A shipper is responsible for...

a. planning, assembling, consolidating, and documenting a shipment and arranging for its movement

b. ensuring a shipment is complete and removing RFID tags

c. clearing shipments and initiating TDR as necessary

d. challenging shipments that do not meet applicable airlift requirements

a. planning, assembling, consolidating, and documenting a shipment and arranging for its movement

Which of the following is not a purpose of the advance TCMD?

a. It provides a way to process a shipment through the ACA

b. It allows cargo processors to calculate critical leg ACL information

c. It allows APOE to easily and efficiently manifest the shipment

d. It provides notification to the APOE that a shipment is inbound and requires further thransfer

What is another name for a receiver?

a. A vendor

b. A cosignor

c. A cosignee

d. A transshipper

Who is responsible for ensuring a shipment is complete and removing any RFID tags?

a. The shipper

b. The receiver

c. The transhipper

d. The CSB

When is a shipment, other than TP-4 cargo, considered cleared by the ACA?

a. When the direct delivery vendor prepares the invoice

b. When you have scanned the bar-coded label and determined it is not in the DTS

c. When the CCP has delivered an airlift-ready pallet to the APOE

d. When the ACA has not challenged the shipment by the hour/day entered in the ATCMD date shipped field

How many cargo applications do the GATES HHTs provide access to?

a. 15

b. 16

c. 17

d. 18

You perform a soft reset on the HHT by pressing...

a. Ctrl + Alt = Del keys

b. Shift + Escape + Send keys

c. Contrast + Delete + Enter keys

d. Alpha + Function + Backlight keys

What two types of information are entered on the TCMD?

a. Prime data and trailer data

b. Prime data and secondary data

c. Secondary data and trailer data

d. Temporary data and permanent data

Which appendix in Part II of the Defense Transportation Regulation explains how to fill out a TCMD block-by-block?

a. Appendix L

b. Appendix M

c. Appendix O

d. Appendix P

What do the air commodity and special handling codes tell you?

a. How the shipment is packaged

b. Whether shipments have one or more outsized dimension

c. The nature of the shipment and how it should be treated

d. The specific method of transportation for each segment of movement

Which position of the TCN identifies a partial shipment?

a. The first position

b. The 16th position

c. The 17th position

d. The last position

Which TP includes shipments requiring routine transportation?

a. TP-1

b. TP-2

c. TP-3

d. TP-4

Which TP is considered "deferred air freight" and is moved as a last priority, only if there is room on a given aircraft?

a. TP-1

b. TP-2

c. TP-3

d. TP-4

How many days must TP 4 cargo remain at an aerial port before the air terminal manager (ATM) can decide to send it through surface modes or upgrade it to TP-2?

a. 15 days

b. 20 days

c. 30 days

d. 45 days

The three-position date shipped code is comprised of the...

a. three-digit Julian date

b. ETA code and the last two digits of the Julian date

c. GMT hour code and the last two digits of the Julian date

d. GMT hour code and the ETA code

When receiving a shipment ino the air terminal, you do not have to inspect for

a. matching documentation

b. signs of damage or pilferage

c. appropriate markings and labels

d. correct NSNs

Identification markings and labels tell you...

a. what the shipment is

b. how to refuse a shipment

c. how to handle a shipment

d. where the shipment came from and where it is going

You place two MSLs on any item over how many cubic feet?

a. 5 

b. 10

c. 15

d. 20

You must correct a discrepancy with a shipment received at your terminal..

a. always; no exceptions

b. when the shipper delivers the cargo

c. when the discrepancy is minor and you can correct it on the spot

d. when the discrepancy is major and requires significant repacking

Which form do you use to frustrate a shipment?

a. AMC Form 33

b. SF Form 361

c. SF Form 364

d. DD Form 1387

After the CSB/ACA corrects the frustrated shipment and returns the original AMC Form 33 to the work center that frustrated the shipment; what actions must the work center take?

a. Initial both copies and retain them for their files

b. Retain one copy for their files and discard the original

c. Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file them both

d. Compare it to the copy they have on file to ensure all discrepancies were corrected and file the original.

