Shared Flashcard Set

Details

2R051 CDC VOLUME 1
N/A
100
Other
Not Applicable
01/03/2012

Additional Other Flashcards

 


 

Cards

Term

Airforce policy on air and space equipment maintenance expects maintenance to be performed at the

A. lowest level

B. highest level

C. depot facility

D. Contractor facility

Definition
A. lowest level
Term

What rate is used as a metric to measure readiness in air and space maintenance?

A. Abort

B. Break

C. Cannibalization

D. Mission capability

Definition
D. Mission capability
Term

What provides the most effective and efficient use of people, facilities, and equipment?

A. Maintenance organization

B. Maintenance planning

C. increased manning

D. increased funding

Definition
B.  Maintenance planning
Term

The primary focus of the maintenance effort should be on

 

A. preventive maintenance

B. corrective maintenance

C. backshop maintenance

D. depot maintenance

Definition
A. Preventive maintenance
Term

When a maintenance unit encourages the development of automated information systems and procedures that enhance productivity, it is accomplished by

 

A. eliminating nonproductive administative tasks and improving   efficiency

B. continuously evaluating resources to meet mission changes and contingencies

C. command channel communications, documentation, and reporting communications with support commands and agencies.

D. effectively scheduling aircraft, support equipment, facilities, and personnel to meet maintenance requirements and flying schedules

Definition
A. eliminating nonproductive administrative tasks and improving efficiency.
Term

Unit-level maintenance organizations are standardized throughout each major command based on size, similar wartime mission, and

 

A. training

B. budgetary constraints

C. geographical location

D. assigned weapon systems

Definition
D. assigned weapon systems
Term

Which squadron is responsible to the maintenance group (MXG) commander for all staff-related functions required for the efficient operation of aircraft maintenance functions within the MXG?

 

A. Maintenance

B. aircraft maintenance

C. maintenance operations

D. helicopter maintenance

Definition
C. maintenance operations
Term

What is the title for the senior maintenance manager responsible for C-E maintenance?

A. officer-in-charge

B. chief of maintenance

C. C-E maintenance officer

D. deputy commander for c-e maintenance

Definition
B. chief of maintenance
Term

Any personnel, other than 2EXXX Air Force specialty code, performing maintenance on C-E equipment, whether assigned to a communications unit or not, is referred to as

 

A. non-traditional technicians

B. outsourced technicians

C. irregular technicians

D. contract technicians

Definition
A. non-traditional technicians
Term

What kind of C-E maintenance unit provides specialized maintenance and training capability above those normally found in operations and maintenance units?

 

A. special maintenance teams

B. consolidated repair activity

C. deployable elements of fixed units

D. functionally supported maintenance activity

Definition
A. special maintenance teams
Term

For what program does the maintenance group commander hold squadron CCs and supervisors at all levels responsible?

 

A. nuclear surety

B. weight and balance

C. vehicle management

D. dedicated crew chief

Definition
C. vehicle management
Term

Who is responsible for developing an Aircraft Impoundment Program?

 

A. maintenance flight commander

B. maintenance squadron commander

C. maintenance group commander

D. base commander

Definition
C. maintenance group commander
Term

Which commander does the maintenance group CC coordinate with concerning the High-Speed Taxi Check program?

 

A. wing

B. operations group

C. operations squadron

D. transportation squadron

Definition
B. operations group
Term

Who is responsible for directing CANN on assigned aircraft and coordinating the action with the maintenance operations center (MOC) and supply?

 

A. technician

B. flight chief

C. flightline expediter

D. production supervisor

Definition
D. production supervisor
Term

Who selects qualified personnel to perform production inspections and forwards names to maintenance supervision ofr approval?

 

A. squadron commander

B. production supervisor

C. section chief

D. flight chief

Definition
D. flight chief
Term

On what does the section chief perform spot checks for autorized levels?

 

A. bench stock

B. tool storage

C. repairable parts

D. CANN 

Definition
A. bench stock
Term

Who manages the Bad Actor Program?

 

A. flight chief

B. section chief

C. flightline expediter

D. production supervisor

Definition
B. section chief
Term

Who updates status of CANN actions on assigned aircraft?

