(001) In the operational risk management process, the repsonsiblity for identifying and controlling hazards rests with:

-trainers

-everyone

-supervisors

-commanders

(001) What estimated percent of accidents are caused by nature?

2 percent

4 percent

6 percent

8 percent

(001) Which safety-training phase is an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airman?

Initial

General

Supervisor's

Sustained Job Safety

(001) Responsibility for initiaing a lost tool report rests with the:

expediter or production supervisor

flight chief or flight commander

person that was issued the tool

CTK support section

(001) The lowest person authorized to clear a Red X when a lost tool cannot be located is:

the crew chief

the aircraft engineer

the wing commander

an individual assigned to maintenance supervision

(001) The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the:

red markings

black markings

green markings

orange markings

(001)  Minimum requirements for position of fire extinguishers is listed in:

TO 005-01

TO 00-25-172

AFOSHSTD 91 SERIES

AFOSHSTD 127 SERIES

(002) Wearing dog tags, wristwatches, or other jewelery is expressly forbidden:

during fuel servicing operations

during inspection of engine inlets

when you're servicing high-pressure air

when you're working on electrical equipment

(002) Fall protection is required when it becomes necessary to perform required tasks where a worker can fall:

5 feet or more

10 feet or more

20 feet or more

25 feet or more

(003)Radiation hazards are affected by:

 strength of emission, time of exposure and weather

strength of emission, time of day and the input power

input power, weather and number of personnel in the area

time of exposure, amount of training, and number of operating units

(003) The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to part the aircraft in an isolated location, then

spray with cold water

cool with forced air from a blower

cool with high-pressure compressed air

allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air

(003) Normally, the SAFE distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is

125 feet

150 feet

175 feet

200 feet

(003) How is a maintenance stand secured when placed near an operating propeller?

remove stand towbar

place sand bags on top of stand

wrap chains around each wheel individually

use chains to secure handrails to stand

(003) Which symptom is NOT a sign of noise fatigue?

dizziness

emotional irritability

 a feeling of emptiness

impairment of mental concentration

(004) Any fuel spill NOT over 50 square feet and NOT continuous is classified as a

Class I

Class II

Class III

Class IV

(004) Individuals who ARE NOT involved in a nitrogen servicing operation SHOULD be outside a

15 foot radius

20 foot radius

25 foot radius

50 foot radius

(005) To ensure equipment is ready and available at the time of need, the Air Force uses

preventive maintenance

corrective maintenance

protective maintenance

unscheduled maintenance

(005) Responsibility for establishing a climate that promotes maintenance discipline rests with

first sergeants

subordinate personnel

immediate supervisors

squadron commanders

(006) Prime contributors to dropped objects are

chaff/flare discharges

latches and fasteners

jettisoned fuel tanks

hung weapons

(007) The objectives of the maintenance data documentation system include:

calling, saving, and reviewing base-level data

calling, storing, and retrieving base-level data

collecting, saving, and reviewing base-level data

collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data

(007) The basic rules for the maintenance data documentation system are contained in TO

00-5-1

00-20-1

00-20-2

00-20-5

(008) The three phases of the oeprational events subsystem of the IMDS CDB are:

input, output and archive

on-line, off-line and update

data recording, tracking and retrieval

mission recording, mission accomplishment and analysis

(008) You can use the IMDS CDB Training Management Subsystem to monitor

upgrade training

optional training

specialty training

qualitative training

(009) After student graduation, how many days later is the technical school graduate assessment survey normally sent out to the organization?

45

60

90

120

(009) Unsatisfactory comments on the graduate assessment survey are answered by:

the instructor of the student using an AETC Form 156

a telephone call from teh instructor of the student

electronic email from the instructor of the student

a letter fromt he instructor of the student

(011) Who may standardize the arrangements of the forms binder?

Flight chief

Section chief

MAJCOMS

Wing commander

(011) When MUST the AFTO Form 781 be removed from the forms binder?

before each thruflight

before the first flight of the day

after each maintenance action with an assigned job control number

after the IMDS CDB event number is entered at maintenance debriefing

(011) Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on the AFTO Form......

781G

781J

781M

781P

(011) You would use the AFTO Form 781K to document (choose one)?

engine data

 daily flying time

replacement items

support general work

(012) The standards for the entries to be made in the AFTO 781 series forms are specified in the ______ series of techinical orders

00-20

00-25

00-35

00-110

Which is the proper way to manually record a date in the 781 series forms?

December 12, 2009

12 Dec 09

20091212

12/12/09

(012) What action is necessary to clear an erroneous red diagonal symbol?

