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Term
| What are information technology systems potentially used across MAJCOMs services, or departments of the government that functional communities develop and manage? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who will centralize aspects of network security that MAJCOM NOSCs perviously performed? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are regional computing and data centers that provide enterprise services (messaging, Web, storage, etc.) and day-to0day hardware and facilities maintenance. |
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Definition
| Area Processing Centers (APC) |
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Term
| Who is typically aligned under the case communications squadron and currently provides Tier 3 (local level) on-site technical capability to implement physical network changes, modifications, and resoration of faulty network transmission equiptment and circuits when tasked? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What squadron is typically broken down into two flights with an optional third flight? |
|
Definition
| Air Force Communications Squadrons |
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Term
| Who provides network control center capabilities that include a client service center, network management, server administration, and network informaiton assurance services? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Who manages activities related to base-level command, control, communications, and computers (C4) systems planning? |
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Definition
| Plans and Resources Flight |
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Term
| Whos mission varies from providing small flyaway communication packages to rapidly deploying Expeditionary Air Base communications packages? |
|
Definition
| Combat Communications Squadron |
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Term
| Who operates complex networks, switches, and base-level communications terminal equiptment in the deployed enviroment, providing critical voice, message, and high-speed data communications for operational users? |
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Definition
| Combat Communications Squadron |
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Term
| Who's goal is to manage AF core Services, within the AFNetOps community to reduce training, maintenance costs, increase operational flexibility, and capacity to the warfighter? |
|
Definition
| Enterprise Service Unit (ESU) |
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Term
| Who provides help desk network support to all personnel at CONUS and OCONUS US Air Force Bases? |
|
Definition
| Enterprise Service Desk (ESD) |
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Term
| What document authorizes the creation of the DOD as the executive componet of government, and establishes all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps? |
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Definition
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Term
| What servces as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law? |
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Definition
| US Code Title 10 Subtitle A., Part II Chapter 47 Titled "Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)" |
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Term
| What are directives issued by competent military authority which delineate the circumstances and limitations under which the US Armed Forces will initiate and/or continue combat engagement with other forces encountered? |
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Definition
| Rules of Engagement (ROE) |
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|
Term
| What explains the Air Force's perspectives on information superiority, and the relationship between information operations and its two pillars, information warefare and informaiton-in-warefare? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are used to document standard processes as well as operate, maintain, or troubleshoot network software and equiptment and are generated for technical subjects not covered by Air Force publications or technical orders? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What are directive publications that provide essential procedural guidance on implementing Air Force policies? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What are drafted at the Air Force level and provide guidance for AFIs. |
|
Definition
| Air Force policy directives |
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|
Term
| What are drafted at the MAJCOM and field operating agency (FOA) level? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are guidance documents for procedures that contain examples for performaning standard tasks, or supporting education and training programs? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What are informational publications which are "how to" documents? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What assign directive actions, responsibilities, and prescrive procedures and are written on lower orgizational level such as a squadron or flight level? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What provide official guidance on producing, configuring, installing, maintaining, modifying and operating equiptment or systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What connects the military forces, users, and global partners with networked systems, computing infrastucture, and enterprise services to support information sharing and decision making no matter where the information is located or sources? |
|
Definition
| Defense Information Systems Agency |
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Term
| What is the leading train association representing the global informaiton and communcations technology industries through standards development, government affairs, business oportunieies, market intelligence, certifiation, and world-wide envornmental regulatory compliance? |
|
Definition
| Enterprise Information Architechure/Telecommunications Industry Association |
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Term
| What contain specifications in which commercial vendors would have to meet or exceed? |
|
Definition
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Term
| What provide us with the transmission of analogs or digital bits information to convey data over signicicant geographical distances to communicate? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is a World Wide Web (WWW) site whose purpose is to be a major staarting point for users when they connect to the web? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What are the three types of portals? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is a key enabled for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What are applications that allow users to personally obtain or update information that was previously processed by a third party? |
|
Definition
| Self-service Applications |
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|
Term
| What enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirements? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What service provides a secure, web-based collaborative enviroment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems? |
|
Definition
| Community of Practice (CoP) |
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Term
| What is defined as a workspare, which provide users a web-based collaborative enviroment where members of a group use shared information along with administrative and communications tools to conduct business, manage a project, keep abreast of important issues, and/or solve group problems? |
|
Definition
| Community of Practice (CoP) |
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|
Term
| What provides web conferencing availability to those using a Flash Player. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a collaborative tool used for orgonizations to share data and improve orgonizational effectiveness by providing comprehensive content management and enterprise search, acceleration shared business processes, and also facilitating information-sharing across boundaries for better business insight? |
|
Definition
| Microsoft Office SharePoint |
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Term
|
Definition
| Web Management and Internet use |
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|
Term
| What type of material is not considered a record? |
|
Definition
| Library and Museum materisls |
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Term
| What is defined as "... all books, papers, maps, photographs, machine readable materials, or other documentary materials, reguardless of physical form or characteristics, made of received by an agency of the United States government under federal law..." |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What are records that can be altered and not officially signed or released? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What are records that have been officially signed, released and cannot be altered? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Who must approve a command Records manager? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Who administers the installation program? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Who's duties fall into three major - providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training |