 

A. flight chief

B. section chief

C. flightline expediter

D. production supervisor

Definition
C. flightline expediter
Term

Who reviews aircraft forms before exceptional release?

 

A. flight chief

B. flightline expediter

C. dedicated crew chief

D. production supervisor

Definition
B. flightline expediter
Term

Who is responsible for on-aircraft-21 equipment inventories when this responsibility is not assigned to another function?

 

A. flight chief

B. flightline expediter

C. dedicated crew chief

D. production supervisor

Definition
C. dedicated crew chief
Term

Who is responsible for resolving IMDS problems that are beyond the capability of the functional user?

 

A. systems monitor

B. database manager

C. database designer

D. database administrator

Definition
B. database manager
Term

Which of the following provides info and communication services to military and government organizations in an assigned region of the US?

 

A. DBM

B. BNCC

C. DECC

D. REMIS management center

Definition
C. DECC
Term

The two main agencies within the 754th ELSG are the

 

A. functional analysis and database administrator

B. database administrator and FAS

C. systems program office and FAS

D. interactive customer service facility and database administrator

Definition
C. systems program office and FAS
Term

Who is the initial POC at 754th ELSG when an IMDS database problem exists that cannot be fixed at base level?

 

A. DBM

B. SPO

C. DBA

D. FAS

Definition
D. FAS
Term

The LAN component that provides services to the users on the network is known as the

 

A. server

B. protocols

C. workstation

D. server network

Definition
A. server
Term

Operating rules used in LAN applications are known as

 

A. protocols

B. networking

C. topologies

D. data language

Definition
A. protocols
Term

Which software is required to access IMDS graphical user interface (IMDS GUI)?

 

A. photo eiditor

B. image reader

C. media player

D. internet browser

Definition
D. internet browser
Term

Which on of the following must the DBM obtain from the BNCC to gain terminal access to IMDS?

A. IMDS password

B. security clearance

C. server address setting

D. remote ID

Definition
D. remote ID
Term

The TIP provides

 

A. access to multiple mainframes

B. users with a fast-file control system

C. for background scheduling of transactions

D.  users with the capability to access application programs

Definition
B. users with a fast-file control system
Term

DEMAND processing is a

 

A. mode that directs the activity of the operating system

B. mode in which several runs are grouped before processing

C. method for maintaining historical data for load, change, inquiry, and deletion.

D. manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific AIS

Definition
D. manner of processing in which a user is not restricted to a specific AIS
Term

Which best describes on-line processing?

 

A. programs are printed at DECC

B. equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe

C. programs are processed by the console operator

D. equipment must remain on at all times.

Definition
B. equipment is under the direct control of the mainframe
Term

Online processing may be called

 

A. batch processing

B. real-time processing

C. pseudo remote processing

D. remote job entry terminal processing

Definition
B. real-time processing
Term

What is considered the easiest method of creating a data file for pseudo processing?

 

A. running the NFS0A0 program

B. creating the data file in demand mode

C. uploading required data before using a pseudo file

D. manually inputting data into a PC file then upload to pseudo file

Definition
A. running the NFS0A0 program
Term

In what mode do you run pseudo remote processor for batch (PSURPB)?

 

A. none

B. DEMAND

C. Windows

D. TIP

Definition
B. DEMAND
Term

What indicator tells you that a PSURPB program has completed processing?

 

A. a line on the monitor screen says, "PSURPB COMPLETE"

B. SOE character appears

C. the monitor gives a beep to notify you

D. you receive and E-mail notification

Definition
B. SOE character appears
Term

Which application program file holds the absolute elements for batch processing in TIP?

 

A. FS$$0000*00

B. 0FS0*DBrun$

C. 0FS0*DBALIB$

D. 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP 

Definition
D. 0FS00000*PABSAG054-AP 
Term

Which application program file contains the element used to troubleshoot the database?

 

A. FS*0000*00

B. 0FS0*DBALIB$

C. 0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL

D. 0FS00000*PABTAG054-AP

Definition
C. 0FS00000*PECLAG054-EL
Term

Which support program file controls all online programs for each AIS?

