Shared Flashcard Set

Details

2T231 Vol 2
CDC's
124
Aviation
Not Applicable
11/20/2011

Additional Aviation Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

1. who provides air, land, and sea transportation for the DOD, in both in time of peace and in time of war

 

a. transportation component commands

b. military sealift command

c. air mobility command

d. ustranscom

 

Definition
d. ustranscom
Term

2. what publication is the guidance used to standardize the  the movement and documentation of cargo and mail in the DTS?

a. DODR 4500.32 MILSTAMP

b. DODR 4515.13 Air Transportation Eligibility

c. AMCI 24-101 Military Airlift

d. AFJMAN 24-204 Preparing Hazardous Material for Miltary Air Shipments

Definition
a. DODR 4500.32 MILSTAMP
Term

3. What is another name for the shipper?

a. Consignor

b. Consignee

c. ACA

d.CSB

 

Definition
a. Consignor
Term

4. who must obtain airlift clearance from point of orign, to destination for cargo moving from one theatre to another or when traversing the conus?

a. shipping activity

b. requesting activity

c. traffic management flight

d. air terminal operations flights

Definition
a. shipping actvity
Term

5. what number is assigned to each shipment for control from origin to ultimate consignee?

a. transportation control number

b.national stock number

c. manifest number

d. item number

Definition
a. transportation control number
Term

6. what priority is assigned to indicate expedite handling?

a. TP 1-999

b. TP 1 and TP 2

c. TP 3

d. TP 4

Definition
a. TP 1-999
Term

7. What form documents each shipment in the DTS?

a. DD Form 1384

b. DD Form 1387

c. AF Form 1297

d. AMC Form 33

Definition
a. DD Form 1384
Term

8. how many characters (alpha/numeric) are assigned to each shipment for controlling and its movement in the DTS?

a. fourteen

b. fifteen

c. sixteen

d. seventeen

Definition
d. seventeen
Term

9. mail destined for overseas is sent from what to a POE?

a. consignee

b. post office (PO)

c. port of debarkation (POD)

d. postal concentration center (PCC)

Definition
d. postal concentration center (PCC)
Term

10. what is place in the project code block on the TCMD to represent registered mail?

a. 999

b. OD

c. REG

d. MOM

Definition
c. REG
Term

11. which option is a type of special cargo listed in AMCI-24-101, Vol II, Cargo and Mail?

a. rush

b. general

c. expensive

d. emergency

Definition
d. emergency
Term

12. which publication, provides instructions on the procedures for preparing hazardous materials for shipment aboard military aircraft?

a. AFR 71-6, Packaging of Military

b. AFP 71-19, Logistics Packaging Management

c. DODR 4500.32, Military Standard Transportation Movement Procedures

d. AFJMAN 24-204, Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipments

Definition
d. AFJMAN 24-204, Preparing Hazardous Materials for Military Air Shipments
Term

13. the military shipment label is affixed to what piece of cargo in the shipment?

a. the number one

b. the number two

c. not needed

d. each

Definition
d. each
Term

14. the purpose of the Air Force Occupational Safety and Health (AFOSH) program is to provide a safe and healthful workplace for all

a. military and civilian personnel

b. military personnel only

c. civilian personnel only

d. supervisors only

Definition
a. military and civilian personnel
Term

15. the following agencies are responsing for ensuring that AFOSH policies are followed at your workplace except:

a. Red Cross

b. Safety Office

c. Fire Department

d. Hospital's Environmental Health Section

Definition
a. Red Cross
Term

16. which AFOSH standard contains the requirements for practices and procedures for managing the Air Force Hazard Communication Program (AFHCP)?

a. AFOSH 127-22 Walking Surface Guarding Floor and Wall Openings and Holes, Fixed Industrial Stairs, and Portable and Fixed Ladders

b. AFOSH 127-31 Occupational Safety, PPE

c. AFOSH 127-32 Emergency Shower and Eyewash Units

d. AFOSH 161-21 Hazard Communication

Definition
d. AFOSH 161-21 Hazard Communication
Term

17. which option is not one of the most common safety concerns of the Air Transportation Career Field?