Erase the incorrect symbol and replace with correct symbol

an authorized individual will sign the "INSPECTED BY" block and initial over the symbol

place the statement "symbol entered in error" in the discrepancy block and sign the "CORRECTED BY" block

place the statement "symbol entered in error" in the discrepancy block and signed the "INSPECTED BY" block

(012) During an aircraft inspection, you find a deterioraed insignia decal. What symbol would you use in the aircraft forms?

Red X

Red Dash

Red Diagonal

None, enter an INFO NOTE only.

(014) Inspection Workcards are known as

abbreviated TOs

technical manuals

methods and procedure TOs

scheduled inspection and maintenance requirements manual

(014) Which TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red X's (/X/X/X) around the border of the first page?

Record

Urgent Action

Routine Action

Immediate Action

(014) As a general rule, ITCTO are replaced by formal TOs within how long?

48 hours

72 hours

10 days

15 days

(015) The procedures for the entries on an AFTO Form 22 are outlined in .....

TO 00-5-1

TO 00-1-01

the 00-20 series TOs

the 00-25 series TOs

(015) What type of TO improvement is issued for TCTO deficiencies?

Emergency

Urgent

Routine

Record

Which type of directive publication is an extension of an instruction?

Directory

Pamphlet

Manual

Policy

(016) An example of something that should not be published in an OI would be....

selection procedures for NCO of the Quarter

CTK control procedures

cold weather procedures

installation traffic rules

(016) Publications are listed in AFIND2 in a ________ sequence

logical

numerical

alphabetical

alphanumeric

(017) A sequence chart used in acft maintenance best serves as a .....

ready reference for determining the progress of the inspection

an outline of the minimum requirements for controlling work assignments

a control of work assignments for determining the type of equipment needed

an outline of the minimum requirements for determining the type of personnel needed

(018) Which inspection is basically a flight preparedness check?

preflight

postflight

thruflight

end of runway

(018) If a basic postflight inspection is NOT required, the thru-flight inspection is normally performed when?

prior to an aircarft going on alert and again before a flight after completion of the alert period

after flights when a turn-around sortie or a continuation flight is scheduled

immediately prior to a basic post flight inspection

after the last flight of a specified flying period

(018) The basic postflight inspection is performed to

prepare the aircraft for another flight

determine the flight status of the aircraft

prepare the aircraft for the first flight of the day

determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight

(018) Which is the most extensive inspection?

periodic

thruflight

basic postflight

hourly postflight

(018) The home station check is acocmplished in conjunction with

minor and major inspections

phased and periodic inspections

preflight and thruflight inspections

hourly postflight and basic postflight inspections

(018) What aircraft inspection requires skills, equipment, or facilities NOT normally possessed by operating locations?

major maintenance

consolidated maintenance

organizational maintenance

programmed depot maintenance

(018) What type of inspection is used to ensure the completness of historical documents?

phase

special

calendar

acceptance

(201) The maintenance Stand with an adjustable height of 13-20 feet is the

B-1

B-2

B-4

B-5

(201) Of the following, the maintenance stand that is a scissor-type? 

B-1

 B-2

 B-4

C-1

(201) The type of jack normally used to change a tire on the aircraft is the

axle

tail

nose

fixed-height

(201) The low-and high pressure capabilities, as measured in pounds per square inch gage (psig), of the NSU-L75 nitrogen-servicing unit are:

0-300; 300-3500

0-300; 300-3600

0-350; 350-3500

0-350; 350-3600

(201) The high-pressure pump provides a hydraulic filler pressurization unit with a maximum pressure of

2,000 psi

2500 psi

3000 psi

3500 psi

(201) The model 4000 engine trailer can support a maximum load of

7,000 lbs

8,000 lbs

9,000 lbs

10,000 lbs

(202) The usable pressure range, as measured in pounds per square inch (psi), of the MC-1A air compressor is

0-200 psi

0-350 psi

0-3,200 psi

05-3,500 psi

(202) The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure, measured in pounds per square inch (psi) of ____.

200

300

3,500

3,600

(202) The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from

100 degrees F to 230 degrees F

115 degrees F to 250 degrees F

125 degrees F to 270 degrees F

150 degrees F to 280 degrees F

(202) The stationary, skid-mounted power unit that produces aircraft electrical power for use in shops and hangars is the _________.

A/M32A-95

MK-3A

MD-4

MB-2

(202) The unit capable of providing bother alternating current (AC) and direct current (DC) electrical power in additional pneumatic power for ground maintenance is _____________.