|
Definition
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Term
| Who does base-level unit, principal staff office within Air Force appoint? |
|
Definition
| Functional area records manager |
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Term
| Who is responsible for physical and legal custody of all records the all records the office creates or receives, reguardless of their physical characteristics, including identifying appropriate disposition authorities for records the office maintains? |
|
Definition
| Chief of office of record |
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Term
| Who is designated within an office of record to manage the internatl records keeping program, having guardianship and control of records. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Who will conduct an annual review of all perpetual records and delete those no longer needed by the orgonization. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office OPR records custodian. |
|
Definition
| Functional area records manager |
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|
Term
| What is the first step in file management? |
|
Definition
| Assemble the documents for filing |
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|
Term
| What is the second step in file management? |
|
Definition
| Mark the records for filing |
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|
Term
| What is the primary puspose maintraining records? |
|
Definition
| To ensure we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed. |
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Term
| What is used to identify the records filed behind it and to provide cutoff and disposition instructions for the records? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Although every worker should feel responsible for maintaining an effective office information system, who has the basic responsibility for protecting the records under their control? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What is the term used for seperating active records from inactive records at the end of the CY or at the end of the FY. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who makes sure the records custodian reviews the files at least annually, cuts off the files, and seperates active records from inactive records? |
|
Definition
| Chief of office of record |
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|
Term
| What is a comprehensive term that includes record destruction, salvage, and donation; transfer to the staging area or records center; and transfer from one organization to another. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the physical movement of records from one location to another? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the elimination and eradication of records? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disposition is based on what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the term that describes the length of the Air Force keeps a record? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who manages the staging area and is responsible for disposing or retiring records under his or her control? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Under what condition will federal records centers accept with three or more years retention remaining? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How often will NCC Staff perform backups for e-records? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where will NCC Staff backup e-records? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How long will e-records be maintained on the shared SAN drive? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible to setup and maintain deployable cyberspace communication-computer systems while assigned to an air and space expeditionary force (AEF). |
|
Definition
| Communications and Computer Systems Career Field |
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|
Term
| Who prioritizes competing requirements for limited resources through the GFM and individual augmentee (IA) process? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Designated Air Force warfighting capabilities are grouped into force packages identified by what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the basic building block used in joint force planning and deployments of AEFs. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What defines a capability composed of personnel and/or equiptment requirements needed to support the national military strategy of personnel and/or equiptment requirements needed to support the national military strategy during deliberate, crisis action, and rotational planning. |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| What has a 5-character alphanumeric code used to represent the combination of resources (equiptment) and manpower (personnel). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a state-of-the-art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, an video communications by way of line-of-sight (LOS), satellite, or hard-wired resources? |
|
Definition
| Theater deployable communications |
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|
Term
| A TDC uses one or more _____ to accomplish its mission. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What dictates the expiditionary unit's tasking and states what resources they will provide the unit to accomplish the tasking? |
|
Definition
| Designed Operational Capability |
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|
Term
| what statement containes the unit's identification, mission tasking narrative, mission specifics, and allocated resources? |
|
Definition
| Designed Operational Capability |
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|
Term
| Who will notify affected personnel and begin the allocation of any needed equiptment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a grouping of FMs/UTCs designed for commanders, Air Force forces to present a comprehensive pre-packaged Air Force capability to CCDRs? |
|
Definition
| Operational Capabilityies Packages |
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|
Term
| What uses automated data systems to support contingency and general war planning with predefined and standarized manpower and equiptment force packages? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is used as the main resource for identifying and communicating manpower and equiptment planning data for all Air Force combat and support forces? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of MEFPAK? |
|
Definition
| to provide standard force package descriptions of the force packages to be used to support contingency planning at all levels of command. |
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|
Term
| What is the process coordinated through all levels of the national structure for joint planning and execution? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What processes do combatant commanders use to determine the best method of accomplishing assigned tasks and direct the actions necessart to accomplish the mission. |
|
Definition
| Joing Operation Planning Process |
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|
Term
| What are the four database files that are essential to managing the deployment process within JOPES |
|
Definition
| Global Status of Resources and Training System |
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|
Term
| these codes aid force movement planning. |
|
Definition
| Geographic Location Code File |
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|
Term
| Number of passengers and the weights and dimensions of designed cargo? |
|
Definition
| Type unit characteristics file |
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|
Term
| What is used to develop and describe standard, predefined manpower and equipment force capabilities. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a database containing the UTC and title, mission capability (MISCAP), and manpower detail for each applicable UTC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the objective of manfor? |
|
Definition
| to provide joint and Air Force planners with standardized force capabilities documenting manpower requirements for execution, operations, and deployment planning documents. MANFOR also provides a means to communicate standard wartime, force planning, and contingency manpower requirements to all levels of command within the Air Force. |
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|
Term
| What is a subsystem of both MEFPAK and contingency operations mobility planning and execution system (COMPES) which contains the logistics detail for standard Air Force packages. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| defines the standard equipment requirements for each UTC andprovides equipment planning data for deploying units. Equipment planning data for use by Air Force units in their deployment plans. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| aircraft that can carry cameras, sensors, communications equipment, or other payloads. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are designed to support tactical commanders with near real-time imagery intelligence at ranges up to 200 kilometers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| imagery to the warfighter in near real-time. |