a. lifting

b. working

c. wearing jewelry

d. protective clothing

 

Definition
b. working
Term

18. what should you do to prevent hearing loss while on the flight line?

a. stay in your vehicle

b. cover your ears with your hands

c. stand back 10 feet from the noise

d. wear hearing protection at all times

Definition
d. wear hearing protection at all times
Term

19. while lifting a heavy box, you pull a muscle. what action could you have done to prevent this?

a. wear leather gloves

b. be alert, do not day dream

c. wear steel toed boots, seek help when the box is too heavy

d. practice the proper lifting techniques recommended in AFOSH std 91-66

Definition
d. practice the prosper lifting techniques recommend in AFOSH std 91-66
Term

20. while working on the loading dock, you slip and fall. what action could you have done to prevent this?

a. wear leather gloves

b. stay alert

c. observe speed limits

d. wear steel toed boots, seek help when the box is too heavy

Definition
b. stay alert
Term

21. cargo that needs no special consideration when you accept it into the port is called what?

a. general cargo

b. originating cargo/mail

c. special and hazardous

d. protected/pilfered cargo

Definition
a. general cargo
Term

22. cargo that has characteristics that require they be accounted for, secured , or handled in a manner to ensure their safeguard is called what?

a. intransit cargo

b. special and hazardous

c. misdirected shipments

d. protected/pilfered cargo

Definition
d. protected/pilfered cargo
Term

23. to accept a shipment of general cargo, what blocks must you complete on the transportation control movement document (TCMD)

a. 25 a, b, c, and d

b. 25 a, b, c, and k

c. 26 a, b, c, and d

d. 26 a, b, c, and k

Definition
b. 25 a, b, c, and k
Term

24. once cargo is processed and the paperwork is completed, where do you stow the cargo?

a. flight line

b. hi line dock

c. nearest aircraft

d. bay warehouse

Definition
d. bay warehouse
Term

25. originating cargo and ordinary mail is channeled according to what?

a. priority 

b. destination

c. closest empty bay

d. destination and then priority

Definition
d. destination and then priority
Term

how do you handle hazardous materials that are improperly prepared or damaged?

a. refuse or frustrated until the discrepancies are corrected

b. wait for headquarters approval to continue shipment

c. accept the item and the receiver will file a claim later

Definition
a. refuse or frustrated until the discrepancies are corrected
Term

27. who will ensure that are documentation matches correctly on hazardous materials?

a. Air Terminal Operations Flight

b. Aircraft Commander

c. Cargo in-checker

d. Special Handling

Definition
d. Special Handling
Term

28. who is responsibile for repairing damaged mail containers?

a. nearest postal activity

b. port of embarkation (POE)

c. Airlift Clearance Actiivity (ACA)

d. Customer Service Branch (CSB)

