| Term 
 
        | what are the 3 major classes of anticonvulsants? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. Na channel inactivators 2. GABAergic agents
 3. Ca channel blockers
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do Na channel inactivators work to treat epilepsy? |  | Definition 
 
        | prolong Na channel refractory period |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | indications for Na channel inactivators? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. generalized tonic-clonic 2. focal (partial)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Na channel inactivators used to treat epilepsy (6) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. carbamazepine 2. phenytoin
 3. valproic acid
 4. lamotrigine
 5. topiramate
 6. zonisamide
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | Na channel inactivators are also used to treat migraine (2) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. topiramate 2. zonisamide
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | *mechanism of action for carbamazepine? |  | Definition 
 
        | prolongation of Na channel inactivation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the drug of choice for focal onset (partial) seizures? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | *indications for carbamazepine? |  | Definition 
 
        | *drug of choice for focal onset (partial) seizures 
 generalized tonic-clonic
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | original use of carbamazepine? |  | Definition 
 
        | trigeminal neuralgia (tic doloureaux) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | other effects of carbamazepine (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. anticholinergic, neuromuscular-blocking, muscle relaxant 2. central anti-diuretic
 3. anti-arrhythmic
 4. antidepressant
 5. sedative
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | adverse effects of carbamazepine (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. resp depression 2. CNS - nystagmus, diplopia, tiredness, drowsiness, vertigo, headache
 3. hepatotoxicity
 4. agranulocytosis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | mechanism of action of phenytoin? |  | Definition 
 
        | *prolongation of Na channel inactivation |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | indications for phenytoin? |  | Definition 
 
        | generalized tonic-clonic and focal (partial) seizures 
 *NOT absence seizures
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | pharmacokinetics of phenytoin? |  | Definition 
 
        | zero order kinetics 
 one of the few drugs for which a constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | does phenytoin have a sedative effect? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | *contraindications for phenytoin |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. sinus bradycardia, heart block (complete or partial) 2. hypoglycemic seizures
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is fosphenytoin sodium? |  | Definition 
 
        | water soluble phosphorylated form of phenytoin 
 converted to phenytoin by phosphatases
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why is fosphenytoin sodium preferred over phenytoin? |  | Definition 
 
        | *no phlebitis 
 can cause arrhythmia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | fosphenytoin sodium administration? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what type of seizures can phenytoin not be used for? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | is phenytoin water soluble? |  | Definition 
 
        | NO 
 precipitates in dextrose and saline
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | inflammation at the injection site |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug can be used in place of phenytoin to reduce the phlebitis? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | *phenytoin adverse effects (8) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. painful phlebitis 2. gingival hyperplasia
 3. excessive hair growth
 4. double vision
 5. accelerates hepatic degradation of glucocorticoids
 6. megaloblastic anemia
 7. ataxia and nystagmus
 8. osteomalacia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is an adverse effect of phenytoin when give IV? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does phenytoin cause gingival hyperplasia? |  | Definition 
 
        | altered collagen metabolism leads to thickened, inflamed gums in 20% of patients; can't eat properly |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is hypertrichosis seen with phenytoin use? |  | Definition 
 
        | excessive hair growth where hair is normally present |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is hirsutism associated with phenytoin use? |  | Definition 
 
        | excessive hair growth in places there is usually no hair |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug causes alopecia? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why does phenytoin lead to double vision? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | a patient taking glucocorticoids is started on phenytoin. the effect of the glucocorticoid is diminished. why? |  | Definition 
 
        | *phenytoin accelerated hepatic degradation of glucocorticoids |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does phenytoin lead to osteomalacia? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. inhibition of intestinal absorption of Ca 2. catabolism of vitamin K and reduction in vitamin K-dependent proteins for normal Ca metabolism in bone
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | hypocalcemia + elevated alkaline phosphatase activity |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why is phenytoin-induced osteomalacia not always ameliorated by the administration of vitamin D? |  | Definition 
 
