Airforce policy on air and space equipment maintenance expects maintenance to be performed at the

A. lowest level

B. highest level

C. depot facility

D. Contractor facility

What rate is used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance?

A. Abort

B. Break

C. Cannibalization

D. Mission capability

What provides the most effective and efficient use of people, facilities, and equipment?

A. Maintenance organization

B. Maintenance planning

C. increased manning

D. increased funding

The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be on

A. preventive maintenance

B. corrective maintenance

C. backshop maintenance

D. depot maintenance

When a maintenance unit encourages the development of automated information systems and procedures that enhance productivity, it is accomplished by

A. eliminating nonproductive administative tasks and improving   efficiency

B. continuously evaluating resources to meet mission changes and contingencies

C. command channel communications, documentation, and reporting communications with support commands and agencies.

D. effectively scheduling aircraft, support equipment, facilities, and personnel to meet maintenance requirements and flying schedules

Unit-level maintenance organizations are standardized throughout each major command based on size, similar wartime mission, and

A. training

B. budgetary constraints

C. geographical location

D. assigned weapon systems

Which squadron is responsible to the maintenance group (MXG) commander for all staff-related functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG?

A. Maintenance

B. aircraft maintenance

C. maintenance operations

D. helicopter maintenance

What is the title for the senior maintenance manager responsible for C-E maintenance?

A. officer-in-charge

B. chief of maintenance

C. C-E maintenance officer

D. deputy commander for c-e maintenance

Any personnel, other than 2EXXX Air Force specialty code, performing maintenance on C-E equipment, whether assigned to a communications unit or not, is referred to as

A. non-traditional technicians

B. outsourced technicians

C. irregular technicians

D. contract technicians

What kind of C-E maintenance unit provides specialized maintenance and training capability above those normally found in operations and maintenance units?

A. special maintenance teams

B. consolidated repair activity

C. deployable elements of fixed units

D. functionally supported maintenance activity

For what program does the maintenance group commander hold squadron CCs and supervisors at all levels responsible?

A. nuclear surety

B. weight and balance

C. vehicle management

D. dedicated crew chief

Who is responsible for developing an Aircraft Impoundment Program?

A. maintenance flight commander

B. maintenance squadron commander

C. maintenance group commander

D. base commander

Which commander does the maintenance group CC coordinate with concerning the High-Speed Taxi Check program?

A. wing

B. operations group

C. operations squadron

D. transportation squadron

Who is responsible for directing CANN on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center (MOC) and supply?

A. technician

B. flight chief

C. flightline expediter

D. production supervisor

Who selects qualified personnel to perform production inspections and forwards names to maintenance supervision ofr approval?

A. squadron commander

B. production supervisor

C. section chief

D. flight chief

On what does the section chief perform spot checks for autorized levels?

A. bench stock

B. tool storage

C. repairable parts

D. CANN 

Who manages the Bad Actor Program?

A. flight chief

B. section chief

C. flightline expediter

D. production supervisor

Who updates status of CANN actions on assigned aircraft?

A. flight chief

B. section chief

C. flightline expediter

D. production supervisor

Who reviews aircraft forms before exceptional release?

A. flight chief

B. flightline expediter

C. dedicated crew chief

D. production supervisor

Who is responsible for on-aircraft-21 equipment inventories when this responsibility is not assigned to another function?

A. flight chief

B. flightline expediter

C. dedicated crew chief

D. production supervisor

Who is responsible for resolving IMDS problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user?

A. systems monitor

B. database manager

C. database designer

D. database administrator

Which of the following provides info and communication services to military and government organizations in an assigned region of the US?

A. DBM

B. BNCC

C. DECC

D. REMIS management center

The two main agencies within the 754th ELSG are the

A. functional analysis and database administrator

B. database administrator and FAS

C. systems program office and FAS

D. interactive customer service facility and database administrator

Who is the initial POC at 754th ELSG when an IMDS database problem exists that cannot be fixed at base level?