 

A. TIP FILE 611

B. IRU processor

C. VALTAB

D. SUPUR processor

Definition
C. VALTAB
Term

Which support program file ensures the FSA is running and up to date for the IMDS database?

 

A. TIP FILE 611

B. 0FS0*DBRUN$

C. VALTAB

D. SUPUR processor

Definition
A. TIP FILE 611
Term

The basic keyin console mode allows

 

A. a user to use unsolicited keyins

B. a user to use all basic console keyins

C. a user to request the status on a user's run

D. DBM to operate in full screen mode

Definition
C. a user to request the status on a user's run
Term

What console mode command displays a list of active runs?

 

A. T,B

B. TD

C. @@RUN,A

D. @@TM

Definition
B. TD
Term

What ECL command will provide you with the mainframe FTP address?

 

A. @CAT

B. @RUN

C. @DATA

D. @WHOAMI

Definition
D. @WHOAMI
Term

What do you call the filename you created on your PC when you do a file transfer?

 

A. PC file

B. user file

C. local file

D. remote file

Definition
C. local file
Term

A collection of instructions that, when executed, results in the performance of one or more logical functions is called

 

A. an element

B. a program

C. a granule

D. a file

Definition
B. a program
Term

What ECL command syntax symbol is used to indicate to the system an option is to follow?

 

A. *

B. ,

C. ;

D. @

Definition
B. ,
Term

A /WRITE-KEY, when used, is presented

 

A. after the filename and before the @

B. before the filename and after the period

C. after the filename and before the period

D. before the element name and after the comma

Definition
C. after the filename and before the period
Term

What should be used when constructing an ECL file to differentiate between two elements with identical names?

 

A. cycle

B. /VERSION

C. qualifier

D. @

Definition
B. /VERSION
Term

What is the maximum size a message can be when created with the @MSG ECL command?

 

A. 25 characters

B. 45 characters

C. 48 characters

D. 50 characters

Definition
C. 48 characters
Term

What is the purpose of the ECL information command @FAC?

 

A. places the user in the CTS environment

B. analyzes a 12-digit octal number when a facility reject occurs

C. lists basic info about a specified file

D. suppresses the display to the console

Definition
B. analyzes a 12-digit octal number when a facility reject occurs
Term

If the ECL file manipulation camand GRANULE requirement is left blank when a file is catalogued, the result is that the system assumes

 

A. TRK

B. FASTRAND

C. temporary file

D. it is a public file

Definition
A. TRK
Term

Which ECL file manipulation command removes deleted files and elements from mass storage?

 

A. @CHG

B. @COPY

C. @PACK

D. @DELETE

Definition
C. @PACK
Term

What does the ECL file manipulation command @HDG,P indicate?

 

A. do not print data

B. do not print page count

C. terminate printing of heading

D. print a heading beginning at page 1

Definition
D. print a heading beginning at page 1
Term

Which ECL file manipulation command allows a normal termination of data for input into a file?

 

A. @CAT

B. @EOF

C. @END

D. @CHG

Definition
B. @EOF
Term

Which ECL control command makes provisions for the deassignment of files from a run and releases its input/output facilities?

 

A. @DELETE

B. @PACK

C. @FREE

D. @EOF

Definition
C. @FREE
Term

When using the @RUN command, what is the default priority?

 

A. B

B. M

C. S

D. T

Definition
B. M
Term

When the deadline specified in the @RUN statement is exceeded the run

 

A. may abort and the data may be lost

B. may abort but the data will be saved

C. will process but the data will be lost

D. will be moved up in the schedule to process as scheduled

Definition
A. may abort and the data may be lost
Term

Which ECL control command allows one part of the print file to print while the remainder of the run is still processing?

 

A. @PRT

B. @SYM

C. @CONT

D. @BRKPT

Definition
D. @BRKPT
Term

Which OPR is the subsystem manager for the IMDS SIRS?

 

A. engine management

B. maintenance operations center

C. maintenance management analysis

D. plans, scheduling, and documentation

Definition
B. maintenance operations center
Term

Which subsystem automates the records keeping function for all end items of equipment as well as items installed on an item of equipment?