|
Definition
| high altitude endurance (HAE) |
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|
Term
| What consists of state-of-the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications by way of line of sight (LOS), satellite, or hard wired resources. |
|
Definition
| Theater deployable communications |
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|
Term
| What is comprised of highly transportable commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS) communications equipment, housed in transit cases, and is fully scalable to meet new Air Force mission (in many cases, joint service) requirements? |
|
Definition
| Theater Deployable Communications |
|
|
Term
| Characteristic: These equipment modules should be expandable and packaged for deployment in standard 19-inch rack mounted transit cases, vehicles, and/or shelterized configurations. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Characteristic: These modules have flexible characteristics which in many cases can support other information systems services including voice, data, message, imagery, facsimile, video, and E-mail. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Characteristic: Modules comply with established international or commercial communication standards, open systems architectures governed by the government open systems interconnect profile, and theater battle management standards. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Characteristic: Size, weight, power requirements, and equipment set-up times are kept to an absolute minimum to support transportation, deployment, and operations in a deployed environment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Characteristic: The system must be capable of withstanding external forces such as vibration and impact, as well as adverse environmental conditions such as sand, rain, extreme temperatures and humidity. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Secret Sensitive Compartmented Information (TS-SCI). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| achieve additional capability with minimum interruption of service to existing subscribers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are a family of transportable satellite terminals providing access to both military and commercial satellite systems? |
|
Definition
| Ground satellite terminals |
|
|
Term
| What is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of deployed communication networks |
|
Definition
| Integrated communications access package |
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|
Term
| What is comprised of COTS circuit switches, hubs and routers, multiplexers, and on-base transmission (radio and laser) and encryption devices. |
|
Definition
| Integrated communications access package |
|
|
Term
| Whos mission is to deploy worldwide in support of operational forces at host nation or bare base locations, providing basic airfield services and combat airspace support to the theater AOC? |
|
Definition
| Deployable Air Traffic Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS) |
|
|
Term
| What can provide the capability to identify, sequence, and separate aircraft; provide final approach guidance and control instructions to aircraft at deployed locations in all types of weather? |
|
Definition
| Deployable Air Traffic Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS) |
|
|
Term
| What can be tasked to provide liaison, control tower, Radar Approach Control (RAPCON), precision landing, and mobile Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN) services as a standalone unit or in any combination? |
|
Definition
| Deployable Air Traffic Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS) |
|
|
Term
| What provides sustaining airfield operations to supplement the initial deployment phase and provide required positive control IFR capability up to dual runway precision approach. |
|
Definition
| Deployable Air Traffic Control and Landing Systems (DATCALS) |
|
|
Term
| Who is considered support staff for the Chief of AOC Systems and contains personnel who have specific working knowledge of the AOC mission, oversee site operations, and provide direct C4I system and communications support to the AOC? |
|
Definition
| Communications Focal Point |
|
|
Term
| What team normally consists of the following personnel: Chief AOC Networks, Network Administration Technician, Information Assurance Operations Technician, and Configuration Management Technician and team provides secure and non-secure voice data and video capability. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This layer of the OSI model is closest to the end user. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| This layer of the OSI model layers deal with the user interface, formatting data, and access to applications. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These layer of the OSI model is responsible for defining how data is sent across the physical media, through Internetwork devices, to the destination computer, and to the application on the destination machine. |
|
Definition
| Physical and Data Link layer |
|
|
Term
| What units are established to operate with an Air Expeditionary Task Force (AETF). |
|
Definition
| Expeditionary communications squadrons |
|
|
Term
| The organizational structure of an expeditionary communications squadron is no different from an ingarrison communications squadron. |
|
Definition
| Expeditionary communications squadrons |
|
|
Term
| What unit is created to fill unique responsibilities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What governs Armed Forces activities in joint operations? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The system is designed to provide a secure (up to Top Secret) communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force's strategic aircraft and missile functions. |
|
Definition
| Strategic Automated Command and Control System |
|
|
Term
| The NMCS provides the President and the SecDef with all the information, warning, and intelligence data they need to make accurate and timely decisions and the means to transmit direction to the combatant commands. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The NMCC is located in the Joint Staff area of the Pentagon, and is responsible for the generation of Emergency Action Messages (EAMs) to notify launch control centers, nuclear submarines, reconnaissance aircraft and battlefield commanders around the world. |
|
Definition
| National Military Command Center |
|
|
Term
| What program was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat Air Forces (CAF) and Joint/Combined Forces. |
|
Definition
| Theater Battle Management Core System |
|
|
Term
| What system consists of four air vehicles, a ground control station, a data dissemination system, and a required team of 55 personel for full operational mode. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a purpose built armed, TUAV and is a cross development between current weaponized UAVs and Manned Strike platforms that provide tactical air support. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A-UTC are placeholders for all deployable positions that cannot be descrived or do not fit into an existing standard UTC. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| These types of records are records the Archivist of the United States has decided to have enduring value because they document the organization and functions of the Air Force. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides a secure interface for computer workstations and local network devices (hubs, switches, etc.) using IP to exchange classified data between nodes of the network. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) focuses its attention on the administration of servers and server farms throughout Air Force installations worldwide? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibility includes local base helpdesk/client support and "hands-on" maintenance actions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the deployment, sustainment, troubleshooting, and repairing of standard radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight, wideband and ground based satellite devices? |
|
Definition
| Radio Frequency Transmission |
|
|
Term
| Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation, maintains and repairs of fixed and deployable air traffic, weather, ground air control, and warning radar systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which 3D Air Force Specialty (AFS) responsibilities include the installation and maintenance for large scale network wiring in support of fixed and deployed operations? |
|
Definition
| Cable and Antenna Systems |
|
|
Term
| From which of the following can a person absorb selectively damaging amounts of radiation that will result in deep tissue harming organs with little or no sensation of skin heating? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which occupational risk management (ORM) principle requests you to weigh the risks against opportunities and benefits to help maximize unit capability? |
|
Definition
| Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs |
|
|
Term
