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2R051 Volume 3 Study Guide / Answers
For my fellow brothers.
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12/12/2012

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Term
(401) A natural number is stated as a positive number that

a. has any actual value from zero to infinity.
b. has its own unique properties.
c. can be added or subtracted.
d. can be summed.
Definition
a. has any actual value from zero to infinity.
Term
(401) What is the value of 5 ÷ 2 × 6?

a. 0.3.
b. 8.4.
c. 15.0.
d. 30.0.
Definition
c. 15.0.
Term
(401) When using natural numbers, a number placed directly behind brackets, with no sign of
operation between, indicates that

a. you must multiply and divide before adding and subtracting.
b. you can perform the calculation with or without the brackets.
c. the brackets should be removed before performing the calculation.
d. the quantity within the brackets must be multiplied by that number.
Definition
d. the quantity within the brackets must be multiplied by that number.
Term
(401) Which phrase is true regarding signed numbers?

a. Only whole numbers are used.
b. Negative numbers are not used.
c. Dividing by zero is permitted.
d. Both positive and negative numbers have values.
Definition
d. Both positive and negative numbers have values.
Term
(401) Compute the difference of the signed numbers –17 – (–10).

a. +3.0.
b. –3.0.
c. –7.0.
d. –27.0.
Definition
c. –7.0.
Term
(401) How do you write: “The square root of 25 is 5.” as a mathematical expression?

a.
b.
c.
d.
Definition
d.
Term
(402) What is 22 percent of 12?

a. 1.83.
b. 2.64.
c. 18.30.
d. 26.40.
Definition
b. 2.64.
Term
(403) Which statistical technique is an example of descriptive statistics?

a. Probability.
b. Extrapolation.
c. Trend analysis.
d. Measurement scales.
Definition
b. Extrapolation.
Term
(404) In the equation Y=X+2, what does the symbol “Y” represent?

a. Exponent.
b. Inequality.
c. Subscript.
d. Variable.
Definition
d. Variable.
Term
(404) What is the value of 4 cubed?

a. 64.
b. 24.
c. 12.
d. 7.
Definition
a. 64.
Term
(405) A sample of a population that is taken in such a manner that each value has an equal chance
of being selected is referred to as a

a. biased sample.
b. random sample.
c. sampling theory.
d. sampling application.
Definition
b. random sample.
Term
(405) If you construct a QLP retrieval to select every 8th record, you are using which sampling
technique?

a. Selective.
b. Stratified.
c. Systematic.
d. Purposeful.
Definition
c. Systematic.
Term
(406) Which measurement scale consists of equal intervals between scale values and an arbitrary
zero point?

a. Ratio.
b. Nominal.
c. Ordinal.
d. Interval.
Definition
d. Interval.
Term
(406) You are given two pieces of test equipment that must be loaded on a pallet. One piece
weighs 125 pounds and the other piece weighs 3.5 times as much. Using the ratio measurement
scale, how much does the second piece of equipment weigh?

a. 375.0 pounds.
b. 415.5 pounds.
c. 437.5 pounds.
d. 500.0 pounds.
Definition
c. 437.5 pounds.
Term
(406) Given measurements of 5.0 hours, 10.0 hours, 15.0 hours, and 20.0 hours, what type of data
and measurement scale would you use to classify these data items?

a. Discrete; ratio.
b. Discrete; interval.
c. Continuous; ratio.
d. Continuous; interval.
Definition
c. Continuous; ratio.
Term
(407) The second step in making a frequency distribution is to

a. determine the range of the data.
b. determine the class interval size.
c. range the data from largest to smallest.
d. range the data from smallest to largest.
Definition
b. determine the class interval size.
Term
(407) With a noncumulative frequency distribution range of 3.6, which class interval will give
you 18 classes?

a. 0.1.
b. 0.2.
c. 0.3.
d. 0.4.
Definition
b. 0.2.
Term
18. (407) One way of comparing class frequencies to the total frequency is by

a. indirect comparison.
b. direct comparison.
c. visual inspection.
d. percentage.
Definition
d. percentage.
Term
(408) What does each rectangle in a histogram represent?

a. Value of the data.
b. One class of data.
c. Upper and lower limits.
d. Number of frequencies.
Definition
b. One class of data.
Term
(408) When constructing a frequency polygon, what are plotted against the corresponding
midpoints?

a. Series of rectangles.
b. Individual values of data.
c. Lower limit and baseline.
d. Frequencies of the various class intervals.
Definition
d. Frequencies of the various class intervals.
Term
(409) What measure of central tendency is the most typical value in a distribution?

