Term
| 233-1. What factors should you consider when planning the installation of IDS? |
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Definition
| Equipment capabilities and limitations, mission criticality, and threat to the resources that are to be protected. |
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Term
| 233-2. How does IDS assist SF capabilities? |
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Definition
| By alerting security personnel to an approach, intrusion, or attempted intrusion |
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Term
| 233-3. What type of system should the installed IDS be? |
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Definition
| A “closed” system, not allowing access from external source |
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Term
| 233-4. What is the main purpose of a boundary fence? |
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Definition
| To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry |
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Term
| 233-5. What does a clear zone consists of? |
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Definition
| A 30 foot area inside and outside the site perimeter fence. |
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Term
| 233-6. For what purpose does the area lighting need to illuminate the interior of the restricted area? |
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Definition
| To help personnel detect and track intruders |
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Term
| 233-7. What must a line of detection detect? |
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Definition
| A person walking, running, rolling, crawling across, or jumping through the line of detection |
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Term
233-8. Match the IDS equipment subsystem in column B with the characteristic it is associated with in column A. Items in column B may be used once.
Column A
Column B
_____ (1) Central operation control and monitoring of IDS.
_____ (2) Detects intruder movement.
_____ (3) Automatic startup of emergency backup power.
_____ (4) Links sensors with control and monitoring consoles.
a. Sensor.
b. Annunciator, control, and display.
c. Communication.
d. Power Sources. |
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Definition
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Term
233-9. Match the IDS interior sensors in column B with the characteristic it is associated with in column A. Items in column B may be used once.
Column A
Column B
____ (1) Measures thermal energy.
____ (2) Uses an “AND” or an “OR” gating scheme.
____ (3) Operates on magnetic field principles.
____ (4) Transmits a field of energy into an area.
a. Balanced magnetic switch.
b. Passive infrared.
c. Microwave.
d. Dual phenomenology. |
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Definition
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Term
233-10. Match the IDS exterior sensors in column B with the characteristic it is associated with in column A. Items in column B may be used once.
Column A
Column B
_____ (1) Used in areas such as taxiway gaps.
_____ (2) Tensioning devices attached to outriggers.
_____ (3) Opto-electronic device used to detect vehicles.
_____ (4) Detect transmit signal power changes in receiver.
_____ (5) Uses “leaky” coaxial cable technology.
_____ (6) Transducer cable attached to fence fabric.
_____ (7) Pair of coaxial cable with sheath open.
_____ (8) Hair-like strands of glass or plastic.
a. Strain-sensitive cable.
b. Taut wire.
c. Ported coaxial cable.
d. Microwave fence system.
e. Active infrared.
f. Fiber optic.
g. Perimitrax.
h. Infrared pulsed IDS |
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Definition
(1) d.
(2) b.
(3) h.
(4) e.
(5) g.
(6) a.
(7) c.
(8) f. |
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Term
| 233-11. Where are CCTVs typically located? |
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Definition
| CCTVs are typically located along exterior site perimeter clear zones, at controlled access points to sites or buildings, within a restricted area that overlooks selected security areas outside, and at selected locations within the protected areas indoor. |
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Term
| 233-12. What is the purpose of an entry control facility? |
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Definition
| To assist SFs in controlling entry in to and exit from restricted areas. |
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Term
| 234-1. What components make up a simple portal? |
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Definition
| Single door, a turnstile, or a pedestrian or vehicle gate. |
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Term
| 234-2. What personnel identification device can be used at portals to read the encoded magnetic stripe on badges? |
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Definition
| The card reader PIN pad/prompt. |
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Term
| 234-3. List the four card reader Pin/pad/prompt configurations used with the AECS. |
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Definition
(1) Card reader with prompt display.
(2) PIN pad with prompt display.
(3) Prompt display only.