What must you annotate on both copies of the TCMD when receipting for a shipment?

a. Your initials and the date you received the cargo

b. The pieces, weight and cube of the shipment and the carrier driver's name

c. The GMT hour code and last two digits of the Julian date of arrival

d. Your full name, rank,Social Security Number, signature, and the time and date you received the cargo

When the SET is equal for two or more shipments, you determine which shipments are processed by first using the...

a. air commodity and special handling code

b. expedited handling indicators and the RDD

c. TAC, project code, and type pack code

d. split/partial shipment code, air dimension code, and DI code

Within how many hours of receipt must you process all cargo?

a. 2 hours

b. 6 hours

c. 12 hours

d. 18 hours

You finalize the receipt of a shipment by...

a. turning it over to the appropriate pallet build-up agency

b. loading the shipment onto a K-loader and taking it out to the aircraft

c. writing the warehouse location or assigned pallet identifier in block 25c of the TCMD

d. completing a DD Form 1907 and having load planning personnel sign for the shipment

An over shipment is a shipment that...

a. arrived at the air terminal open, torn, or cut

b. arrived at the air terminal, but is not listed on the manifest

c. is listed on the manifest, but did not arrive at the air terminal

d. arrived at the air terminal but removed due to suspicion of pilferage

Who is responsible for initiating an immediate investigation to determine if pilferage has occurred for a shipment?

a. SF duty officer

b. TMO/air freight

c. ATOC duty officer

d. CSB/ACA

You leave intransit pallets intact, without removing the nets, tie down, or RFID tags when the pallets...

a. are terminating

b. arrived with no manifests

c. are destined for a single location

d. are destined for more than one location

Terminating cargo release letters are effective for how long from the date they are authenticated by the organizational commander?

a. Three months

b. Six months

c. One year

d. Two years

Which best describes the role of a hazardous materials handler?

a. Inspects hazardous materials internally and externally

b. Packages hazardous materials to prepare for shipment

c. Loads or transports hazardous materials to/on an aircraft

d. Accomplishes the SDDG

All personnel who operate, handle, transport, or load missiles, explosives, or nuclear weapons must receive which type of training and how often?

a. Weapons safety training; annually

b. Weapons safety training; biannually

c. Technical specialist training; annually

d. Technical specialist training; biannually

Which hazardous materials class consists of explosive materials?

a. Class 1

b. Class 2

c. Class 3

d. Class 4

Which hazardous material class consist of flammable liquids?

a. Class 1

b. Class 2

c. Class 3

d. Class 4

Which hazardous materials class consists of infectious and toxic materials?

a. Class 4

b. Class 5

c. Class 6

d. Class 7

Which hazardous materials class consists of miscellaneous hazardous materials?

a. Class 6

b. Class 7

c. Class 8 

d. Class 9

How should hazardous materials be positioned on a pallet or in the back of a vehicle?

a. So the labels are clearly visable

b. So the laels are hidden from public view

c. There are no requirements for the positioning of labels

d. So the labels of the same class are facing the same direction

What form do shippers use to certify their hazardous materials shipments?

a. DD Form 1385

b. DD Form 1387-2

c. AMC Form 1033

d. AMC Form 1015

How must hazardous materials placards be displayed at aircraft?

a. Front only and at entry points

b. Front and rear only and at entry points

c. Front, rear, both sides and at entry points

d. Cargo loading end and both sides only

Which class requires a placard for any amount of hazard?

a. Class 1.3

b. Class 1.6

c. Class 2.1

d. Class 2.2

Which class requires a placard for 1,001 pounds or more aggregate gross weight of material?

a. Class 1.1

b. Class 1.2

c. Class 2.1

d. Class 4.3

When a load contains class 1.1, class 1.2, and class 1.3 materials, which placard will you use?

a. Class 1.1

b. Class 1.2

c. Class 1.3

d. DANGEROUS

In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, the letter "X" means these articles...

a. must not be loaded, transported or stored together

b. have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility

c. have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together

d. must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88 inches in all directions

In the hazardous materials compatibility tables, if the material is not listed or there is a blank space in the table, that means these articles..