 

A. maintenance events

B. location management

C. inspection and time change

D. status and inventory reporting

Definition
C. inspection and time change
Term

Volume 2 of the AFCSM 21-556 contains

 

A. general IMDS instruction

B. intermediate IMDS instructions

C. specific IMDS instructions

D. detailed IMDS instructions

Definition
A. general IMDS instruction
Term

Which attachment in the AFCSM 21-556, volume 2, provides a screen file list by TRIC?

 

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Definition
C. 3
Term

The benefits of collecting IMDS JDD data is returned through

 

A. better logistics management decisions

B. lower mean time between failure

C. better buck stop programs

D. higher break rates

Definition
A. better logistics management decisions
Term

The IMDS on-line suspense validation inquiry is used to verify all of the following except

 

A. flying hours

B. time change items

C. serial controlled items

D. engine removal/ installation data

Definition
A. flying hours
Term

Which IMDS online inquiry provides the capability to review compleeted maintenance actions for a specific PWC, equip-ID, or JCN that have been completed butnot documented?

 

A. QMH

B. QMS

C. QDR

D. QMD

Definition
C. QDR
Term

Which IMDS online program allows you to request all maintenance data performed against a particular event ID?

 

A. QMD

B. QDR

C. QMS

D. QMH

Definition
C. QMS
Term

Which IMDS background report provides the capability to review off-equipment maintenance actions that were found to have "no defect"?

 

A. QBK

B. AMM

C. QBR

D. QMD

Definition
A. QBK
Term

What IMDS background report program provides a listing of completed maintenance actions (events) for equipment and end items?

 

A. QMH

B. QMI

C. QBR

D. QMD

Definition
A. QMH
Term

The type of TRIC image used by the GENRUN program is

 

A. on-line

B. pseudo

C. background

D. straight-line

Definition
C. background
Term

What ECL command is used to process a GENRUN created runstream?

 

A. @RUN

B. @@XQT

C. @START

D. @EXECUTE

Definition
C. @START
Term

How is the best way to maintain runstreams?

 

A. store them in several files

B. give each one a unique file and element name

C. free up disk space when they are no longer needed

D. place them in a file with a read/write key against them

Definition
A. store them in several files
Term

What ECL commands are used to maintain an efficient runstream file?

 

A. @PRT, @SAVE, @DELETE

B. @PRT, @PACK, @DELETE

C. @PRT, @PRT,L, @PACK

D. @DELETE, @FREE, @PACK

Definition
B. @PRT, @PACK, @DELETE
Term

How many IPF command categories are there?

 

A.1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Definition
B. 2
Term

The IPF command REPLACE

 

A. creates a new version of an element

B. removes an element flagged for deletion

C. places a copy of an element into the workspace

D. copies a whole file or part of a file to another file

Definition
A. creates a new version of an element
Term

The IPF command MODE SCREEN does what?

 

A. provides a line view

B. provides a full page view

C. turns line number display off

D. moves the current line down one page at a time

Definition
B. provides a full page view
Term

Who generates a work order for discrepancies discovered in flight?

 

A. debriefer

B. specialist

C. scheduler

D. controlling agency

Definition
A. debriefer
Term

Concerning JDD, most suspense files regarding serially controlled items are cleared by whom?

 

A. maintenance analysis

B. plans and scheduling

C. controlling agency

D. workcenter specialists

Definition
B. plans and scheduling
Term

What type of maintenance events can be monitored by the controlling agency under job following?

 

A. overdue

B. scheduled

C. on-equipment

D.  off-equipment

Definition
C. on-equipment
Term

Who has the responsibility for final disposition of a discrepancy identified as job following?

 

A. analysis

B. debriefing

C.  controlling agency

D. plans and scheduling

Definition
C.  controlling agency
Term

Where is the G081 central mainframe located?