(4) Card reader with PIN pad and prompt display. |
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Term
| 234-4. Which panel configuration locks and unlocks portals based on inspection of personnel credentials such as magnetic stripe-encoded badges, PIN entries, or biometric measurements? |
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Definition
| The portal control panel (PCP). |
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Term
| 234-5. What workstation functions as a central file server and communicates directly to the CSC workstation? |
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Definition
| The enrollment master station (EMS). |
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Term
| 234-6. Which workstation displays events and assists the operator in responding to these events? |
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Definition
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Term
| 234-7. What audio subsystem component is typically located at access portals enabling persons attempting entrance to a controlled area? |
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Definition
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Term
| 234-8. What allows the camera inputs to the video switches located at the CSC, MSCF, and ECP workstations to be forwarded to another station? |
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Definition
| Loop-through connections. |
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Term
| 234-9. What devices are used to accommodate large geographical separations between workstations and panels? |
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Definition
| Modems and fiber optic transceivers. |
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Term
| 234-10. What backup power voltage do the primary and backup power supplies provide in the event that station power is lost? |
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Definition
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Term
| 235-1. What are some of the advantages of a conventional LMR system? |
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Definition
| They are cost effective, they are easy to maintain, and their limited infrastructure ensures that communication is possible in the event of a catastrophic failure. |
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Term
| 235-2. When you key and speak into a radio, who can hear you? |
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Definition
| Everyone on that particular channel can hear you. |
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Term
| 235-3. When would you use a simplex radio system? |
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Definition
| Simplex radio system works well when there are only a few users who are closely located. |
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Term
| 235-4. In a half-duplex operation, what are the two frequencies used for? |
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Definition
| Transmissions take place on one frequency and receive on another. |
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Term
| 235-5. Why do repeaters use duplexer? |
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Definition
| With a duplexer, it isolates the receiver from “hearing” the transmitter and prevents damage to the receiver. |
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Term
235-6. Match the IDS equipment subsystem in column B with the characteristic it is associated with in column A. Items in column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Column A
Column B
_____ (1) Permits users to make/receive telephone calls.
_____ (2) Designed to retransmit radio signal.
_____ (3) Transceiver installed in buildings.
_____ (4) Vehicular mounted transceiver.
_____ (5) Designed for personal use.
_____ (6) Serves as a hub.
_____ (7) Mounted high above the terrain.
_____ (8) Antenna mounted on roof or trunk of vehicle.
a. Portable.
b. Mobile.
c. Base Stations.
d. Repeaters.
e. Telephone Interconnect Equipment. |
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Definition
(1) e.
(2) d.
(3) c.
(4) b.
(5) a.
(6) c.
(7) d.
(8) b. |
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Term
| 235-7. What are the limitations of a single-site configuration? |
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Definition
| The user radio must be within the range of coverage of the repeater, base station, or other radio asset. |
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Term
| 235-8. What system is employed to increase area coverage and to improve radios talkback capability? |
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Definition
| To extend the coverage of an area and improve its talkback capability, a receiver voting system is employed to the existing LMR architecture. |
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Term
| 235-9. Describe the primary difference between a simulcast and multicast system? |
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Definition
| While a simulcast system transmits on the same RF channels simultaneously from each base station/repeater, multicast systems use different RF channels at each site. |
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Term
| 236-1. What does a typical trunking system consist of? |
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Definition
| Some type of access control (whether in each mobile unit or centralized at a base station site), switching equipment, system management computer, control and voice channel repeaters, modems, and telephone interconnect. |
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Term
| 236-2. When you set up a trunking network, how are different user groups defined? |
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Definition
| User groups are defined as “talkgroups.” |
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Term
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Definition
| Electronically controlled sharing of a relatively small number of communications channels among a relatively large number of users. |
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Term
| 236-4. How does trunking result in a more balanced load sharing? |