a. Mean.
b. Mode.
c. Median.
d. Weighted mean.
Definition
b. Mode.
Term
(409) The mode is the only measure of central tendency that can be used with what measurement
scale?

a. Ratio.
b. Interval.
c. Ordinal.
d. Nominal.
Definition
d. Nominal.
Term
(410) Analysts frequently use the median because it is easy to compute and gives a better picture
of data than the mean and mode when data are

a. normal.
b. skewed.
c. incomplete.
d. inconclusive.
Definition
b. skewed.
Term
(410) The median cannot be used with data from which measurement scale?

a. Nominal.
b. Interval.
c. Ordinal.
d. Ratio.
Definition
a. Nominal.
Term
(410) What must you do first to determine the median from ungrouped data?

a. Arrange the data in classes.
b. Determine the numerical average.
c. Determine the total of the values.
d. Arrange the data in ascending order.
Definition
d. Arrange the data in ascending order.
Term
(411) The harmonic mean is used primarily for averaging

a. data of varying weights.
b. skewed distributions.
c. approximate values.
d. rates.
Definition
d. rates.
Term
(411) Compute a weighted mean for a distribution containing two values of 3 each, four values of
2 each, and four values of 5 each.

a. 1.0.
b. 3.4.
c. 6.6.
d. 11.3.
Definition
b. 3.4.
Term
(411) The arithmetic mean should be weighted when

a. like values are found in a data series.
b. all items in a series are equal.
c. a mean of means is desired.
d. a series cannot be grouped.
Definition
c. a mean of means is desired.
Term
(411) Three workers perform a similar task. Worker A takes 30 minutes to complete the task and
can finish 2 jobs per hour. Worker B takes 20 minutes to complete the task and can complete 3
jobs per hour. Worker C takes 40 minutes to complete the task, and completes 1.5 jobs per hour.
Which calculation method will you use to find the average time it takes to complete the job?

a. Harmonic mean.
b. Arithmetic mean.
c. Weighted harmonic mean.
d. Weighted arithmetic mean.
Definition
a. Harmonic mean.
Term
(411) A unique feature of the harmonic mean is it

a. can only be used for grouped data.
b. will always be less than the arithmetic mean.
c. is only used to average skewed distributions.
d. is never weighted when various quantities of the denominator factors are used.
Definition
b. will always be less than the arithmetic mean.
Term
(412) For any distribution, the sum of the deviations is

a. one.
b. zero.
c. less than one.
d. more than one.
Definition
b. zero.
Term
(412) What is the population standard deviation for the following values: 6, 8, 9, 14, and 22?



a. 5.7.
b. 6.4.
c. 11.8.
d. 32.5.
Definition
a. 5.7.
Term
(412) In a sample, you have 10 X-values, and each value is equal to 7. What is the standard
deviation of the sample? Formula for standard deviation:



a. 0.
b. 2.6.
c. 14.
d. 49.
Definition
a. 0.
Term
(412) As the number of values in a normal distribution sample decreases, the standard deviation

a. becomes more representative of the population.
b. becomes less representative of the population.
c. remains the same.
d. increases.
Definition
b. becomes less representative of the population.
Term
(413) Given a large number of random samples, the mean of all the sample means related to the population mean is

a. the same.
b. radically different.
c. exactly 3 standard deviations apart.
d. more than 3 standard deviations apart.
Definition
a. the same.
Term
(413) In estimating the standard error of the mean, for what sample size do you use n–1 in the
formula?

a. 10 or more.
b. 50 or more.
c. Less than 25.
d. Less than 30.
Definition
d. Less than 30.
Term
(413) If , what is the estimate of the standard error of the mean of a sample with a standard deviation of 3 and a sample size of 10?

a. .3.
b. .33.
c. 1.0.
d. 5.0.
Definition
c. 1.0.
Term
(414) A normal distribution contains what two parameters?

a. Mean and mode.
b. Standard error and mode.
c. Mean and standard deviation.
d. Standard error and standard deviation.
Definition
c. Mean and standard deviation.
Term
(414) In a normal distribution, how many standard deviations on each side of the mean contain over 99 percent of the area under the normal area curve within?

a. 1.
b. 2.
c. 3.
d. 4.
Definition
c. 3.
Term
(414) When plotted on normal probability graph paper, data from a normal distribution shows up
as a

a. circle.
b. curved line.
c. straight line.
d. bell-shaped curve.
Definition
c. straight line.
Term
(415) If X equals 24 and s equals 6, what are the values of X ± 2s?