A. DBM

B. SPO

C. DBA

D. FAS

The LAN component that provides services to the users on the network is known as the

A. server

B. protocols

C. workstation

D. server network

Operating rules used in LAN applications are known as

A. protocols

B. networking

C. topologies

D. data language

Which software is required to access IMDS graphical user interface (IMDS GUI)?

A. photo eiditor

B. image reader

C. media player

D. internet browser

Which on of the following must the DBM obtain from the BNCC to gain terminal access to IMDS?

A. IMDS password

B. security clearance

C. server address setting

D. remote ID

The TIP provides

A. access to multiple mainframes

B. users with a fast-file control system

C. for background scheduling of transactions

D.  users with the capability to access application programs

DEMAND processing is a

A. mode that directs the activity of the operating system

B. mode in which several runs are grouped before processing

C. method for maintaining historical data for load, change, inquiry, and deletion.

D. manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific AIS

Which best describes on-line processing?

A. programs are printed at DECC

B. equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe

C. programs are processed by the console operator

D. equipment must remain on at all times.

Online processing may be called

A. batch processing

B. real-time processing

C. pseudo remote processing

D. remote job entry terminal processing

What is considered the easiest method of creating a data file for pseudo processing?

A. running the NFS0A0 program

B. creating the data file in demand mode

C. uploading required data before using a pseudo file

D. manually inputting data into a PC file then upload to pseudo file

In what mode do you run pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB)?

A. none

B. DEMAND

C. Windows

D. TIP

What indicator tells you that a PSURPB program has completed processing?

A. a line on the monitor screen says, "PSURPB COMPLETE"

B. SOE character appears

C. the monitor gives a beep to notify you

D. you receive and E-mail notification

Which application program file holds the absolute elements for batch processing in TIP?

A. FS$$0000*00

B. 0FS0*DBrun$

C. 0FS0*DBALIB$

D. 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP 

Which application program file contains the element used to troubleshoot the database?

A. FS*0000*00

B. 0FS0*DBALIB$

C. 0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL

D. 0FS00000*PABTAG054-AP

Which support program file controls all online programs for each AIS?

A. TIP FILE 611

B. IRU processor

C. VALTAB

D. SUPUR processor

Which support program file ensures the FSA is running and up to date for the IMDS database?

A. TIP FILE 611

B. 0FS0*DBRUN$

C. VALTAB

D. SUPUR processor

The basic keyin console mode allows

A. a user to use unsolicited keyins

B. a user to use all basic console keyins

C. a user to request the status on a user's run

D. DBM to operate in full screen mode

What console mode command displays a list of active runs?

A. T,B

B. TD

C. @@RUN,A

D. @@TM

What ECL command will provide you with the mainframe FTP address?

A. @CAT

B. @RUN

C. @DATA

D. @WHOAMI

What do you call the filename you created on your PC when you do a file transfer?

A. PC file

B. user file

C. local file

D. remote file

A collection of instructions that, when executed, results in the performance of one or more logical functions is called

A. an element

B. a program

C. a granule

D. a file

What ECL command syntax symbol is used to indicate to the system an option is to follow?

A. *

B. ,

C. ;

D. @

A /WRITE-KEY, when used, is presented

A. after the filename and before the @

B. before the filename and after the period

C. after the filename and before the period

D. before the element name and after the comma

What should be used when constructing an ECL file to differentiate between two elements with identical names?

A. cycle

B. /VERSION

C. qualifier

D. @

What is the maximum size a message can be when created with the @MSG ECL command?

A. 25 characters

B. 45 characters

C. 48 characters

D. 50 characters

What is the purpose of the ECL information command @FAC?

A. places the user in the CTS environment

B. analyzes a 12-digit octal number when a facility reject occurs

C. lists basic info about a specified file

D. suppresses the display to the console

If the ECL file manipulation camand GRANULE requirement is left blank when a file is catalogued, the result is that the system assumes

A. TRK

B. FASTRAND

C. temporary file

D. it is a public file

Which ECL file manipulation command removes deleted files and elements from mass storage?