        | due to the catabolism of vitamin K and reduction in vitamin K-dependent proteins for normal Ca metabolism in bone |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why would a patient taking phenytoin be more likely to undergo a fracture? |  | Definition 
 
        | osteomalacia is an adverse effect |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | *mechanism of action of valproic acid/valproate sodium? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. prolongation of Na channel inactivation 2. increase GABA synthesis; decrease GABA breakdown
 3. blocks T type Ca channels
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | valproic acid/valproate sodium indications? |  | Definition 
 
        | *very broad spectrum of action 
 *focal (partial), generalized tonic-clonic, absence, myoclonic
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | valproic acid/valproate sodium side effects (4) |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. thrombocytopenia *2. alopecia
 3. hepatotoxicity
 *4. acute pancreatitis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | valproic acid/valproate sodium contraindications |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. bleeding disorders 2. hepatic disease/dysfunction
 3. pregnancy - possible teratogen
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | receptor type of GABAa receptor? |  | Definition 
 
        | ligand gated chloride channel |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | subunits of GABAa receptor? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where does GABA bind the GABAa receptor? |  | Definition 
 
        | between the alpha and beta subunits |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what happens after GABA binds to the GABAa receptor? |  | Definition 
 
        | channel opens --> Cl influx into the neuron --> hyperpolarizes neuron --> inhibits propagation and generation of AP |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | metabotropic - G protein coupled receptor |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what 2 types of drugs also bind to the GABAa receptor? |  | Definition 
 
        | benzodiazepines and barbiturates |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | mechanism of action of benzodiazepines and barbiturates? |  | Definition 
 
        | similar to GABA - bind and directly activate GABAa channel --> hyperpolarize neuron |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where do benzodiazepines bind on the GABAa receptor? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where do barbiturates bind on the GABAa receptor? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what enzyme produces GABA from glutamic acid? |  | Definition 
 
        | glutamic acid decarboxylase |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the co-enzyme for glutamic acid decarboxylase? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug can deplete pyridoxal phosphate? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | GABA is degraded to what? 
 what is the importance of this degradation product?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | succinic acid 
 it has a negative feedback on the rate-limiting enzyme in GABA synthesis (glutamic acid decarboxylase)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | the date rape drug acts like what NT to cause retrograde amnesia? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | patient has a head injury and loses consciousness. when they regain consciousness, they don't remember anything about the event. 
 this is known as ____ and is due to what?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | retrograde amnesia 
 due to GABA activation
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 3 effects of GABA? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. anticonvulsive 2. anxiolytic
 3. amnestic (retro and anterograde)
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does valproic acid stop GABA synthesis? |  | Definition 
 
        | inhibits succinic semialdehyde dehydrogenase 
 succinic acid can't be produced --> can't negatively feedback on glutamic acid decarboxylase --> more GABA is produced
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does GABA work to cause hyperpolarization? |  | Definition 
 
        | at the pre-synaptic axon, Na influx leads to GABA release 
 GABA binds receptor on post-synaptic neuron --> Cl ions influx --> hyperpolarize the neuron --> an AP can't be generated
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | where are GABAa receptors located? |  | Definition 
 
        | cerebral cortex > limbic system > cerebellum, spinal cord |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drugs work to increase GABA synthesis? |  | Definition 
 
        | *valproic acid vigabatrin
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug works to increase GABA release? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug works to block GABA reuptake? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drug works to decrease GABA breakdown? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what drugs are GABA receptor agonists? |  | Definition 
 
        | *lorazepam, diazepam clonazepam
 *phenobarbital
 topiramate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the 2 ways to terminate the action of GABA? |  | Definition 
 
        | degrade it or take it back up into the cell that released it |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the prototype GABA agonists? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | mechanism of action of phenobarbital? |  | Definition 
 