A/M32A-95

A/M32A-86

A/M32A-60

AF/M-32R-3

(202) The hydraulic systems on the MK_3A-1 hydraulic test stand are designated

primary and secondary

primary and alternate

no 1 and no 2

left and right

(202) The amount of fluid the MJ-2A reservoir holds is _____.

19 gallons

27 gallons

30 gallons

60 gallons

(202) A Class 1 MB-2 Tractor weighs _____.

2,700 lbs

40,000 lbs

53,000 lbs

500,000 lbs

(203) The structural members, whose CHIEF use is to give shape to the acft and provide a means for attaching the skin to the structure, are called ________.

longerons

bulkheads

stringers

frames

(203) The MOST COMMON type of material used for fuselage construction is _________.

steel

titanium

magnesium

aluminum alloy

(203) The wing components that provide strength and contour shape to the wing are the ________.

ribs

spars

stringers

stiffeners

(203) The main difference between inspection plates and panels is ______.

size

material

location

installation

(203) A cracked radome could cause _______

antenna oscillation

dielectric increase

microwave distortion

electron deteroriation

(203) The reference locations, which are in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft, are called

buttllines

waterlines

buttock stations

fuselage stations

(204) The category of -21 equipment used for life support and crew comfort is

I

II

III

IV

(204) The EFFECTIVE range of a FULLY charged handheld fire extinguisher is

5 feet

10 feet

15 feet

20 feet

(205) The FIRST practical laminated composite formed was

safety glass

fiberglass

plywood

adobe

(206) a barometer is designed to measure pressure in____________

pounds per square inch (psi)

inches of mercury

relative humidity

ounces of air

(206) Atmospheric pressure at sea level is how many psi?

14.7 psi

17.4 psi

29.92 psi

29.29 psi

(206) What force acts PARALLEL to the relative wind?

lift

drag

gravity

weight

(207) What axis extends lengthwise through the fuselage from the nose to the tail?

lateral

vertical

horizontal

longitudinal

(207) What axis extends crosswise from wing tip to wing tip?

lateral

vertical

horizontal

longitudinal

(207) Movement about the vertical axis is called what?

roll

pitch

crab

yaw

(207) Which flight control is located on the longitudinal control surface?

rudder

aileron

elevator

wing flaps

(207) Which flight control system allows the pilot to control the aircraft if hydraulic pressure is lost?

boost

manual

powered

differential pressure

(207) When making a RIGHT turn, the relative position of the ailerons is the right aileron _____ and the left aileron ______

right up, left aileron up

right down,left aileron down

right up, left aileron down

right down, left aileron up

(207) Which flight control surfaces are used to make an aircraft climb or dive?

flaps

spoilers

ailerons

elevators

(207) What type of flap is NORMALLY incorporated on bomber and cargo type aircraft?

split

plain

fowler

slotted

(207) Why do aircraft have trim systems?

to reduce the amount of lift

to prevent the aircraft from stalling

to correct minor deviations in flight attitude

improve augmented lateral control surface movement

(208) The law that states "the distortion of any elastic body is proportional to the distorting force is known as "_____'s Law".

Hook's Law

Boyle's Law

Pascal's Law

Charles' Law

(208) When any force causes a solid to change permanently, the solid is said to have __________.

passed the elastic limit

lost the ability to expand

failed to meet elastic limit

passed the compression limit

(208) The MOST outstanding characteristic of a liquid is its _____________.

rigidity

usability

ability to compress within its container

ability to conform to the shape of its container

(208) Pascal's Law applies to what?

a fluid in motion

confined fluids at rest

fluids flowing through a restriction

fluids subjected to high temperatures

(208) Among the first to study the compressibility of gases was whom?

Hook

Boyle

Pascal

Charles

(208) The person who found that all gases expand and contract in direct proportion to the change in temperature, provided the pressure remains constant, was ________.

Hook

Pascal

Charles

Bernoulli

(209) If 50 lbs per square inch (psi) of cylinder pressure acts on a 5-square-inch piston head, the resulting force will be ______.