| How do offensive operations support United States cyberspace objectives? |
|
Definition
| denying, degrading, disrupting, destroying or altering the adversary's ability to use cyberspace. |
|
|
Term
| Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility? |
|
Definition
| Air Force Policy Directives |
|
|
Term
| Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal? |
|
Definition
| virtual Military Personnel Flight (vMPF) |
|
|
Term
| When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette? |
|
Definition
| Consistently use the "Reply-to-All" feature |
|
|
Term
| Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a logical group of records? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an organized collection of data or data structures? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office's file plan? |
|
Definition
| Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS) |
|
|
Term
| Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records centers, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise? |
|
Definition
| Any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction. |
|
|
Term
| AFPD 10-4, Operations Planning: Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) aligns what requirements with a matching force generation model? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organization is responsible for air and space expeditionary force (AEF) sourcing of individual augmentees, Joint Manning Document authorizations, and managing replacements for 365-day or greater requirements? |
|
Definition
| Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) |
|
|
Term
| What places air and space expeditionary force (AEF) forces in a "ready to deploy" state and supports global requirements, home station requirements or support to Combatant Commanders (CCDR)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who has the primary mission of providing the joint force air component commander (JFACC) with the tools necessary to fight and win a major theater war within the scope and coordination of all land, sea, and air forces? |
|
Definition
| Air and Space Operations Center |
|
|
Term
| Combatant Evacuation Operations (NEO) and support to International Law Enforcement are all examples of what? |
|
Definition
| operational capabilities packages |
|
|
Term
| As of September 2004, how many total flight hours have coalition unmanned aircrafts flown? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which component of theater deployable communications (TDC) is a suite of modules and accessory kits serving as the backbone of a deployed communication network? |
|
Definition
| Integrated communications access package (ICAP) |
|
|
Term
| The 85th Engineering and Installation Squadron (EIS) is assigned to who? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| disseminates, and uses information? |
|
Definition
| Command, control, communications, computers, intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (C4ISR) |
|
|
Term
| interconnected through the SIPRNET? |
|
Definition
| Global Command and Control System (GCCS) |
|
|
Term
| Which major system employs the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES), Global Status of Resources and Training System (GSORTS), Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES), and Common Operational Picture (COP) systems? |
|
Definition
| Global Command and Control System (GCCS) |
|
|
Term
| Which system primarily deals with logistics planning data, such as transportation, personnel, and material requirements? |
|
Definition
| Global Combat Support System (GCSS) |
|
|
Term
| Which system of interconnected computer networks is used by the United States Department of Defense and the United States Department of State? |
|
Definition
| Joint Worldwide Intelligence Communications System (JWICS) |
|
|
Term
| Which Air Force specific system uses the global information grid (GIG) backbone for inter-site communications and was designed to provide an automated and integrated planning and execution capability to the Combat Air Forces (CAF) and Joint/Combined Forces? |
|
Definition
| Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS) |
|
|
Term
| Which system provides a solution to a decrease in manpower and increase in requirements, at the same time, taking advantage of new technological developments to deliver superior connectivity, flexibility, speed, reliability, and joint interoperability? |
|
Definition
| Theater Battle Management Core System (TBMCS) |
|
|
Term
| Which command and control structure is a priority component of the global information grid (GIG) designed to support the President, SECDEF, and the JCS in the exercise of their responsibilities? |
|
Definition
| National Military Command System (NMCS) |
|
|
Term
| Which command and control structure is a primary network used to transmit the emergency action messages (EAM) generated by the National Military Command Center (NMCC) to the war fighting commanders in the field? |
|
Definition
| Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) |
|
|
Term
| Which command and control structure has network node whose survivability is achieved using nuclear hardened equipment, redundant circuits, and alternate communications paths? |
|
Definition
| Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS) |
|
|
Term
| Which system was originally designed as a specialized system for Army, Navy, and Air Force technicians to use as a tool to troubleshoot network problems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which program was created in response to the FY 97-03 Defense Planning Guidance that directed a "program to migrate to a multi intelligence, common, interoperable, open systems ground systems architecture? |
|
Definition
| Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS) |
|
|
Term
| Which systems basic functions operational elements are tasking, processing, exploitation, and dissemination (TPED)? |
|
Definition
| Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS) |
|
|
Term
| Which system is a radar tracker and correlator software program that is hosted on a powerful server based computer system, which takes inputs from long and short range radars and displays it all on a scope (computer monitor)? |
|
Definition
| Base Control System-Fixed (BCS-F) |
|
|
Term
| Which system capitalizes on the popular commercial direct broadcast satellite technology to provide critical information to the nation's warfighters? |
|
Definition
| Global Broadcast Service (GBS) |
|
|
Term
| Which system is a service that broadcasts via communication payloads on military satellites (Ka band) and commercial satellites (Ku Band)? |
|
Definition
| Global Broadcast Service (GBS) |
|
|
Term
| Which system is a USAF program supporting Global, Defense Communication System (DCS) HF Entry, Mystic Star, and System of Inter American Telecommunications for the Air Forces (SITFAA) missions? |
|
Definition
| High Frequency-Global Communications System (HF-GCS) |
|
|
Term
| Which system provides high-quality voice/data HF and ultra-high frequency (UHF) satellite communications to the president, vice president, cabinet members, and other senior government and military officials while aboard special airlift mission (SAM) aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which system provides the ability to rapidly detect and identify airborne targets with minimal or no support? |
|
Definition
| Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS) |
|
|
Term
| Which system can be deployed in either the Control Reporting Center or Control Reporting Element configurations? |
|
Definition
| Ground Theater Air Control (GTACS) |
|
|
Term
| What function provides the Department of Defense (DOD) with the capability to reach hundreds of thousands of people via personal computers (PC), personal digital assistants (PDAs), land and cell phones, pagers, Blackberry devices, and/or giant voice systems in realtime? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which document would you reference to see your specific AFSC responsibilities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What information is used to make classification decisions and verify the need to correct classification documents, remove tasks personnel no longer perform, and identify new responsibilities? |
|
Definition
| Occumpational Analysis Information |
|
|
Term
| What type of workshop brings MAJCOM functional managers and subject matter experts together to determine the most effective and efficient way to ensure training standards and skill-level requirements of a career field are accurate? |
|
Definition
| U&TW (Utilization and Training Workshop) |
|
|
Term
| What do the training advisory groups provide? |
|
Definition
| Cohesive approach to address training management issues affecting AFSCs |
|
|
Term
| Why do 3D personnel need job rotation? |
|
Definition
| To foster personal and professional growth as well as to achieve a wide breadth of experience within the career field. |
|
|
Term
| What must you know to progress up the career ladder? |
|
Definition
| You must know all aspect of your career field. |
|
|
Term
| With whom would you corridate the disposal of hazardous waste material? |
|
Definition
| Host installation environmental management such as the base bioenvironmental engineering. |
|
|
Term
| What is ionizing radiation (radioactivity)? |
|
Definition