A. @CHG

B. @COPY

C. @PACK

D. @DELETE

What does the ECL file manipulation command @HDG,P indicate?

A. do not print data

B. do not print page count

C. terminate printing of heading

D. print a heading beginning at page 1

Which ECL file manipulation command allows a normal termination of data for input into a file?

A. @CAT

B. @EOF

C. @END

D. @CHG

Which ECL control command makes provisions for the deassignment of files from a run and releases its input/output facilities?

A. @DELETE

B. @PACK

C. @FREE

D. @EOF

When using the @RUN command, what is the default priority?

A. B

B. M

C. S

D. T

When the deadline specified in the @RUN statement is exceeded the run

A. may abort and the data may be lost

B. may abort but the data will be saved

C. will process but the data will be lost

D. will be moved up in the schedule to process as scheduled

Which ECL control command allows one part of the print file to print while the remainder of the run is still processing?

A. @PRT

B. @SYM

C. @CONT

D. @BRKPT

Which OPR is the subsystem manager for the IMDS SIRS?

A. engine management

B. maintenance operations center

C. maintenance management analysis

D. plans, scheduling, and documentation

Which subsystem automates the records keeping function for all end items of equipment as well as items installed on an item of equipment?

A. maintenance events

B. location management

C. inspection and time change

D. status and inventory reporting

Volume 2 of the AFCSM 21-556 contains

A. general IMDS instruction

B. intermediate IMDS instructions

C. specific IMDS instructions

D. detailed IMDS instructions

Which attachment in the AFCSM 21-556, volume 2, provides a screen file list by TRIC?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

The benefits of collecting IMDS JDD data is returned through

A. better logistics management decisions

B. lower mean time between failure

C. better buck stop programs

D. higher break rates

The IMDS on-line suspense validation inquiry is used to verify all of the following except

A. flying hours

B. time change items

C. serial controlled items

D. engine removal/ installation data

Which IMDS online inquiry provides the capability to review compleeted maintenance actions for a specific PWC, equip-ID, or JCN that have been completed butnot documented?

A. QMH

B. QMS

C. QDR

D. QMD

Which IMDS online program allows you to request all maintenance data performed against a particular event ID?

A. QMD

B. QDR

C. QMS

D. QMH

Which IMDS background report provides the capability to review off-equipment maintenance actions that were found to have "no defect"?

A. QBK

B. AMM

C. QBR

D. QMD

What IMDS background report program provides a listing of completed maintenance actions (events) for equipment and end items?

A. QMH

B. QMI

C. QBR

D. QMD

The type of TRIC image used by the GENRUN program is

A. on-line

B. pseudo

C. background

D. straight-line

What ECL command is used to process a GENRUN created runstream?

A. @RUN

B. @@XQT

C. @START

D. @EXECUTE

How is the best way to maintain runstreams?

A. store them in several files

B. give each one a unique file and element name

C. free up disk space when they are no longer needed

D. place them in a file with a read/write key against them

What ECL commands are used to maintain an efficient runstream file?

A. @PRT, @SAVE, @DELETE

B. @PRT, @PACK, @DELETE

C. @PRT, @PRT,L, @PACK

D. @DELETE, @FREE, @PACK

How many IPF command categories are there?

A.1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

The IPF command REPLACE

A. creates a new version of an element

B. removes an element flagged for deletion

C. places a copy of an element into the workspace

D. copies a whole file or part of a file to another file

The IPF command MODE SCREEN does what?

A. provides a line view

B. provides a full page view

C. turns line number display off

D. moves the current line down one page at a time

Who generates a work order for discrepancies discovered in flight?

A. debriefer

B. specialist

C. scheduler

D. controlling agency

Concerning JDD, most suspense files regarding serially controlled items are cleared by whom?