a. must not be loaded, transported, or stored together

b. have notes you must refer to, to determine compatibility

c. have no restrictions for being loaded, transported, or stored together

d. must not be loaded, transported, or stored together unless separated by at least 88" in all directions

How many fire extinguishers minimum must be available for use at any location where explosives are handled?

a. None

b. One

c. Two

d. Three

How many fire extinguishers must a vehicle contain while transporting explosives?

a. None

b. One

c. Two

d. Three

Where on the aircraft should hazardous materials be loaded?

a. Aft of non-jettisonable cargo

b. Forward on non-jettisonable cargo

c. Anywhere, as long as it is compatible

d. On the right side only, as long as it is compatible

a. Aft of non-jettisonable cargo

During explosives operations, to reduce electrostatic discharge, aircraft will be....

a. vented

b. braced

c. cleaned

d. grounded

Which form must shippers complete for security or classified shipments?

a. DD Form 1387-2

b. AMC Form 1015

c. DD Form 1497-2

d. AMC Form 1033

If a shipment is hazardous and requires security, which form(s) must shippers complete?

a. DD Form 1387-2

b. AMC Form 1033 only

c. DD Form 1387-2 and AMC Form 1033

d. DD Form 1387-2, AMC Form 103, and AMC Form 1015

What is DCS material?

a. Human remains shipments that require courier support

b. Highly classified national security shipments that require courier escort

c. Biological defense and refrigeration shipments that require courier escort

d. Money or gold bullion shipments that require high security and courier escort.

You stow HR shipments on the aircraft wit the...

a. feet higher than the head and with the feet twards the nose of the aircraft

b. head higher than the feet and the head towards the nose of the aircraft

c. feet higher than the head and the head towards the nose of the aircraft

d. head higher than the feet and the feet towards the nose of the aircraft

What is the maximum number of HR transfer cases that can be safely transported on one 463L pallet if absolutely necessary?

a. 3

b. 4

c. 6

d. 12

You have received three blood shipments that require refrigeration and re-icing before they are airlifted.  On which form would you document the re-icing and refrigeration?

a. DD Form 1033

b. AMC Form 36

c. AMC Form 106

d. DD Form 1532-1

When receiving registered mail, the two pieces of information you must check against the manifest are the...

a. register number and the TP

b. register number and the RDD

c. TCN, weight, and cube

d. TCN and register number

You have received a terminating piece of AMC MICAP cargo with a receipt time of 0815 GMT.  What is the latest time it must be available to the cosignee?

a. 0825 local time

b. 0830 local time

c. 0845 GMT

d. 0900 GMT

You work at an air terminal without an ACA or a CSB and receive a call from a Navy customer who wants to green sheet some Navy equipment.  Who will initiate green sheet action for this customer when it is necessary to meet a shipment's RDD?

a. The air freight officer

b. The squadron commander

c. The air terminal operations officer

d. The ATOC outbound controller

An 8,000-pound piece of cargo is built on a pallet and you are responsible for adding enough restraint to get the pallet to the aircraft.  How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?

a. 5,000

b. 7,500

c. 10,000

d. 25,000

You are loading an aircraft and must winch a heavy pallet into position. How many attaching points will you use to safely winch this pallet on the aircraft?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Winching pallets in not authorized

Your supervisor has asked you to restrain four pallets in the warehouse with varying weights and heights.  Which pallet is most effectively restrained with a full 463L net set?

a. A 38" high pallet weighing 6,500 lbs

b. An 89" high pallet weighing 8,225 lbs

c. A 94" high pallet weighing 10,500 lbs

d. A 100" high pallet weighing 12,150 lbs

While sorting through net sets, you discover several unserviceable RFID tags still attached to the nets.  What must you do with these unserviceable tags?

a. Return them to the shipper for repair

b. Leave them on the nets for the next cosignee to return

c. Return them to the Defense Logistics Agency for repair

d. Throw them away and log them on the 463L asset report

You are issuing three CGU-1/B straps to an AFSOC C-130.  Which form would you use to maintain accountability for the items issued to this aircraft?

a. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

b. Pallet and Net Monitor Local Custodial Log

c. AF IMT 4069, Tie down Equipment Checklist

d. AMC Form 8001, AMC Key Asset and Equipment Report

You are building a pallet destined for Aviano AB, Italy, and only have space for one more piece of cargo on the pallet.  All of the available pieces have the same destination and transportation priority.  Which other two factors will you use to consider which piece to build?

a. Weight and SET

b. Movement indicator and type pack

c. Movement indicator and SET

d. Aircraft fuselage station and movement indicator

Which two manual forms must both be placed on a completed 463L pallet after it is built?

a. AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice and DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier

b. DD Form 1907, Signature and Talley Record and AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice

c. DD Form 1907, Signature and Talley Record and DD Form 2775, Pallet Identifier

d. AMC Form 1015, HazMat Inspection and Acceptance Checklist and DD Form 2275, Pallet Identifier

For the locks on a C-17 to clear the cargo and engage properly, household goods containers may overhang the 108" side, provided they overhang no more than...

a. 3/4"

b. 1"

c. 1" and are raised up 3/4"

d. 3/4" and are raised up 1"

How much of an aisleway must you create on the usable surface of a pallet loaded in the wheel well area of a C-130?

a. 4"

b. 6"

c. 8"

d. 18"

You received several shipments in for airlift; which one will you not mark with a C/B?

a. A small piece of rolling stock weighing 500 lbs

b. A shipment of pipes that are 13 feet long

c. A three-pallet train

d. A single pallet

At a minimum, how much ramp services experience should load planning personnel have?

a. 3 months

b. 6 months

c. 12 months

d. 24 months

At a minimum, what hazardous materials qualification must load planners have?

a. Packer

b. Handler

c. Inspector

d. Technical specialist

The KC-10 has two basic configurations for load planning.  When airlines seat kits are installed, how many pallets are available for cargo?

a. 16 pallets

b. 18 pallets

c. 20 pallets

d. 22 pallets

What is the maximum height allowed for the belly pallets of a B-747?

a. 50"

b. 60"

c. 65"

d. 68"

You are working load planning and your supervisor tasked you to conduct an inventory.  Which areas of the air terminal will you inventory?

a. Special cargo and mail

b. Outbound cargo and mail

c. Terminating cargo and mail

d. Hazardous and explosive cargo

How much weight an aircraft can carry is called the...

a. ACL

b. RDL

c. MAC

d. LEMAC

Which type of load plan are users authorized to use when they do not have AALPS capability?

a. DD Form 2130-XX series load plans

b. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

c. DD Form 1387-2, Special Handling Data/Certification

d. DD Form 365-4, Weight and Balance Clearance Form F- Transport

What must remain the highest priority when load planning cargo?

a. Ease of offload at the download station

b. Ease of onload of the onload station

c. Loadmaster preference

d. Safety of flight

You need to manually manifest cargo. Which form would you use?

a. DD Form 1385, Cargo Manifest

b. DD Form 2130-XX series load plans

c. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

d. AALPS load plans

Which form do you attach to the manual manifest when pallet header data is listed in the body of the manifest?

a. AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice

b. DD Form 2130-XX series load plan

c. AF IMT 4080, Load/Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

d. DD Form 1384, Transportation Control and Movement Document.

Which forklift is designed for operating on rough terrain?

a. 4K

b. 6K

c. 10K

d. 10K AT

You are driving a forklift; when is it safe to raise or lower a load on the fork tines?

a. Anytime

b. Only after you have come to a complete stop

c. Only after you have secured the pallet to the tines

d. Only after you have ensured there is no one near the tines

When parking a forklift, how do you position the tines?

a. Tilt the mast all the way back and lower the tines to the ground

b. Tilt the mast all the way forward and lower the tines to the ground

c. Tilt the mast so the tines are level with the ground and lower the forks flat

d. There are no requirements for position the tines when parking a forklift

What is the 40K loader winch's capacity in both low and high range modes, respectively?