        | *GABA receptor stimulation; Ca channel inhibition |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | indications for phenobarbital? |  | Definition 
 
        | *generalized tonic-clonic, focal (partial), myoclonic, neonatal, status epilepticus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why is phenobarbital the most widely used anti-epileptic? |  | Definition 
 
        | because of efficacy, low toxicity, and low cost |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what anti-epileptic can be used in children <2 years of age? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | adverse effects of phenobarbital? |  | Definition 
 
        | *sedation nystagmus, ataxia
 *respiratory depression
 megaloblastic anemia
 hypoprothrombinemia with hemorrhage in neonates with maternal treatment
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do you treat phenobarbital-induced megaloblastic anemia? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do you treat phenobarbital-induced hypoprothrombinemia with hemorrhage in neonates with maternal treatment? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what 2 side effects of phenobarbital stop its widespread use? |  | Definition 
 
        | *sedation resp depression
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the only type of seizure that phenobarbital can not be used to treat? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | primidone is metabolized to what? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | anticonvulsant and sedative 
 like phenobarbital
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 | Definition 
 
        | *effective in all types of seizures EXCEPT ABSENCE |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | adverse effects of primidone? |  | Definition 
 
        | same as phenobarbital - sedation, resp depression |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how do Ca channel blockers work in treatment of seizures? |  | Definition 
 
        | reduce pacemaker Ca currents in thalamic neurons |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the unique drug for absence epilepsy? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | patient has epilepsy with no convulsions, very brief loss of consciousness following it. what is the treatment? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what 2 drugs block T type voltage gated Ca channels? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. valproate sodium 2. ethosuximide
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | mechanism of action of ethosuximide? |  | Definition 
 
        | *reduction of T-type Ca currents in the thalamus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ethosuximide indications? |  | Definition 
 
        | *drug of choice for absence epilepsy |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the drug of choice for absence epilepsy? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ethosuximide adverse effects? |  | Definition 
 
        | blood - leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, aplastic anemia due to BM depression 
 skin - reactions, SLE, urticaria, pruritis
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | ethosuximide contraindications? |  | Definition 
 
        | hepatic or renal disease 
 safety in pregnancy or children <3 years had not been established
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | top 3 first line drugs used for all different types of focal onset seizures? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. carbamazepine 2. phenytoin
 3. valproate
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 antiepileptics also used to treat migraines? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. lamotrigine 2. topiramate
 3. zonisamide
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | 3 drugs used to treat absence seizure? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. ethosuximide 2. valproate
 3. lamotrigine - newer
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is a newer drug used in all forms of generalized epilepsy? 
 what is important about it's administration?
 |  | Definition 
 
        | lamotrigine 
 not effective alone; has to be administered as an adjunct drug
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the first line drug for myoclonic seizures? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects of lamotrigine (5) |  | Definition 
 
        | *1. visual disturbance 2. sedation
 3. ataxia
 4. skin rash
 5. dyspepsia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects of topiramate? |  | Definition 
 
        | *1. diplopia *2. renal calculi
 *3. weight loss
 *4. neuropathy
 
 somnolence, dizziness, ataxia, nystagmus, irritability, nausea, dyspepsia, hypohydrosis, hyperthermia
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | side effects of zonisamide? |  | Definition 
 
        | somnolence, confusion, ataxia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, rash, *renal calculi |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how does status epilepticus manifest? |  | Definition 
 
        | *multiple grand mals in succession or prolonged grand mal with no recovery of consciousness |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how long can status epilepticus last? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | treating status epilepticus is important because? |  | Definition 
 
        | it is a medical emergency |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the first step in treating status epilepticus? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the first thing given to a patient with status epilepticus? |  | Definition 
 
        | 'coma cocktail' with 50% dextrose and 100 mg thiamine |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why is dextrose given to a patient with status epilepticus? |  | Definition 
 
        | to replenish glucose for neurons and to rule out hypoglycemia as a cause of seizure |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why is thiamine given to a patient with status epilepticus? |  | Definition 
 