| Electromagenetic radiation whose waves contain energy sufficient to overcome the binding energy of electrons in atoms or molecules, thus creating ions? |
|
|
Term
| How does the AF obtain the AFOSH goal of minimizing incidences of chemically induced occupational illnesses and injuries in the work areas/shops? |
|
Definition
| Establishing guidance for training employees on the health and physical hazards associated with proper preventive measures. |
|
|
Term
| Who normally conducts first-aid and CPR training for unti instructors? |
|
Definition
| Installation medical facilty |
|
|
Term
| Define operational risk management |
|
Definition
| Decision-making process to systematically evaluate possible courses of action, identify risks and benefits, and determine the best course of action for any given situation. |
|
|
Term
| Where should emergency control switches be installed in data processing rooms; what should they disconnect? |
|
Definition
| Best located at designated exit doors. These controls will disconnect the ventilation system servign the room and selective power to all electrical equipment in teh room except lighting. |
|
|
Term
| When handling computer memory chips, what can you do to reduce electrostatic hazards? |
|
Definition
| Use a grounding strap to elimiate the build up or discharge of electrostatic energy before you touched them to prevent possible chip damage. |
|
|
Term
| State the three classes of ESD |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What preventive measures can you take against ESDs when you are a workstation? |
|
Definition
| Wear conductive wrist strap. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two divisions that are a functional part of the AFNOC? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for the networthiness of information technology systems? |
|
Definition
| Information system owners |
|
|
Term
| centralizes those aspects of network security previously performed by the MAJCOM NOSCs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does the Operations Flight (SCO) provide to their customers? |
|
Definition
| Technical and systems support for wing communications and computer systems including ground radio, voice networks, airfield systems, and secure communications maintenance |
|
|
Term
| Who is responsible for base-level communication security programs, such as Communications Security, Emission Security, and Spectrum Information Assurance. |
|
Definition
| Plans and Resources Flight (SCX) |
|
|
Term
| Who mainly develops ROE, and who is responsible for individual unit compliance? |
|
Definition
| - General officers with approval from the National Command Authority. |
|
|
Term
| Who has inspection responsibility over the National Guard? |
|
Definition
| The department secretaries of the US Army and Air Force. |
|
|
Term
| What can the results of the Schmitt Analysis be used for? |
|
Definition
| To classify operations as either military or diplomatic. |
|
|
Term
| According to the Air Force's operations doctrine what are the two pillars of IO? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What differs from AFIs in that they are written at a much lower organizational level such as a squadron or flight level. |
|
Definition
| Operational Instructions (OIs) |
|
|
Term
| What is the most important part of the Air Force portal initiative? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who manages access groups for organizational content publishers? |
|
Definition
| Advanced content managers |
|
|
Term
| Who is considered the "owner" of some amount of content on the Air Force portal? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Air Force goal concerning accessibility to Internet resources? |
|
Definition
| To provide personnel requiring access for official business maximum accessibility to Internet resources. |
|
|
Term
| Who appoints Air Force portal content managers and content publishers for public and private websites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When should you use e-mail summaries? |
|
Definition
| Use summaries to sum up a lengthy e-mail or to re-emphasize topics of significant importance. |
|
|
Term
| How must Air Force units at all levels manage records? |
|
Definition
| Systematically to make sure they are complete, accurate, trustworthy, and easily accessible. |
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of a staging area? |
|
Definition
| For temporary storage of records pending destruction of transfer to a federal records center. |
|
|
Term
| How will protection be applied to files and folders containing sensitive privacy act data? |
|
Definition
| By using passwords and group permissions. |
|
|
Term
| Who must monitor the e-file box and assist and or file the records in the box? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What items do you remove from a document prior to filing? |
|
Definition
| Remove all mail control forms and receipts, envelopes, and memo routing or coordination slips, except those containing remarks of significant record value. |
|
|
Term
| How is a record marked for filing? |
|
Definition
| Mark records for file by using the word "file" and the proper official's initials. Mark for file and file code in the upper right hand corner of the record. Use the item number of the separate series from the file plan. |
|
|
Term
| How many tables and rules can be applied to each record series? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the requirements for placing disposition control labels on a guide card? |
|
Definition
| Usually affixed to the first (left) tap position of the guide card, the main thing is to be consistent throughout your files. |
|
|
Term
| What purpose does the disposition guide card serve? |
|
Definition
| Serves to identify the records filed behind it and to provide cutoff and disposition instructions for the records. |
|
|
Term
| Where do you place the disposition control label on records located away from the file drawer? |
|
Definition
| Place the disposition control label either on each container or on a card or sheet of paper in the container or binder, where it is obvious |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Place on the first container or on each container. |
|
|
Term
| Name the three record cutoff categories. |
|
Definition
| (1) N/A - disposition instruction does not contain a month or year. |
|
|
Term
| When is a separate SF 135 prepared? |
|
Definition
| A separate SF 135 is prepared for each series of temporary records in a shipment and for permanent records. You must also prepare a separate SF 135 for unclassified, SECRET, CONFIDENTIAL, and TOP SECRET records, regardless of volume, when records are placed in a staging area. |
|
|
Term
| What record management advice did the DOD provide on 15 Aug 2003? |
|
Definition
| That records on combat operations such as Iraq and those of all major deployments are of historical value and must be preserved for future studies and analyses. |
|
|
Term
| Who is the Air Force working with to establish archiving capabilities? |
|
Definition
| NARA and other major AOR areas such as CENTAF, to establish archiving capabilities within the AOR and to develop standard procedures for formatting and transferring e-records. |
|
|
Term
| What actions must you take to prevent the compromise of paper or magnetic records? |
|
Definition
| Records may be destroyed by any method that prevents compromise, such as tearing, burning, or shredding, as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction. Degauss or overwrite magnetic tapes or other magnetic medium. |
|
|
Term
| What AF command is appointed as the primary for cyberspace missions? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do defensive operations handle network intrusions? |
|
Definition
| Detect and deny access when unauthorized intrusions are attempted. |
|
|
Term
| What is the goal of AFNetOps? |
|
Definition
| To provide effective, efficient, secure and reliable information network services used in critical DOD and Air Force C&I processes. |
|
|
Term
| What title defines all Federal Crimes? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What Title includes the War Power Resolution Act and expands on Constitutional Authority to enter US forces into conflict? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Who manages Air Force publications? |
|
Definition
| AF Departmental Publishing Office |
|
|
Term
| What are the AF portal's three key features? |
|
Definition
| 1. Common virtual platform for access and sharing accurate information |
|
|
Term
| What spectrum of topics does the AF portal cover? |
|
Definition
| Missions and processes including business, combat support and command and control processes |
|
|
Term
| Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFI 33-129, Web Management and Internet Use, by military personnel is a violation of which UCMJ article? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What contributed to the need for an EMR solution? |
|
Definition
| Rapid technological advances. |
|
|
Term
| What should you do prior to filing a document if an attachment is missing? |
|
Definition
| Get the missing records/information included in the file. |
|
|
Term
| What items do you remove from a document prior to filing? |
|
Definition
| Remove all mail control forms and receipts, envelopes, and memo routing/coordination slips except those containing remarks of significant record value. |