Definition
a. nearest postal activity
Term

29. The AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo, is prepared in how many copies?

a. 2

b. 3

c. 4

d. 5

Definition
b. 3
Term

30. When channeling registered mail, what is the first thing that you must consider?

a. System Entry time

b. registration

c. destination

d. security

Definition
d. security
Term

31. Foreign nationals may handle what type of mail if designated and authorized in writing by the squadron commander?

a. registered mail

b. ordinary mail

c. all types of mail

d. not authorized

Definition
b. ordinary mail
Term

32. The AMC Form 214, Security Cage Log and Inventory are initiated at what time each day?

a. every shift change

b. every eight hours

c. 0001 hours local

d. 0001 hours GMT

Definition
c. 0001 hours local
Term

33. What is the actual size of the 463 pallet?

a. 108X84X2 1/2 inch

b. 108X88X2 1/2 inch

c. 104X84X 2 1/2 inch

d. 104X88X 2 1/2 inch

Definition
b. 108X88 X 2 1/2 inches
Term

34. What are the usable dimensions of the 463L pallet?

a. 108X84

b. 108X88

c. 104X84

d. 104X88

Definition
c. 104X84 inches
Term

35. What is the pallet limit, pounds per square inch, that can be placed on most 463L pallets?

a. 200

b. 250

c. 300

d. 350

Definition
b. 250
Term

36. When properly installed, what is the maximum rated capacity of 463L net set?

a. 10,000 pounds at 10Gs

b. 10,000 pounds at 8Gs

c. 8,000 pounds at 10Gs

d. 8,000 pounds at 8Gs

Definition
b. 10,000 pounds at 8Gs
Term

37. Which action should you not follow when storing 463L pallets?

a. place 3 point dunnage between groups of 10

b. inspect pallets for missing rings

c. inspected pallets for cleanliness

d. stack pallets upside down

Definition
d. stack pallets upside down
Term

38. How often must each station inventory their pallets and nets?

a. at the end of each month

b. at the beggining of each month

c. every 2 weeks

d. every 8 weeks

Definition
a. at the end of each month
Term

39. What pallets are required to have DD Form 1577, series condition tag?

a. all pallets

b. only serviceable

c. only WRM and unserviceable pallets

d. only pallets on loan to another squadron

 

Definition

c. only WRM and unserviceable pallets

 

Term

40. The most identifying characteristics of this aircraft is its capabilty to be loaded through its front and rear cargo ramps

a. C-5B

b. C-130

c. C-141B

d. KC-135

Definition
a. C-5B
Term

41. This aircraft is easily identified by an engine joining the vertical stabilizer and the body of the aircraft?

a. B-747

b. DC-10

c. C-141B

d. KC-135

Definition
b. DC-10
Term

42. What is the maximum pallets height allowed on the main cargo deck of the C-141B aircraft?

a. 70 inches

b. 76 inches

c. 96 inches

d. 99 inches

Definition
c. 96 inches
Term

43. What is the maximum number of 463L pallets that can be loaded aboard a C-17 aircraft?

a. 6

b. 9

c. 13

d. 18

Definition
d. 18
Term

44. What is the maximum single pallet's weight for the forward front ramp of a C-5B?

a. 7,500 lbs

b. 10,000 lbs

c. 15,000 lbs

d. 20,000 lbs

Definition
a. 7,500 lbs
Term
4
Definition
Term

45. What is used to measure the height and shape of a pallet?

a. educated guess

b. measuring stick

c. pallet template

d. pallet stick

 

Definition
c. pallet template
Term

47. Which option is not one of the most common types of scales used to weigh pallets?

a. stationary scales

b. pallet pit scales

c. portable scales

d. legal scales

Definition
d. legal scales
Term

48. Where is the original copy of the AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice, placed?

a. on the pallet

b. in the reports section

c. in the records section

d. in the cargo processing section

Definition
a. on the pallet
Term

49. How many copies of the AMC Form 39, Pallet Invoice is placed on a pallet?

a. one

b. two

 c. four

d. none

Definition
a. one
Term

50. The pallet identifier is prepared with two copies and placed where?

a. one on the short side, one on the long side, and one on top

b. one on each short sde and one on the long side

c. one on each long side and one on the short side

d. one on each side of the pallet 

Definition
b. one on each short side and one on the long side
Term

51. The maximum weight allowed on a two pallet train is determined by what?

a. aircraft roller's limitations

b. pallet's limitations

c. both a and b

d.neither a or b

Definition
c. both a and b
Term

52. How many pallet couplers are used for a two pallet train?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

Definition
a. 2
Term

53. Which shipment would require a center of balance marking?

a. lumber 46 inches long

b. lumber 74 inches long

c. extremely heavy cargo

d. single pallet

Definition
b. lumber 74 inches long
Term

54. Which formula is used to find the center of balance for a multi pallet train?

a.total inch pounds divided by partial weight

b. total inch pounds divided by total weight

c. total pounds divided by total weight

d. total inches divided by total pounds 

Definition
b. total inch pounds divided by total weight
Term

55. What is the distance in inches from the center of the front axle, to the center of the rear axle or center of tandem axles called?