 

A. Hill AFB, Utah

B. Gunter AFB, Alabama

C. Scott AFB, Illinois

D. Kelly AFB, Texas

Definition
A. Hill AFB, Utah
Term

The Global Reach Logistics/ A4 Information page is available to all users via the AF Portal, or the

 

A. REMIS

B. SBSS

C. Headquarters AMC logistics website

D. Headquarters ACC logistics website

Definition
C. Headquarters AMC logistics website
Term

G081 GUI programs ca be grouped together according to common function or similar purpose following the format outlined in

 

A. AFCSM 21-556, vol 2

B. G081 user's manule

C. DISA directives

D. AFI 21-101

Definition
B. G081 user's manule
Term

The MACC is responsible for coordinating ramp movement, aircraft movement, aircraft launch, and

 

A. TCTO scheduling

B. maintenance capability forecasting

C. maintenance training

D. aircraft recovery

Definition
D. aircraft recovery
Term

A G081 user-ID is also assigned to a specific

 

A. local area network

B. logical terminal

C. aircraft ID

D. rank

Definition
B. logical terminal
Term

The M364SR, Component Serial Number Master Database, and its subordinate databases, contains what type of data?

 

A. aircraft status data

B. aircraft flying hours

C. engine management data

D. supply cannibalization data

Definition
C. engine management data
Term

The M363MSR, Possession Purpose Code Table contains records that are populated by which MIS?

 

A. REMIS

B. IMDS

C. SBSS

D. AF portal

Definition
A. REMIS
Term

What G081 record feature allows record updates made to one record to be filtered through to other related records, requiring only one input by the user?

 

A. the records exist on the same level

B. the physical links between records

C. the relational database structure

D. one-record-at-a-time processing

Definition
B. the physical links between records
Term

What G081 program gives the G081 manager a logical view of the database?

 

A.  67053, list database schemas

B. 67031, database search

C. 8016, general file inquiry

D. 9058, batch job execution and update

Definition
A.  67053, list database schemas
Term

G081 program 9056 allows G081 managers to

 

A. read the MDC database

B. delete the MDC database

C. update the MDC database

D. reprogram the MDC database

Definition
A. read the MDC database
Term

What are the two database environments in G081?

 

A. production and nonproduction

B. production and test

C. active and inactive

D. active and test

Definition
B. production and test
Term

Slecting IMSA at the database environment screen indicates the user intends to go into which environment?

 

A. production

B. training

C. active

D. test

Definition
A. production
Term

Which of the types of programs in G081 are designated as 67XXX series and produce output products that provide specific inquiry-based data?

 

A. COBOL

B. FOCUS

C. output

D. input

Definition
A. COBOL
Term

Which of the types of programs in G081 are designated as 8XXX series, where information is entered through formatted screens and processed on line?

 

A. COBOL batch

B. FOCUS

C. output

D.  input

Definition
C. output
Term

Which G081 program is used to create and schedule maintenance actions, change existing discrepancy data, and adds or updates discrepancies in the AFTO form 781A or 781K files?

 

A. 9099 MDS input

B. 9050 input discrepancy

C. 9025B aircraft Utilization data

D. 9032A A/C maintenance pre-plan discrepancies

Definition
B. 9050 input discrepancy
Term

Which G081 program is used to provide an automated AFTO form 349 format, document maintenance codes, document corrective actions, and close maintenance actions?

 

A. 9099 MDC input

B. 9050 input discrepancy

C. 9025B aircraft utilization data

D. 9032A a/c maintenance pre-plan discrepancies

Definition
A. 9099 MDC input
Term

What G081 program provides a brief description of the program, its functions and abilities, a description of all data fields, and the requirements to process the program?

 

A.9051 video program instructions

B. 9038 system change request

C. 8033 inter-terminal message

D. 8201 general file inquiry

Definition
A.9051 video program instructions
Term

If G081 deadline records meet the hourly scan criteria to run when does the batch system schedule them?

 

A. immediately

B. on the quarter hour

C. on the half hour

D. on the whole hour

Definition
D. on the whole hour
Term

What screen allows you to efficiently schedule and manage your print workload?

 

A. 9029a

B. 9038

C. 9057c

D. 9099

Definition
A. 9029a
Term

The G081 program 9038 is used to report what kind of problems for the system dificiency/change report, form OC-ALC 529?

 

A. aircraft discrepancies

B. G081 software problems

C. technical order deficiencies

D. aircraft equipment problems

Definition
B. G081 software problems
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