|
|
Term
| What is the first item in a file plan? |
|
Definition
| The file maintenance and disposition plan. |
|
|
Term
| What purpose does the disposition guide card serve? |
|
Definition
| Used to identify the records filed behind it and to provide cutoff and disposition instructions for the records. |
|
|
Term
| How do records custodians accomplish the end-of-year closeout? |
|
Definition
| Transfer physical records to the inactive files area or to the staging area. |
|
|
Term
| What minimum items should be included on deployed unit file plans? |
|
Definition
| Items that cover maintenance and disposition, policy and precedent, delegations, general correspondence, office admin files, transitory, word processing files hard copy, maintained in organized file and presentation in accordance with the AF Records Disposition Schedule |
|
|
Term
| How has the AEF concept changed AF operations? |
|
Definition
| Retooling from a stay-at-home/fixed-base mindset to an expeditionary/deployable one Developing the means to spread tasking across the force to relieve the increase in deployments on a small number of units Increasing stability and the predictablilty of deployments for our people |
|
|
Term
| DOD directed integrated joint command and control (C2) system used for conventional operation planning and execution (including theater-level nuclear and chemical plans). |
|
Definition
| What is JOPES and what was designed to facilitate? |
|
|
Term
| What does the TUCHA file contain? |
|
Definition
| Contains deployment data for all approved DOD UTCs, this includes the number of passengers and weights and dimensions of designed cargo. |
|
|
Term
| What are the two types of UTC's |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What altitude can the RQ-4 Global Hawk reach? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three components of the Predator system? |
|
Definition
| - The UAV with its associated sensors and communications equipment |
|
|
Term
| What is the range of the TPN-24 for air traffic controllers to identify and locate aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How many display indicators present information to the air traffic controllers from ASR and PAR systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What information is provided by the PAR? |
|
Definition
| Azimuth and elevation information to aircraft from 20 nautical miles away to runway touchdown. |
|
|
Term
| What does the MSN-7 provide? |
|
Definition
| Establish and sustain air traffic control capabilities when forces initially arrive at a forward operating location |
|
|
Term
| How fast can the 85th EIS respond to wartime and emergency peacetime restoration of information systems? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of major systems do C-E technicians install within SCMG? |
|
Definition
| Initial telecommunications engineering, RF direction finding and engineering installation needs for ground, radar, satellite, wideband and secure communication systems, air traffic control and landing systems element (ATCALS) and meterological and Nav (METNAV) systems. |
|
|
Term
| What service does the 85th EIS provide under SCMC? |
|
Definition
| Provides worldwide rapid response for enginnering, installation, and reapir of all forms of copper and fiber-optic cables for telephone, LAN/WAN antenna and application-specific systems as well as antennas for radar, narrow and wideband radio and finally satellite antenna systems. |
|
|
Term
| What is the AOC used for? |
|
Definition
| Planning, Executing, and Assessing theater-wide air and space operations. |
|
|
Term
| How many sites employ the GCCS system? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| The National Security Agency Network, a worldwide telecommunications network supporting voice, data and video for both classified and unclassified requirements? |
|
|
Term
| What project will replace SEAMARK? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the Distributed Common Ground System? |
|
Definition
| A Collection of Communication systems |
|
|
Term
| The CONUS is divided into how many air defense sectors? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Where is the Alaskan Regional Air Operations Center (AKRAOC) located? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What topology consists of devices connect to a common, shared cable? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What topology consists of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What topology defines the way in which devices communicate, and data is transmitted throughout the network? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is a formal set of rules and conventions that govern how computers exchange information over a network medium? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what Open System Interconnect layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what Open System Interconnect layer do routers operate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers divide the Open System Interconnect Data Link Layers into what two sublayers? |
|
Definition
| Logical Link Control and Media Access Control |
|
|
Term
| At what Open System Interconnect layer do network switches and bridges operate? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which network protocol has the Department of Defense chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information? |
|
Definition
| TCP/IP (Transport Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) |
|
|
Term
| destination device to a MAC address |
|
Definition
| ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) |
|
|
Term
| What TCP/IP network layer protocol provides the IP address for a device that knows its own MAC address? |
|
Definition
| RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) |
|
|
Term
| What TCP/IP network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting? |
|
Definition
| ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) |
|
|
Term
| What TCP/IP transport layer protocol provides reliable data delivery services? |
|
Definition
| TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) |
|
|
Term
| What application within TCP/IP is used to send and recieve files via TCP? |
|
Definition
| FTP (File Transfer Protocol) |
|
|
Term
| What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances between cities, states, countries, or around the world? |
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Definition
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Term
| What type of network makes use of tunneling and security protocols to enable a group of two or more computer systems to communicate of the public Internet? |
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Definition
| VPN (Virtual Private Network) |
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Term
| Which is a common port that contains Hyper Text Transfer Protocol servers and proxies? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| How many bits are in an IPv4 address? |
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Definition
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Term
| Instead of using binary, how are IPv4 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| Using a range of 1-126 in the first octet of an IPv4 address, what class does it belong to? |
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Definition
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Term
| What IPv4 class address is used for networks with about 250 nodes? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What IPv4 class address is used for multicast addressing? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What IPv4 reserved address is used for loop back? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What is a mechanism that allows a network device to divide an IP address into a network and host number? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the default classful subnet mask on class B networks? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What method borrows bits from the host field of an IP address to create a subnet? |
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Definition
| CIDR (Classless Inter-Domain Routing) |
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Term
| Instead of using binary, how are IPv6 addresses expressed to be more user-friendly? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What notation is expressed in leading zero compression for IPv6? |
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Definition
| 1234:1234:0:0:1234:0:0:1234 |
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Term
| What notation is expressed in zero compression for IPv6? |
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Definition
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Term
| What Unicast address scope is designed to be private, internally routable addresses that do not route outside the site? |
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Definition
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Term
| What Unicast address scope is publicly accessible with the Network ID portion of the address broken up into different areas allowing for hierarchical design and allocation? |
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Definition
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Term
| The computing part of the computer is the CPU, also called what? |