a. front axle weight

b. rear axle weight

c. gross weight

d. wheel base

Definition
d. wheel base
Term

56. Which formula is used to find the center of gravity front end?

a. CGFA+ROH =CGFE

b. CGFA+FOH = CGFE

c. RAW +FOH=CGFE

d. WB+ROH=CGFE

Definition
b. CGFA+FOH = CGFE
Term

57.  The MB-1 device has a rated tiedown capacity of how many pounds?

a. 5,000

b. 7,000

c. 10,000

d. 15,000

Definition
c. 10,000
Term

58. The MB-2 device has a rated tiedown capacity of how many pounds?

a. 5,000

b. 10,000

c. 15,000

d. 25,000

Definition
d. 25,000
Term

59. Which restraint criteria is used to calculate the required forward restraint?

a. 1.0 g

b. 1.5 gs

c. 2.0 gs

d. 3.0 gs

Definition
d. 3.0 gs
Term

60. Which restraint criteria is used to calculate the required AFT restraint?

a. 1.0 gs

b. 1.5 gs

c. 2.0 gs

d. 3.0 gs

Definition
b. 1.5 gs
Term

61. The dual rail system consist of what?

a. side rails

b. detents

c. rollers

d. all of the above

Definition
d. all of the above
Term

62. How many types of temporary rings are there?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

Definition
a. 2
Term

63. Which entry line is not required when preparing a pre-manifest?

a. signature block

b. manifest header

c. pallet header

d. prime data

Definition
a. signature block
Term

64. Prime data entries immediately follow what?

a. information block

b. signature block

c. manifest header

d. pallet header

Definition
d. pallet header
Term

65. When you have multiple pages of a pre-manifest, where are the totals listed?

a. on each page

b. on the front page

c. on the last page

d. no totals required of a pre-manifest

Definition
c. on the last page
Term

66. What is meant when we load loose cargo?

a. cargo that is live stock

b. cargo that is loose inside the aircraft

c. cargo that is placed on the aircraft to be palletized later

d. cargo that is secured to the aircraft floor, not palletized

Definition
d. cargo that is secured to the aircraft floor, not palletized
Term

67. When is the final manifest completed?

a. when the load is firm

b. when the load is tentative

c. when the aircraft arrives

d. when the aircraft reaches it's destination

Definition
a. when the load is firm
Term

68. How often will the manifest register be initiated and maintained?

a. every fiscal year/daily

b. every fiscal year/weekly

c. every calendar year/daily

d. every calendar year/weekly

Definition
a. every fiscal year/daily
Term

69. Which entry is required in the manifest header when completing a final manifest?

a. remarks

b. manifest ID

c. Com code

d. type pack

Definition
b. manifest ID
Term

70. How close can you park a vehicle at the rear of an aircraft that has its engines running?

a. 10 feet

b. 25 feet

c. 100 feet

d. 200 feet

Definition
d. 200 feet
Term

71. Which statement is accurate concerning flight line safety?

a. yield the right away to emergency vehicles

b. turn all vehicle lights off when an aircraft is taxing

c. approach parked aircraft and follow me truck at all times for maximum visibility

 

Definition
a. yield the right away to emergency vehicles
Term

72. What does a flashing red tower signal mean?

a. stop

b. red alert

c. clear to cross

d. clear runway immediately

Definition
d. clear runway immediately
Term

73. How fast may you drive the warehouse tug while towing?

a. 3 mph

b. 5 mph

c. 10 mph

d. 15 mph

Definition
b. 5 mph
Term

74. What is used at night to assist spotters with hand signals?

a. tail lights

b. flash lights

c. head lights

d. do not use spotters at night

Definition
b. flash lights
Term

75. Which vehicle is designed to place 463L master pallets on the hi line docks?

a. electric forklift

b. 10K forklift

c. 25K loader

d. 4K forklift

 