a. 24 and 48.
b. 18 and 36.
c. 12 and 36.
d. 12 and 24.
Definition
c. 12 and 36.
Term
(415) How many standard deviations are represented by a value of 22 if X = 14 and s = 5?
Formula:
s
X -X


a. −2.8.
b. −1.6.
c. 1.6.
d. 2.8.
Definition
c. 1.6.
Term
(416) Where does the most frequent value of a normal curve occur?

a. At the center of the distribution.
b. At all points in the distribution.
c. At the tail end of the distribution.
d. Away from the center of the distribution.
Definition
a. At the center of the distribution.
Term
(417) The causes of variation that can be identified on a control chart, regulated, and possibly
eliminated are

a. natural.
b. random.
c. assignable.
d. due to chance.
Definition
c. assignable.
Term
(417) The purpose of a control chart in statistics is to

a. identify causes for variation.
b. eliminate causes for variation.
c. detect the presence of chance causes for variation.
d. detect the presence of assignable causes for variation.
Definition
d. detect the presence of assignable causes for variation.
Term
(418) When identifying processes out of control and using a control chart, what action should you take if you have set your control limits at three standard deviations and later find not enough time is spent looking for assignable causes?

a. Switch to tighter limits.
b. Recalculate the standard deviation.
c. Keep established limits and do not investigate.
d. Discard current data and recalculate the standard deviation.
Definition
a. Switch to tighter limits.
Term
(419) In statistical terms, what does the control chart for plotting individual X values use for the
centerline?

a. Mean.
b. Mode.
c. Standard deviation.
d. Standard error of the mean.
Definition
a. Mean.
Term
(419) The statistical interpretation of a control chart for individuals would be distorted if the

a. distribution is normal.
b. distribution is extremely skewed.
c. standard deviation is too small.
d. standard deviation is too large.
Definition
b. distribution is extremely skewed.
Term
(420) A statistical chart for averages is used to plot

a. control limits.
b. individual values.
c. standard deviations.
d. means of small samples.
Definition
d. means of small samples.
Term
(420) What characteristic of the distribution used in a control chart for averages gives it an advantage over a chart for individuals?

a. The distribution of means tends to be normal.
b. The population must always be normal.
c. The population can never be skewed.
d. Individual samples are not used.
Definition
a. The distribution of means tends to be normal.
Term
(421) Which statistical chart measures changes in the means of a series?

a. Chart for individuals.
b. Chart for averages.
c. Range chart.
d. P chart.
Definition
b. Chart for averages.
Term
(421) What subgroup sample size is commonly used when constructing a statistical range chart?

a. 4 or 5.
b. 6 or 10.
c. 10 or 20.
d. 20 or 25.
Definition
b. 6 or 10.
Term
(422) What statistical control chart is used to plot the percent of defective items?

a. C chart.
b. P chart.
c. Chart of averages.
d. Chart of individuals.
Definition
b. P chart.
Term
(422) On a P chart in statistics, changes in sample size are affected by the

a. centerline.
b. control limits.
c. standard deviation.
d. standard error of the mean.
Definition
b. control limits.
Term
(423) In statistics, a C chart may be used to measure the

a. number of defective units.
b. number of defects per unit.
c. percent of defective units.
d. percent of defects per unit.
Definition
b. number of defects per unit.
Term
(423) In statistics, one difference between a C chart and a P chart is the C chart
a. is more accurate.
b. formulas are more complicated.
c. sample size must remain constant.
d. measures variables while the P chart measures attributes.
Definition
c. sample size must remain constant.
Term
(424) In statistics, a range chart is normally used with a

a. C chart.
b. P chart.
c. chart for averages.
d. chart for individuals.
Definition
c. chart for averages.
Term
(424) In statistics, what are the two control charts for attributes?

a. C and X charts.
b. C and P charts.
c. R and P charts.
d. X and P charts.
Definition
b. C and P charts.
Term
(424) On what statistical control chart is the number of defects per unit plotted?

a. C chart.
b. P chart.
c. Chart for averages.
d. Chart for individuals.
Definition
a. C chart.
Term
(425) In predictive analysis, a coefficient of correlation indicates

a. which set of data caused the other.
b. to what extent two sets of data are related.
c. to what extent two sets of data are not related.
d. which set of data is independent or dependent.
Definition
b. to what extent two sets of data are related.
Term
(425) When performing correlation analysis, the closer a value is to zero, the

a. less relationship there is.
b. more relationship there is.
c. more positive the relationship.
d. more negative the relationship.
Definition
a. less relationship there is.
Term
(425) When performing correlation analysis, as values in one set of measure increase and the
corresponding or paired values in the other set also increase, the relationship is considered to be

a. positive.
b. negative.
c. a coefficient of correlation.
d. a low degree of scattered data.
Definition
a. positive.
Term
(425) In correlation analysis, what do you use to identify the relationship between two sets of
measures?