a. 2,000/5,000 lbs

b. 2,500/8,000 lbs

c. 5,000/10,000 lbs

d. 7,500/15,000 lbs

Which cab controls on the 60K-loader are used to operate the deck functions when on/off loading cargo?

a. The circuit breaker panel

b. The deck pitch control box

c. The deck and conveyor control panel

d. The primary deck control indicator light

Which K-loader has a deck range up to 225" and allows adjustable pallet guides to accommodate pallets on the 88" or 108" side?

a. 25K

b. 40K

c. 60K Tunner

d. NGSL Halvorsen

You are working on a load crew. At which deck height are you required to wear a fall restraint harness?

a. 4 feet

b. 5 feet

c. 8 feet

d. 11 feet

You are bridging two 60K-loaders to accelerate loading and you need to transfer all your pallets from one to the other.  Which of the following best describes how to do this?

a. Lower both K-loaders and place a spotter on the monitor transfer and guide the operators

b. Lower both K-loaders and place a spotter on the left side of the loader to monitor the tranfer and guide operators.

c. Place a spotter on the K-loader to unchain the rolling stock and monitor wing-tip clearances and vapor emissions. 

d. Place a spotter on the transferring K-loader to monitor wing-tip clearances and vapor emissions

You are conducting a before-operation inspection of a K-loader. Which action will you complete?

a. Listen for unusual noises

b. Check all the lights and instrument 

c. Reveiw the AF Form 1800, Operator's Inspection Guide and Trouble Report, for open discrepencies

d. Ensure the brakes and mechanical parts are operating properly

You are performing a before-operation inspection on a 4K forklift. You must open the hood to check for which items?

a. Damage and leaking muffler and exhaust system

b. Serviceability of the fire extinguisher

c. Serviceability of the tow connections

d. Security of the battery terminal

You are performing a during-operation inspection of a 10K forklift.  Which fluid level will you check?

a. Oil

b. Brake

c. Hydraulic

d. Transmission

You are inspecting a 40K-loader.  During which part of the inspection will you check the steering and steering wheel for free play and excessive wear?

a. Before-Operation

b. During-Operation

c. After-Operation

d. Only maintenance personnel can check these items

You are loading a heavy piece of cargo on an aircraft between the treadways.  Which type of shoring will allow you to place it on supporting beams that span to the treadways?

a. Bridge shoring

b. Sleeper shoring

c. Parking shoring

d. Approach shoring

You are loading a trailer on a C-5 that is very long, very tall, and has extremely low ground clearances.  In order to reduce the ramp angle this vehicle must travel during the onload, which type of shoring would you use?

a. Bridge shoring

b. Sleeper shoring

c. Parking shoring

d. Approach shoring

How do you secure rolling stock to a K-loader?

a. Forward and aft with straps

b. Forward and aft with chains and devices

c. Forward, aft, and lateral with chains and devices.

d. Forward and aft with pallet locks, stops and supplemental restraint

Which types of loading aids are used to pull cargo slowly into the aircraft?

a. The rollers, locks and rails

b. The cargo winch and snatch blocks

c. Load team personnel and stabilizer status

d. Load bridge plates and Auxiliary loading ramps.

You are within 10 feet of an aircraft. In which zone are you?

a. Clear zone

b. Spotter zone

c. Loading zone

d. Engine operations zone

You are spotting 60K in to an aircraft. How many feet minimum from the aircraft must you stop the vehicle operator for preliminary alignment?

a. 5 feet

b. 10 feet

c. 15 feet

d. 25 feet

You are loading passengers on a C-17 in which several pallets are loaded. How many inches away must your passengers sit from the palletized cargo at a moment.

a. 10"

b. 20"

c. 30"

4. 40" 

How many 25,000 lb chains would you use to restrain a piece of cargo 17,000 lbs for the vertical direction when the cargo is restrained to the floor of a C-5?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 6

a. 2

Up to how many angles does tie down provide restraint for when applied properly?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

When can passengers enter or exit an aircraft during concurrent servicing operstions? 

a. When a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the opposite side of the aircraft.

b. When a jet way or stairs are used and refueling operations are on the same side of the aircraft.

c. When the cargo load team chief tells them to do

d. Never