A. maintenance analysis

B. plans and scheduling

C. controlling agency

D. workcenter specialists

What type of maintenance events can be monitored by the controlling agency under job following?

A. overdue

B. scheduled

C. on-equipment

D.  off-equipment

Who has the responsibility for final disposition of a discrepancy identified as job following?

A. analysis

B. debriefing

C.  controlling agency

D. plans and scheduling

Where is the G081 central mainframe located?

A. Hill AFB, Utah

B. Gunter AFB, Alabama

C. Scott AFB, Illinois

D. Kelly AFB, Texas

The Global Reach Logistics/ A4 Information page is available to all users via the AF Portal, or the

A. REMIS

B. SBSS

C. Headquarters AMC logistics website

D. Headquarters ACC logistics website

G081 GUI programs ca be grouped together according to common function or similar purpose following the format outlined in

A. AFCSM 21-556, vol 2

B. G081 user's manule

C. DISA directives

D. AFI 21-101

The MACC is responsible for coordinating ramp movement, aircraft movement, aircraft launch, and

A. TCTO scheduling

B. maintenance capability forecasting

C. maintenance training

D. aircraft recovery

A G081 user-ID is also assigned to a specific

A. local area network

B. logical terminal

C. aircraft ID

D. rank

The M364SR, Component Serial Number Master Database, and its subordinate databases, contains what type of data?

A. aircraft status data

B. aircraft flying hours

C. engine management data

D. supply cannibalization data

The M363MSR, Possession Purpose Code Table contains records that are populated by which MIS?

A. REMIS

B. IMDS

C. SBSS

D. AF portal

What G081 record feature allows record updates made to one record to be filtered through to other related records, requiring only one input by the user?

A. the records exist on the same level

B. the physical links between records

C. the relational database structure

D. one-record-at-a-time processing

What G081 program gives the G081 manager a logical view of the database?

A.  67053, list database schemas

B. 67031, database search

C. 8016, general file inquiry

D. 9058, batch job execution and update

G081 program 9056 allows G081 managers to

A. read the MDC database

B. delete the MDC database

C. update the MDC database

D. reprogram the MDC database

What are the two database environments in G081?

A. production and nonproduction

B. production and test

C. active and inactive

D. active and test

Slecting IMSA at the database environment screen indicates the user intends to go into which environment?

A. production

B. training

C. active

D. test

Which of the types of programs in G081 are designated as 67XXX series and produce output products that provide specific inquiry-based data?

A. COBOL

B. FOCUS

C. output

D. input

Which of the types of programs in G081 are designated as 8XXX series, where information is entered through formatted screens and processed on line?

A. COBOL batch

B. FOCUS

C. output

D.  input

Which G081 program is used to create and schedule maintenance actions, change existing discrepancy data, and adds or updates discrepancies in the AFTO form 781A or 781K files?

A. 9099 MDS input

B. 9050 input discrepancy

C. 9025B aircraft Utilization data

D. 9032A A/C maintenance pre-plan discrepancies

Which G081 program is used to provide an automated AFTO form 349 format, document maintenance codes, document corrective actions, and close maintenance actions?

A. 9099 MDC input

B. 9050 input discrepancy

C. 9025B aircraft utilization data

D. 9032A a/c maintenance pre-plan discrepancies

What G081 program provides a brief description of the program, its functions and abilities, a description of all data fields, and the requirements to process the program?

A.9051 video program instructions

B. 9038 system change request

C. 8033 inter-terminal message

D. 8201 general file inquiry

If G081 deadline records meet the hourly scan criteria to run when does the batch system schedule them?

A. immediately

B. on the quarter hour

C. on the half hour

D. on the whole hour

What screen allows you to efficiently schedule and manage your print workload?

A. 9029a

B. 9038

C. 9057c

D. 9099

The G081 program 9038 is used to report what kind of problems for the system dificiency/change report, form OC-ALC 529?

A. aircraft discrepancies

B. G081 software problems

C. technical order deficiencies

D. aircraft equipment problems