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Definition
| Trunked systems use access control schemes to share channel capacity among many users. The electronic control enables users to take advantage of some transmitted channels that are idle at a particular time while others are busy. |
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Term
| 236-5. What part of the trunking system sends a data message over the control channel to automatically switch all radios in a particular talk group to the available voice channel? |
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Definition
| If a voice channel is available, the system controller sends a data message over the control channel switching all units in User A’s talk group to the available voice channel. |
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Term
| 236-6. Besides spectrum conservation, what are the other inherent benefits of a trunking system? |
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Definition
| Other inherent benefits include faster system access, better channel efficiency, more user privacy, flexibility to expand, and selective radio inhibit. |
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Term
| 236-7. On the radio, what does the scan function do? |
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Definition
| Cycles through the talkgroups programmed in the scan function but again they are only monitoring one talkgroup at a time. |
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Term
| 236-8. Which trunking user equipment provides users the capability to monitor more than one talkgroup at a time? |
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Definition
| Dispatch consoles provide the capability to monitor more than one talkgroup at a time. |
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Term
| 236-9. How are LMR radios rekeyed without having to physically recall the radios from the field? |
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Definition
| LMR radios can support over-the-air rekeying of encryption keys without having to physically recall the radios from the field. |
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Term
| 237-1. What does giant voice provide? |
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Definition
| The base with crucial safety and security information. |
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Term
| 237-2. What AFI requires communication squadrons to maintain “installation warning systems”? |
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Definition
| AFI 10–2501, Full Spectrum Threat Response Planning and Operations. |
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Term
| 237-3. Besides maintaining “installation warning systems,” what else must a communications squadron do? |
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Definition
| To originate, verify, and maintain an audibility footprint map showing area of coverage and low audible/hazard areas. |
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Term
| 237-4. What is one of the common problems with mass alert systems in a deployed environment? |
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Definition
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Term
| 238-1. What are the three basic components of a Whelen system? |
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Definition
| Siren stacks, siren cabinet, the encoder. |
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Term
238-2. Match the Whelen system components in column B with the characteristic it is associated with in column A. Items in column B may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Column A
Column B
_____ (1) Provides current readings from the battery charger.
_____ (2) Allows remote access to cabinet.
_____ (3) Shows DC voltages across batteries.
_____ (4) Supplies 28 VDC.
_____ (5) Controls key functions such as status reporting.
_____ (6) Control signal distribution and power distribution.
a. Motherboard.
b. Control Board.
c. Radio or Landline Board.
d. Ammeter.
e. Voltmeter.
f. Batteries.
g. Battery Disconnect. |
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Definition
(1) d.
(2) c.
(3) e.
(4) f.
(5) b.
(6) a. |
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Term
| 238-3. Differentiate the operation between the remote and local position of the WPS–2800 system? |
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Definition
| There are two ways to operate the WPS–2800 system, remote or local position. Remote position operation involves transmitting signals from the encoder to the desired station via a landline connection or through FM transceivers. Local position operation is accomplished through the control panel on the front of the siren cabinet. |
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Term
| 238-4. How long does the E–969 encoder maintain current time when power is lost? |
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Definition
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Term
| 238-5. Name the two ways you can program the E–969 encoder. |
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Definition
| Through a personal computer or through the encoder’s keypad. |
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Term
| 238-6. How many call keys does the E–2010 have? |
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Definition
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Term
238-7. Match the tabs on the Whelen configuration software menu in column B with the characteristic it is associated with in column A. Items in column B may be used once.
Column A
Column B
_____ (1) Displays trunking or non-trunking arrangement.
_____ (2) Choose type of Whelen system.
_____ (3) Views codes that are sent from and to the cabinet.
_____ (4) Current configuration of cabinet is displayed.
_____ (5) Displays type of decoding that the cabinet uses.
_____ (6) Show recent updates to the system.
_____ (7) Activates all messages and sirens of the system.
a. Model.
b. Siren.
c. Radio.
d. Status.
e. Act.
f. DTMF.
g. MFD. |
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Definition
(1) c.
(2) a.
(3) f.
(4) b.
(5) g.
(6) d.
(7) e. |
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