Term
| What is the function of Bethanechol (Urecholine)? |
|
Definition
| relaxes the urinary sphincter and increases voiding pressure |
|
|
Term
| Bethanechol (Urecholine) is contraindicated with ... |
|
Definition
| any physical obstruction of the urinary tract, such as an enlarged prostate gland. |
|
|
Term
| Anticholinergics increase or decrease secretions? |
|
Definition
| Anticholinergics decrease secretions |
|
|
Term
| How does an anticholinergic drug affect the heart rate? |
|
Definition
| Anticholinergic drugs increase the heart rate |
|
|
Term
| Benztropine (Cogentin) is a anticholinergic drug. If a client has tachycardia should they receive Benztropine (Cogentin)? |
|
Definition
| No. Benztropine (Cogentin) will increase the heart rate. |
|
|
Term
| Should an anticholinergic drug be given to a client with glaucoma? |
|
Definition
| No. Anticholinergic drugs can increase the pressure in the eye. |
|
|
Term
True or False?
Anticholinergic drugs can increase urinary hesitancy/retention. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False?
Anticholinergics slow gastrointestinal (GI) motility and can increase the risk for constipation |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If medication cannot manufacture new neurotransmitters, what affect do they have on existing neurotransmitters? |
|
Definition
| Medication can only increase or decrease a neurotransmitters action. |
|
|
Term
| The somatic nervous system controls ... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Relaxation of the bladder and pupil dilation are regulated by which branch of the autonomic nervous system? |
|
Definition
| Sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
| Adrenergic receptors are found within which branch of the autonomic nervous system? |
|
Definition
| The sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
| The sympathetic nervous system activation produces what type of response? |
|
Definition
| "fight-or-flight" response |
|
|
Term
| Beta1 and Beta2 receptors are located on... |
|
Definition
| Sympathetic target organs |
|
|
Term
| Nicotinic receptors are found at the ganglionic synapse of ... |
|
Definition
| both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems |
|
|
Term
| Adrenergic antagonist (sympatholytics) |
|
Definition
| inhibit the actions of the sympathetic nervous system |
|
|
Term
True or False?
Adrenergic antagonists (sympatholytics) block adrenergic receptors and cholinergic receptors? |
|
Definition
False.
They block adrenergic receptors, NOT cholinergic receptors. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a cholinergic-blocking agent that occupies muscarinic receptors |
|
|
Term
| Anticholinergic agents inhibit the effects of which branch of the autonomic nervous system? |
|
Definition
| The parasympathetic nervous system. |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| a disease where seizures occur on a chronic basis |
|
|
Term
| Once seizures are controlled, how long are clients continued on the antiseizure drug? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False.
Epilepsy and associated seizures are NOT curable with medications. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
|
Definition
Last a few seconds, and are seen most often in children.
Formerly known as petit mal. |
|
|
Term
| The drug of choice for absence seizures is ... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| When a client is prescribed Phenytoin (Dilantin), what needs to be monitored and why? |
|
Definition
| blood levels must be monitored to ensure a therapeutic level and to prevent toxicity due to the fact that it has a vary narrow therapeutic range |
|
|
Term
| When diazepam is given intravenously (IV), what is one of your top priorities? |
|
Definition
| Perform respiratory assessments. Respiratory depression is common with diazepam (IV). |
|
|
Term
| Valproic acid (Depakene)has what affect on bleeding time? |
|
Definition
| it prolongs bleeding time |
|
|
Term
| Seizure medication must be withdrawn over a period of how many weeks and why? |
|
Definition
| 6 to 12 weeks to prevent seizures from reoccurring. |
|
|
Term
| If a client is taking Phenytoin (Dilantin), why might the client need additional insulin? |
|
Definition
| Phenytonin (Dilantin) can increase serum glucose levels. |
|
|
Term
| How does hypovolemic shock effect blood pressure, heart rate, pulse characteristic, and respirations? |
|
Definition
| Blood pressure is low, heart rate may be rapid, pulse is thready, and breathing is rapid and shallow. |
|
|
Term
| What happens when you mix valproic acid (Depakene) syrup with carbonated breaverages |
|
Definition
| It will trigger immediate release of the drug, which causes severe mouth and throat irritation. |
|
|
Term
| What affects does Phenobarbital (Luminal) have with GABA? |
|
Definition
| Phenobarbital (Luminal) enhances the action of GABA. |
|
|
Term
| GABA is responsible for ... |
|
Definition
| suppressing abnormal neuronal discharges that can cause epilepsy |
|
|
Term
| Elderly clients are at risk for cumulative effects of barbiturates due to what? |
|
Definition
| Diminished hepatic and renal function. |
|
|
Term
True or False
Several things, including bacterial infections, can cause seizures. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which vitamin would most likely be deficient in a patient with seizures who is taking barbiturates? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Dilantin affects the metabolism of which vitamin |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Depakote, Valium, and Dilantin can be effective for which type of seizures. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why would Dilantin frequently be administered IV rather than PO? |