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Definition
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Term
| What two main components make up the CPU? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What is the type of memory that retains data after power is removed or lost? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which landline transmission medium is the primary carrier of voice communications? |
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Definition
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Term
| An optical communications system is comprised of what three parts? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is not one of the three advantages to using wireless technology? |
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Definition
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Term
| The ability to move about without being tethered by wires in wireless technology is called what? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is not one of the four security threats to WLAN? |
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Definition
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Term
| Who is an authorized client that may unknowingly or maliciously help outside parties gain access to a network? |
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Definition
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Term
| What organization developed several wireless standards to meet the demands of security, speed and flexibility of today's wireless networks? |
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Definition
| IEEE (Institute of Electrical Engineers) |
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Term
| How many peripherals can a USB handle at once? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| How many devices can connect to a FireWire bus? |
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Definition
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Term
| What do you apply across a Liquid Crystal Display material to change the alignment and light polarizing property? |
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Definition
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Term
| What is a Data Link layer network device that logically separates a single network into two segments or collision domains in Ethernet networks? |
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Definition
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Term
| What rule establishes the percent of data that should be local to a segment and the percentage of data that should be destined to traverse a bridge to the other segment? |
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Definition
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Term
| This type of bridge is used to convert one Data Link layer protocol to another. |
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Definition
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Term
| What is the method called when the entire frame is received and placed into the buffer, an error check is performed, and the frame is sent to the proper port for delivery? |
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Definition
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Term
| What forwarding method is also known as runtless switching? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What layer of the open system interconnection model do routers operate? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| What do rounting algorithms initialize and maintain to aid the process of path determination? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which of these is an example of an Exterior Gateway Protocol? |
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Definition
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Term
| Dynamic routing automatically calculates the best path between how many nodes? |
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Definition
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Term
| What encryption device may you rarely see due to its lower maximum data rate? |
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Definition
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Term
| What encryption device is certified to secure all classification levels and categories and is able to encrypt trunk-level high-speed circuits? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What encryption device is capable of loading up to 500 keys? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| The classificiation of a fill device is determined by what? |
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Definition
| A fill device is classified as soon as a key is loaded, and holds the classification of the loaded key |
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Term
| Analog modems are used over what voice band ranges? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What is the main function of the Data Service Unit? |
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Definition
| The main function of the Data Service Unit is to adapt the digital data stream produced by the customer equipment to the signaling standards of the telephone carrier equipment. |
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Term
| Software is generally divided into what categories? |
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Definition
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Term
| Which one is not a category of the operating system's task categories? |
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Definition
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Term
| The path between the operating system and virtually all hardware not on the computer's motherboard goes through a special program called what? |
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Definition
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Term
| The core operating-system function is the management of the computer system which resides within what? |
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Definition
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Term
| Applications are software programs designed to perform what type of tasks? |
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Definition
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Term
| What are two anti-virus programs that the Air Forces uses? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Windows operating systems traditionally function in one of two network models. Which model does not operate using centralized user accounts? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| Which system provides support for features such as Windows System Resource Manager and Metadirectory Services? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| One of the Windows Server Editions operating systems provides support for high-end, high traffic applications servers. Which operating system is it? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What was the first disk operating system developed to operate on a wide range of computer systems? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the name of the standard all-purpose shell most commonly used? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| What directory is always identified by the slash symbol (/) and is in the "a" partition? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which pathnames begin at the current working directory? |
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Definition
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Term
| What component of the GIG consists of those items that are necessary to directly connect the warfighter to the global network? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What characterisitic of the GIG ensures seamless transmission of information between different service branches? |
|
Definition
| common policy and standards |
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|
Term
| Who bears the responsibility for maintenance of the sustating base portion of the Defense Information System Network? |
|
Definition
| The Installation that owns the service |
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|
Term
| Which segment of the DISN may be a person in the deployed Area of Responsibility or a person sitting in a fixed location thousands of miles from combat? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between a hub router and a premise router? |
|
Definition
| Interconnected via the Defense Information Systems Agency Asynchronous Transfer Mode network |
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|
Term
| Which is an internet protocol encryption device that can be directly connected to Red local area networks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What provides conduit for JWICS data transmission from one location to another? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What concerns slowed the military's adoption of wireless network technology? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the first step in merging voice, data and video networks into one integrated network within the Air Force? |
|
Definition
| Integrating traditional TDM switches with voice over IP systems |
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|