a. Histogram.
b. Scatter diagram.
c. Correlation table.
d. Frequency polygon.
Definition
b. Scatter diagram.
Term
(426) The data used for Pearson’s coefficient of correlation must

a. be discrete.
b. be from the ordinal scale.
c. display homogeneity of variance.
d. display heterogeneity of variance.
Definition
c. display homogeneity of variance.
Term
(427) Do not use Spearman’s correlation method as a substitute for Pearson’s if the result is to be

a. used in a study requiring highly accurate statistics.
b. applied to data from the ordinal scale.
c. used in additional statistical testing.
d. applied to large samples.
Definition
c. used in additional statistical testing.
Term
(427) What is the full range of Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient?

a. −1 to +1.
b. −1 to 0.
c. 0 to +1.
d. +1 to +2.
Definition
a. −1 to +1
Term
(428) For a time series-type of trend analysis, what is the recommended minimum period of time
for the amount of data required?

a. 6 months.
b. 12 months.
c. 18 months.
d. 24 months.
Definition
d. 24 months.
Term
(428) What is the minimum time period required to use linear trend analysis techniques?

a. 6 months.
b. 12 months.
c. 18 months.
d. 24 months.
Definition
d. 24 months.
Term
(428) What month or months is/are not used in plotting a semi-average trend analysis line?

a. Middle.
b. End only.
c. Beginning only.
d. Beginning and ending.
Definition
d. Beginning and ending.
Term
(429) Whenever data tend to form a straight line, what is the most popular method for computing
the secular trend analysis of a time series?

a. Line of regression.
b. Time series analysis.
c. Least-squares method.
d. Parabolic trend analysis.
Definition
c. Least-squares method.
Term
(429) Given that YC = a + bX, a = ΣY/N, b = ΣXY/ΣX2, N= 24, ΣY = 1800, ΣXY = 4700, and ΣX2 = 12,100, what is Yc for X = 23?
a. 66.07.
b. 74.61.
c. 75.39.
d. 83.93.
Definition
d. 83.93.
Term
(430) Which plots are used to draw the moving-average in a nonlinear trend line?

a. Each plot in the series.
b. The two extreme plots in the series.
c. The center plots for each time span.
d. The plots closest to the overall series average.
Definition
c. The center plots for each time span.
Term
(430) What is considered a disadvantage when using the moving average trend analysis method?

a. Extrapolation is not possible.
b. Seasonal variations cannot be smoothed.
c. Cyclical variations will continue to fluctuate.
d. The data cannot be used for any other time series.
Definition
a. Extrapolation is not possible.
Term
(430) The second-degree parabola trend analysis method is used for computing a

a. linear trend line.
b. nonlinear trend line.
c. Kendall trend statistic.
d. mathematical extrapolation.
Definition
b. nonlinear trend line.
Term
(431) To analyze seasonal trends, you would use the percent-of-yearly-total method to establish

a. an index of seasonal variations.
b. an extrapolation of seasonal data values.
c. the probability of seasonal trend variations.
d. the line of regression for seasonal data values.
Definition
a. an index of seasonal variations.
Term
(431) When using a seasonal index, the 8⅓ percent (100/12) centerline serves as a reference point to
indicate the months

a. within the prediction interval.
b. above or below the overall average.
c. increasing at a steady rate of change.
d. between the upper and lower control limits.
Definition
b. above or below the overall average.
Term
(432) What are the man-hours of increase-per-month if the mean time between failure for YC(1)
increases from 5.1 in Jan 2002 to 10.1 in Dec 2003? Formula for rate of increase or decrease per
month is:

a. 0.04.
b. 0.22.
c. 0.98.
d. 1.00.
Definition
b. 0.22.
Term
(432) If 140 seasonal deviations occurred in 2001 and 150 occurred in 2002, how many
deviations would you predict for 2003?

a. 130.
b. 135.
c. 155.
d. 160.
Definition
d. 160.
Term
(433) The standard deviation of “K” is dependent on the

a. mean.
b. population.
c. sample size.
d. computed value of “K.”
Definition
c. sample size.
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