|
Definition
| Dilantin PO has slow and variable absorption rates. |
|
|
Term
True or False
There are no side effects/adverse effects if Dilantin extravasates. |
|
Definition
False
If Dilantin extravasates, serious soft tissue damage can result |
|
|
Term
| Storage of cholesterol in the lining of coronary blood vessels contributes to ... |
|
Definition
| plaque build up and atherosclerosis; this contributes significantly to coronary artery disease. |
|
|
Term
| Reverse cholesterol transport |
|
Definition
| a process where HDL assists in the transport of cholesterol away from body tissues and back to the liver. |
|
|
Term
| Concurrent administration of atorvastatin (Lipitor) and ketoconazole (Nizoral) can increase the risk of ... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why must other drugs be administered more than two hours before, or four hours after, the client takes cholestryamine (Questran) |
|
Definition
| Because it can bind to other drugs and interfere with their absorption. |
|
|
Term
| What should be taken into consideration when administering gemfibrozil (Lopid)? |
|
Definition
| It should be administered with food to decrease gastrointestinal distress. |
|
|
Term
| Lipids are carried through the blood as ... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| With statin drugs, the nurse must assess for ... |
|
Definition
| complaints of muscle pain, tenderness, and weakness as this could indicate a type of myopathy known as rhabdomyolysis |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| condition where contents of muscle cells spill into the systemic circulation causing potentially fatal, acute renal failure. |
|
|
Term
| Renal failure is when urine output is less than how many mL per hour? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Why is assessment of the bowel sounds a priority when administering cholestryamine (Questran)? |
|
Definition
| Because cholestryamine (Questran) could cause obstruction of the intestines |
|
|
Term
| Why might taking one aspirin tablet thirty minute prior to niacin administration be helpful? |
|
Definition
Because aspirin can reduce the uncomfortable flushing affect that is associated with niacin administration.
aspirin decrease the prostaglandin release that causes the flushing effect. |
|
|
Term
| Triglycerides account for ____ percent of the lipids in the body, and serves as an important energy source. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Three factors affecting blood pressure |
|
Definition
- blood volume
- blood viscosity
- resistance to blood flow |
|
|
Term
| How do diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) decrease blood pressure? |
|
Definition
| by decreasing total blood volume |
|
|
Term
|
Definition
| essential for cholesterol biosynthesis |
|
|
Term
True or False
Statins work by stimulating the enzyme HMG-CoA |
|
Definition
False
Statins work by inhibiting the enzyme HMG-CoA |
|
|
Term
| What affect does hypokalemia cause by hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), a diuretic, have on digoxin (Lanoxin) |
|
Definition
| It may increase digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity |
|
|
Term
| What is the normal potassium range? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What kind of juice should be avoided with a lot of medications? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Do direct vasodilators produce reflex tachycardia or reflex bradycardia? |
|
Definition
Vasodilators produce reflex tachycardia. It is a compensatory response to the sudden decrease in blood pressure caused by the drug.
Direct vasodilators produce hypotension and tachycardia, not bradycardia |
|
|
Term
True or False
Crackles in the lungs can indicate pulmonary edema which could indicate heart failure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| atenolol (Tenormin) lowers blood pressure by doing what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A patient on thiazide diuretics should be monitored for what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| The use of ACE inhibitors can lead to neutropenia, the client should be monitored for this side effect by having what measured? |
|
Definition
| Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) |
|
|
Term
| Beta-blockers are contraindicated for clients with what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Two common adverse effects associated with digoxin (lanoxin) are .... |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What drug may produce a first-dose phenomenon resulting in profound hypotension, which may result in synocop? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is reflex tachycardia? |
|
Definition
| A compensatory response to a sudden decrease in blood pressure. |
|
|
Term
| Which type of drugs may produce reflex tachycardia? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
True or False
Some calcium channel blockers can reduce myocardial contractility and can worsen heart failure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Which type of receptors is doxazosin (Cardura) selective for blocking? And what is the result? |
|
Definition
| Alpha-1 in the vascular smooth muscle, which results in dilation of arteries and veins. |
|
|
Term
| What conditions can result an interaction with furosemide (Lasix) and digoxin (Lanoxin)? And what is the effect on the toxicity of digoxin? |
|
Definition
Hypokalemia and Hypocalcemia.