Definition
b. 10K forklift
Term

76. Which vehicle is capable of carrying a maximum of three 463L master pallets?

a. 25K loader

b. 40K loader

c. 60K loader

d. warehouse tug

Definition
a. 25K loader
Term

77. The 60K loader has a maximum lifting height of how many inches?

a. 144

b. 150

c. 156

d. 222

Definition
d. 222
Term

78. What document s used when operators perform daily and weekly inspections on vehicles?

a. pre-manifest

b. AMC Form 68, Aerial Port Movement Log

c. AMC Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record

d. AF Form 1810, Operators Inspection Guide and Trouble Report

Definition
d. AF Form 1810, Operators Inspection Guide and Trouble Report
Term

79. When does the vehicle control officer initiate the AF Form 1810?

a. on the first of each month

b. on the 15th of each month

c. beginning of each fiscal year

d. beginning of each calendar year

Definition
a. on the first of each month
Term

80. What form is given to individuals if you are involved in an accident in a government vehicle?

a. DD Form 518, Accident Identification Card

b. AF Form 1252, USAF Vehicle Serv-O Plate

c. SF 91, Operator's Report of Motor Vehicle Accident

d. AF Form 1810, Operator's Inspection Guide and Trouble Report

Definition
a. DD Form 518, Accident Identification Card
Term

81. Of the three vehicle inspections, which one will you check the fluid levels of a forklift?

a. before

b. during

c. after

d. this is maintenance's job

Definition
a. before
Term

82. Which inspection do you check the manual equipment on the K-loaders?

a. before

b. during

c. after

d. this is maintenance's job

Definition
a. before
Term

83. How does ramp services determine what type of material handling equipment(MHE) is required to perform an operation?

a. AF Form 1252

b. The load pull sheet

c. the first available vehicle

d. what ever the supervisor says

Definition
b. the load pull sheet
Term

84. What is the requirement for sleeper shoring?

a. vehicles with pneumatic (aif filled) tires and that have a weight of 10,000 pounds or more

b. vehicles with pneumatic tires and that have a weight of 20,000 pounds or more

c. vehicles with metal tracks and that have a weight of 10,000 pounds or more

d. vehicles with metal tracks and that have a weight of 20,000 pounds or more

Definition
b. vehicles with pneumatic tires and that have a weight of 20,000 pounds or more
Term

85. Which section of the AMC form 109, Tiedown Equipment Checklist is used to issue/inventory each type of tiedown equipment placed aboard an aircraft?

a. section I

b. section II

c. section III

d. section IV

Definition
b. section II
Term

86. What is the  first step to selecting an aircraft load?

a. inspect the aircraft load

b. assemble aircraft load

c. obtain documentation

d. identify aircraft load

Definition
c. obtain documentation
Term

87. Which document may be used  to pull an aircraft load?

a. final manifest

b. pallet tally sheet

c. AMC Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record

d. AMC Form 272, Load Sequence Breakdown Worksheet

Definition
d. AMC Form 272, Load Sequence Breakdown Worksheet
Term

88. What must be checked on a K-loader before pushing pallets onto the K-loader?

a. ensure the front pallet stop is in the up position

b. ensure the rear pallet stop is in the up position

c. ensure all the pallet locks are disengaged

d. both b and c

Definition
d. both b and c
Term

89. Once the cargo is on the K-loader, and each pallet is locked in position, what must be done next?

a. place two 10,000 lbs chains for forward restraint on the front pallet and two 10,000 lb chains for aft restraint on the last pallet

b. place one 10,000 lb chain for forward restraiint on the fron pallet and one 10,000 lb chain for aft restrain on the last pallet

c. place one 10,000 lb chain for forward restraint on the front pallet only

d. place two 10,000 lb chains for aft restraint on the last pallet only

Definition
b. place one 10,000 lb chain for forward restraint on the front pallet and one 10,000 chain for aft restraint on the last pallet
Term