        | to prevent encephalopathies 
 especially in malnourished patients like alcoholics
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | if seizures in status epilepticus continue despite IV dextrose, what can be concluded? |  | Definition 
 
        | seizure is not due to hypoglycemia |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | if a patient with status epilepticus continues to seize despite IV dextrose, what is the drug of choice next? |  | Definition 
 
        | lorazepam or diazepam (a benzodiaziapine) 
 used before/over phenytoin to avoid side effects
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why would lorazepam be chosen over diazepam to treat status epilepticus? |  | Definition 
 
        | because it has a slightly longer duration |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | if a patient with status epilepticus doesn't respond to the first dose of lorazepam (or diazepam) what should you do next? |  | Definition 
 
        | give another dose after 10 min |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | when do you give fosphenytoin or phenytoin to a patient with status epilepticus? |  | Definition 
 
        | REGARDLESS of response of patient to lorazepam (or diazepam) |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | why would you give fosphenytoin rather than phenytoin in status epilepticus? |  | Definition 
 
        | phenytoin precipitates in dextrose-saline and causes phlebitis |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | if convulsions continue in a patient with status epilepticus despite fosphenytoin what does the patient have? |  | Definition 
 
        | refractory status epilepticus |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | treatment for refractory status epilepticus? |  | Definition 
 
        | intubation and artificial ventilation 
 followed by a general anesthetic (midazolam or propofol) + phenobarbital
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what 4 drugs given for refractory status epilepticus require intubation? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. phenobarbital 2. midazolam
 3. propofol
 4. pentobarbital
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | treating a patient for refractory status epilepticus requires what? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the definitive antiepileptic drug for status epilepticus? |  | Definition 
 
        | fosphenytoin 
 can't treat immediately due to side effects
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the goals of pharmacotherapy of epilepsy? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. prevent further attacks 2. achieve 3 seizure-free years
 3. then gradually withdraw drugs, one by one
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the risk of drug reaction compared to the risk of a second seizure in a patient with a history of a solitary seizure? |  | Definition 
 
        | the same - 15% 
 don't start treatment right away - if they have another one then it's definitely epilepsy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | when do you not initiate anti-seizure therapy for a patient that presents with a history of a solitary seizure? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. healthy young adult 2. no family history of epilepsy
 3. normal neuro exam
 4. normal EEG
 5. normal brain MRI scan
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | when do you consider anti-convulsant therapy for a patient that presents with a history of a solitary seizure? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. positive family history of epilepsy 2. abnormal neuro exam
 3. abnormal EEG
 4. abnormal MRI
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | if a patient that presents with a history of a solitary seizure has any risk factors or symptoms for epilepsy, what is the risk of seizure recurrence? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what are the first line drugs for focal or generalized onset tonic-clonic seizure? |  | Definition 
 
        | carbamazepine phenytoin
 valproic acid
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how are the different drugs used in treating focal or generalized onset tonic-clonic seizures? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. use a first line drug 2. if seizures continue despite max tolerated dose - add second drug
 3. gradually withdrawal the first
 4. use new drugs as adjunctive therapy
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the drug of choice for absence seizures? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what is the drug of choice for myoclonic seizures? |  | Definition 
 | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | should dosing for antiepileptics be based on serum levels? why or why not? |  | Definition 
 
        | NO 
 many patients require and tolerate 'toxic' levels for therapeutic effect
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | what must you monitor with anti-epileptic therapy? |  | Definition 
 
        | 1. CBC at least annually 2. liver function tests - carbamazepine, valproic acid
 3. serial blood counts - carbamazepine, ethosuximide
 |  | 
        |  | 
        
        | Term 
 
        | how can drug therapy for epilepsy affect chances of getting status epilepticus? |  | Definition 
 
        | poor compliance may precipitate status epilepticus |  | 
        |  |