Term
| Besides limiting connections to the GIG, what other Combat Information Transport System initiative will help increase network security? |
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Definition
| Eliminating the MAJCOM NOSC concept and integrating the functions into two I-NOSCs |
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|
Term
| Which organization is responsible for the design, acquisition and single systems management of the Defense Switched Network? |
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Definition
| Defense Information System Agency |
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|
Term
| How is responsiveness provided in the Defense Switch Network? |
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Definition
| The DSN officers precendence access thresholding |
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|
Term
| What type of Defense Switched Network precedence call cannot be preempted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the maximum asynchronous data rate for the Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN)? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| While you are using the Red Switch, what feature lets you know that you have dialed the correct number at the proper level of security? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the purpose of the standarized tactical entry point terminal? |
|
Definition
| To provide a foxhole to National Command Authority link for commanders. |
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|
Term
| The GPS program is responsible for maintaining GPS time to within how many seconds of universal time code? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Which security program is covered under AFI 10-701? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| What security program is defined as a process of identifying critical information and subsequently analyzing friendly actions attendant to military operations and other activities? |
|
Definition
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|
Term
| Providing a list of where and why the information will be disclosed outside the DOD best describes which mandatory item of a Privacy Act Statement? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What form is used as a cover sheet to protect Privacy Act material? |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| Official guidance on individual security clearances and permitting access to classified information can be found in |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Disclosure of information that would result in the loss, misuse, modificiation or unauthorized access that might adversely affect national security would best be described as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the COMSEC program designed to do? |
|
Definition
| Detect and correct procedural weaknesses that could expose critical information |
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|
Term
| What reference would you use for guidance on Air Force messaging? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form is used with a transfer report to accompany a COMSEC package? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form is used as a visitor register log to record visitotrs into restricted areas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An uninvestigated or unevaluated occurrence that potentially jeopardizes the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of government information is best described as a COMSEC |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which organization assigns communication security incident report case numbers? |
|
Definition
| Air Force Communications Agency |
|
|
Term
| Final reports of a communication security incident are due |
|
Definition
| 30 days after the initial report is issued |
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|
Term
| The Air Force Information Assurance Program is detailed where? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which applied discipline applies measures and controls to protect data in computer systems against unauthorized, disclosure, modification or destruction? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What best describes an unintended signals or noise appearing external to a piece of communications equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An unclassified term referring to technical investigations for compromising emanations from electrically operated data processing equipment is known as |
|
Definition
| Telecommunications Electronic Material Protected from Emanating Spurious Transmissions |
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|
Term
| Which condition exists when there is no apparent terrorist activity against computer networks? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which condition requires the mandate of icnreased monitoring of all network system activities when an increased risk of attack is present? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a risk of a network system attack has been identified, which condition requires all unclassified dial-up connections be disconnected? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which condition permits non-essential networks to be taken offline and substituted with alternate methods of communication? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At which NETOPS level is responsibility for the worldwide management and operational oversight of the defense information infrastructure globally managed? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At what level do regional operation centers perofmr Network Operations (NETOPS) to ensure operational and administrative control by implementing Systems and Network Management Information Assurance/Network Defense (IA/NetD), and Information Dissemination Management? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| An accreditation decision which allows a system to operate in an environment for which it was originally intended is known as |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires a significant degree of deterrence against hostile acts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which resources designated priority is provided when the level of security requires reasonable degree of deterrence against hostile acts? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which form would you use to properly label removable storage media containing "confidential" information? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What type of network is also used as a means to interconnect several local area networks by bridging them with backbone lines? |
|
Definition
| A Metropolitan Area Network or campus network |
|
|
Term
| What type computer port specifies a service that is a process or application that runs on a server and provides some benefit to a network user? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is teh port used when you do credit card transactions with e-commerce sites? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What class has 16,384 networks, with 65,534 hosts on each network |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the IPv6 loop back address? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are the three types of unicast address? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What are some tools available to transition from IPv4 to IPv6? |
|
Definition
| Dual IP layer/Dual stack, configured tunneling of IPv6 over IPv4, IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses, and automatic tunneling of IPv6 over IPv4. |
|
|
Term
| What is the difference between ROM and RAM? |
|
Definition
| ROM is a type of memory that can only be read, as opposed to RAM, which can be both read and written. The data stored in ROM is always there, whether there is power or no power. RAM will retain their data as long as stable power is applied. |
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|
Term
| What speed enhancement is a small amount of meory placed inside the CPU or between the CPU and the main memory computer? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| At the simplest level, state the two things done by an operating system? |
|
Definition
| 1. It manages the hardware and software resources of teh computer system. These resources include such things as the processor, memory, disk drives, sound card, etc. |
|
|
Term
| Name the six categories of an operating system's task. |
|
Definition
| Processor management, memory management, device management, storage management, application interface, and user interface |
|
|
Term
| Applications are called what type of programs? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What program is free to download from Adobe's website that allows you to PDF files? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the program called that you interact with directly from your terminal or workstation? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Name four coomon shells in UNIX. |
|
Definition
| Bourne shell, Korn shell, C shell and Restricted shell |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| Physical areas of disk allocated with specific sizes to hold file systems |
|
|
Term
| When are partitions established? |
|
Definition
| During system configuration |
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