90. What loading aid is used on most commercial aircraft?

a. chock stand

b. stabilizer struts

c. tail support stand

d. ramp support stand

Definition
c. tail support stand
Term

91. What loading aid is used on C-141 aircraft?

a. chock stand

b. stabilizer struts

c. tail support stand

d. ramp support stand

Definition
b. stabilizer struts
Term

92. When no method of loading is feasible/practical, who should you notify?

a. the receiver

b. air terminal operations flight

c. unit safety officers/NCO of air freight

d. AMC headquarters

Definition
c. Unit Safety officers/NCO of Air Freight
Term

93. Who directs vehicle/equipment into the aircraft?

a. driver

b. passenger

c. loadmaster/spotter

d. crew member/passenger

Definition
c. load master/spotter
Term

94. What is the maximum number of transfer cases that may be transported on a single pallet?

a. 4

b. 8

c. 12

d. 24

Definition
c. 12
Term

95. Using a rubber stamp, ATOF uses what to annotate on the first page of all manifests?

a. GMT and Julian date of aircraft block time

b. GMT and Julian date of aircraft arrival time

c. GMT and Julian date of aircraft departure time

d. GMT and Julian date of when the aircraft started its mission

Definition
a. GMT and Julian date of aircraft block time
Term

96. What form will AMC stations use to log in a terminating manifest?

a. AF Form 129, Tally In/Out

b. AMC form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo

c. AMC Form 77, Aircraft Ground Handling Record

d. AMC Form 156, Terminating Cargo/Mail Manifest Control Log

Definition
d. AMC Form 156, Terminating Cargo/Mail Manifest Control Log
Term

97. What is the standard weight of one side net?

a. 290 lbs

b. 90 lbs

c. 22 lbs

d. 21 lbs

Definition
c. 22 lbs
Term

98. When intransit cargo has been in checked, how is it placed in the bays?

a. SET

b. destination

c. priority and SET

d. destination, priority, and SET

Definition
d. destination, priority, and SET
Term

99. What form is accomplished for each intransit pallet?

a. AF Form 2279, Pallet Identifier

b. DD Form 1385, Cargo Manifest

c. DD Form 1387, TCMD

d. AMC Form 33, Report of Frustrated Cargo

Definition
a. AF Form 2279, Pallet Identifier
Term

100. How do you annotate a short shipment on the manifest?

a. the line item is circled

b. the line item is hand written onto the manifest

c. the line item is circled and S/S is placed in the right hand margin

d. the line item is circled and short shipment is put in the right hand margin

Definition
c. the line item is circled and S/S is placed in the right hand margin
Term

101. Who determines if a damaged non technical shipment can be sent to its destination in its present condition?

a. CSB/ACA

b. Shift Supervisor

c. cargo in-checker

d. air freight officer/NCOIC

Definition
d. air freight officer/NCOIC
Term

102. To provide faster service to the aircraft, what does Fleet Service prepackage ahead of time?

a. flight meals

b. comfort pallet kits

c. expendable items in trip kits

d. non expendable items in trip kits

Definition
c. expendable items in trip kits
Term

103. Fleet service is responsibile for maintaining how many days of expendable supplies in stock?

a. 30

b. 60

c. 90

d. 120

Definition
a. 30
Term

104. The type and quantity of non expendable equipment to be placed on an aircraft, is determined by what?

a. type of passengers

b. number of destinations

c. type of aircraft and mission requirements

d. type of aircraft and number of passengers

Definition
c. type of aircraft and mission requirements
Term

105. What form does the fleet service dispatcher prepare for each aircraft serviced?

a. AMC Form 229, Inventory Sheet

b. AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record

c. AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet

d. AMC Form 268, Passenger Service Kit Packing /Inventory List

Definition
c. AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet
Term

106. What form is filled out when non-expendable equipment is placed on AMC military aircraft?

a. AMC Form 12, Fleet Service Checklist

b. AMC Form 12-1, Comfort Pallet Portable Lavatory Unit Checklist

c. AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record

d. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

Definition
a. AMC Form 12, Fleet Service Checklist
Term

107. What form is filled out when a portable lavatory is loaded on an AMC military aircraft?

a. AMC Form 12 Fleet Service checklist

b. AMC Form 12-1, Comfort Pallet Portable lavatory unit checklist

c. AMC Form 249, Fleet Service Equipment Record

d. AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt

Definition
b. AMC Form 12-1, Comfort Pallet Portable Lavatory Unit Checklist
Term