It will increase a client's risk for digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. |
|
|
Term
| How many pounds gained in 24 hours is considered a significant amount of weight change? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| How do cardiac glycosides increase cardiac output? |
|
Definition
| By increasing the force of contraction. |
|
|
Term
| What is the action of carvedilol (Coreg)? |
|
Definition
| Increases myocardial contractility in a patient with heart failure. |
|
|
Term
| How often should nitroglycerine (Nitrostat) tablets be taken and what is the maximum dose? |
|
Definition
| 1 tablet every 5 mins, and no more than three doses. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary action of antianginal drugs? |
|
Definition
| To reduce the myocardial demand for oxygen to decrease the frequency of angina episodes. |
|
|
Term
| Amiodarone (Cordarone) has what affect on serum digoxin levels? |
|
Definition
| Amiodarone (Cordarone) can increase serum digoxin levels by as much as 70% resulting in digoxin toxicity. |
|
|
Term
| Which conditions should be corrected prior to initiating therapy with amiodarone (Cordarone)? |
|
Definition
| Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia |
|
|
Term
What is the drug of choice for PSVT?
What is PSVT? |
|
Definition
Adenosine
Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia |
|
|
Term
What is the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin) overdose?
What is the international normalized ratio for the antidote? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the correct method of administration of enoxaparin (Lovenox)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| A low blood pressure and low red blood cell count in the client could indicate what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| In combination with warfarin, what is garlic's effect? |
|
Definition
| Garlic has been shown to produce an anticoagulant effect by decreasing the aggregation of platelets. |
|
|
Term
How are inotropic medications administered?
How should inotropic medications be infused? |
|
Definition
They should be administered based on micrograms per kilograms per minute.
They should be infused via an IV pump. |
|
|
Term
| How are colloids different from crystalloids? |
|
Definition
| Colloids are too large to cross membranes. |
|
|
Term
| 3 vasoconstrictors used to treat shock |
|
Definition
Norepinephrine (Levophed)
Mephentermine (Wyamine)
Phenylephrine (Neo-synephrine) |
|
|
Term
| What is norepinephrine's mechanism of action? |
|
Definition
| To produce vasoconstriction. |
|
|
Term
| When a client has severe renal failure, what should a nurse consider about the dosage? |
|
Definition
| May need to reduce it because average doses of medication can have mortal consequences. |
|
|
Term
True or False
For a client in chronic renal failure taking hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), hearing wheezes in the lungs is a sign that the HCTZ is ineffective. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| Concurrent use of spironolactone (Aldactone)and ACE inhibitors may predispose the client to what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is the best assessment question for oxymetazoline (Afrin) and why? |
|
Definition
| Ask about the length of treatment because it can cause rebound congestion if used for too long. |
|
|
Term
| What is the priority of the nurse when administering psuedophedrine (Sudafed)and why? |
|
Definition
| Assessing BP because it is a vasoconstrictor. |
|
|
Term
| What is the common side effect of antihistamines? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What is an anticholoinergic effect of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and what is the nurses responsibility? |
|
Definition
| Its effect is urinary hesitancy so the nurse should report this to the physician. |
|
|
Term
Is it common for intranasal glucocorticoids to produce any adverse effects?
Name one intranasal glucocorticoids that Deb would like us to know *Hint* use your fact to remember :) |
|
Definition
No, they almost never produce any serious adverse effects.
Beclomethasone (Beconase) |
|
|
Term
What is ipratropium bromide (atrovent) classification?
A nurse should use caution administering this drug to any patient with what condition? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| If a client is taking theophylline and is complaing of nausea and vomiting, what does this indicate? |
|
Definition
| Theophylline toxicity. Client should go to a clinic and be assessed! |
|
|
Term
| What is the side affect that Deb wants us to know about isoproterenol (Isuprel) |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| What does salmeterol (Serevent) prevent and when should it be taken? |
|
Definition
| to prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm and should be taken 30-60 minutes prior to physical activity. |
|
|
Term
| When are glucocorticoids contraindicated and why? |
|
Definition
| They are contraindicated when an active infection is present (i.e. MRSA) because they can mask the signs of infection. |
|
|
Term
| What is the most common route of administration (according to Deb)and why? |
|
Definition
| Inhalation. it is rapid, and allows for quick absorption to direct airway. |
|
|
Term
| What is the primary use of Leukotriene modifiers? |
|
Definition
| They are used primarily for prophylaxis and reducing inflammatory components, used for asthma |
|
|
Term
| Which type of drugs can weaken the immune system and cause candidiasis of the throat? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
What is the primary action of beta-adrenergic agonists?
What is an adverse effect of a beta-adrenergic agonist? |
|
Definition
To relax smooth muscle.
Tachycardia |
|
|
Term
What is one adverse effect of salmeterol that Deb wants us to know?
What can this adverse effect lead to? |
|
Definition
| Tachycardia, and it can lead to more adverse effects. |
|
|
Term
| What must you do to intravenous lines of 5% dextrose in water (D5W)to prevent emboli? |
|
Definition
| IV lines must be flushed with saline and using an intravenous filter will trap any precipitate that occurs. |
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