108. What is provided to fleet service from passenger service no later than 40 minutes prior to departure?

a. crew count

b. passenger count

c. tentative meal order

d. firm meal order

Definition
d. firm meal order
Term

109. What form is used to issue non-expendable tems to non AMC aircraft?

a. AMC Form 129

b. AMC Form 12

c. AMC Form 12-1

d. AF Form 1297

Definition
d. AF Form 1297
Term

110. Who prepares the AMC Form 244, Fleet Service Arrival/Departure Worksheet?

a. flight kitchen

b. ATOF dispatcher

c. fleet service shift chief

d. fleet service dispatcher

Definition
d. fleet service dispatcher
Term

111. Which side of the AMC Form 244, will be filled out for terminating aircraft?

a. its not filled out for terminating

b. both sides

c. departure

d. arrival

Definition
d. arrival
Term

112. Which vehicle is equipped with a manual hoist unit?

a. portable water truck

b. NF-2 Light Cart

c. passenger bus

d. 10K forklift

Definition
b. NF-2 Light Cart
Term

113. How many gallons of rinse water is required to flush the lavatories?

a. 10

b. 11

c. 12

d. 13

Definition
b.11
Term

114. The waste tank of the latrine service truck may be emptied by positoning the what over the disposal drain?

a. rinse/fill hose

b. sight gauge

c. waste hose

d. pinch valve

Definition
d. pinch valve
Term

115. Once the potable water tank is positioned to service the aircraft, place the gear shift in neutral or park, set the brake, and

a. turn the vehicle off

b. chock the front wheels

c. leave the vehicle running

d. check with the loadmaster

Definition
c. leave the vehicle running
Term

116. What is needed to drain the portable water tank on the Air Transportable Galley lavatory?

a. 1 gal bucket

b. 5 gal bucket

c. 10 gal bucket

d. 15 gal bucket

Definition
b. 5 gal bucket
Term

117. What hose on the portable water truck is used to fill the Air Transportable Galley Lavatory?

a. drain hose

b. water hose

c. waste hose

d. dispensing hose

Definition
d. dispensing hose
Term

118. The galley area of the Air Transportable Galley Lavatory is cleaned with what?

a. water

b. bug spray

c. soap and water

d. not our job to clean it

Definition
c. soap and water
Term

119. What is another name for the cathode ray tube?

a. tube

b. viewer

c. screen

d. monitor

Definition
d. monitor
Term

120. Most computer systems have what type of memory?

a. temporary

b. internal, random access

c. internal, external

d. fixed, internal

Definition
c. internal, external
Term

121. What is United States Transportation Command's Global Transportation Network ultimate goal?

a. provide complete In transit Visibility

b. enable users to track their traffic by stock number

c. create a worldwide database all functional users can query

d. enable DOD agencies to make arrangements for rental cars

Definition
a. provide complete In-Transit Visibility
Term

122. The primary function of the Global Transportation Network enables functional users to what?

a. find transportations jobs around the world

b. manage their material handling equipment(MHE)

c. Communication airlift requirements to USTRANSCOM

d. locate their traffic by TCN or SSAN, anywhere at anytime

Definition
d. locate their traffice by TCN or SSAN, anywhere at anytime
Term

123. Two subsystems that constitute CAPS II are what?

a. DOS, UNIX

b. GTN, CARGO

c. ADAM III, PAX

d. CARGO, SPRACS

Definition
d. CARGO, SPRACS
Term

124. The Passenger Reservation Center uses what computer system to accumulate passenger flight reservations.

a. Military Airlft Clearance Authority(MACA)

b. Transportation Working Capital Fund(TWCF)

c. Headquarters On line System for Transportation

d. Passenger Reservation and Manifesting System

Definition
d. Passenger Reservation and Manifesting System
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