150 lbs

200 lbs

250 lbs

300 lbs

(209) When an 8-square inch piston moves 5 inches within a cylinder, the volume of liquid displaced will be

4 cubic inches

40 cubic inches

400 cubic inches

4,000 cubic inches

(209) The principle, which states that as the velocity of a gas or liquid increases, pressure decreases, is

Hook's

Boyle's

Pascal's

Bernoulli's

(209) As fluid enters the narrow portion of a venturi, ___________.

it decelerates

it accelerates

nothing happens

pressure increases

(210) When referring to hydraulic hand pumps, double-action means:

fluid flow is created with each stroke of the pump handle

fluid flow is created with every other stroke of the pump handle

double volume is displaced with each stroke of the pump handle

double volume is dispalced with every other stroke of the pump handle

(210) Variable-volume pumps do not require a separate pressure-regulating device in the system because:

they deliver low pressure

they have an integral compensator

the case drain will relieve high system pressure

there is no angle between the drive shaft and cylinder back

(210) Cooler operation in a variable-volume hydraulic pump is provided by:

foot valves

oil radiator

creep plates

fluid radiator

(210) In the Stratopower variable-volume pump, the pistons are held in contact with the cam plate by the:

fixed pivot

nutating plate

stationary bearing

compensator piston

(211) An accumulator's piston is installed with the:

piston in either direction

hollow end toward the air side of the accumulator

hollend end toward the fluid side of the accumulator

drilled passage toward the air side of the accumulator

(211) The size of one micron is four _____ of an inch.

tenths

thousandths

millionths

billionths

(211) If a filter is rated at 10 microns NOMINAL, what happens?

may allow some particles 10 microns or larger to get through

will not allow any particles greater than 9 microns to pass through

will not allow any particles larger than 10 microns to pass through

will not allow any particles smaller than 10 microns to pass through

(211) Hydraulic manifolds are used in a hydraulic system to provide a location where the _________.

return lines can join together

pressure lines can join together

common fluid lines can come together

hyrdraulic test stand can be connected

(212) What is the pneudraulic system component that uses a single-acting actuating cyclinder?

rudder

cargo door

brake assembly

nosewheel steering

(212) What pneudraulic system component uses a double-acting balanced actuating cylinder?

speed brake

brake assembly

cargo door system

nosewheel steering

(212) Some aircraft manufactures use the term "power control cylinders" when referring to what?

power snubber

internal snubber

locking actuator

tandem actuators

(212) The pressure at which the relief valve ball is SLIGHTLY UNSEATED is called the ______________ pressure.

normal system pressure

cracking pressure

full flow pressure

reseating pressure

(212) The MAJOR advantage of the manual slide-type hydraulic selector valve is its __________.

damping ability

metering ability

capability to allow system pressure to build

capability to relieve excess system pressure

(212) The difference between a selector valve and a servo vavle is _____________________.

the selector valve has four ports

the selector valve is more complex

the servo valve will control fluid-flow

the servo valve is electrically operated

(212) The purpose of a hydraulic system check valve is to __________.

allow flow in only one direction

prevent loss of fluid if a line breaks

supply on demand pressure to components

relieve excess pressure due to thermal expansion

(212)What is another name for a flapper check valve?

ball check valve

gate check valve

cone check valve

restrictor check valve

(212) Allowing normal operating speed of a hydraulic actuator in one direction while LIMITING speed in the other direction is done by the ________________.

automatic check valve

restrictor check valve

bypass valve

relief valve

(213) The four major sections of a basic hydraulic system are:

return, auxilliary, gravity and supply

supply, pressure, demand and gravity

supply, pressure, return and auxilliary

return, auxiliary, demand and pressure

(213) The reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to a hand pump by ___________.

delivery priority

the suction effect of the pump

gravity and the suction effect of the pump

in response to pressure demand and the suction effort of the pump

(213) A relief valve is installed in a variable-volume hydraulic pump to ______________.

bypass a blocked valve

compensate for pump pressure failure

relieve pressure if the pump compensator fails

relieve pressure when the foot valve is blocked

(213) How are the actuating units connected in MOST hydraulic subsystems?

intersectionally

in sequence

in parallel

linearly

(214) What shock strut component controls the rate of fluid-flow through the oriface?

check valve

bypass valve

metering pin

flow transmitter

(214) What is the purpose of the torsion links on a main landing gear?

to reduce oscillation during extension

to reduce oscillation during retraction

allow the inner cylinder to rotate within the outer cylinder

prevent the inner cylinder from rotating within the outer cylinder

(214) How is the motion of of the landing gear control lever transmitted to the selector valve?

electrically

by push-pull rods

by a cable system

through hydraulic pressure

(214) How are Landing Gear Safety Switches Actuated?

by control cams

by shock struts

by torsion links

by control linkage

(214) What are the two most common types of shimmy dampers used in nose wheel steering?

vane and servo

vane and spline

piston and vane

piston and servo

(215) The purpose of aircraft brakes is to:

reduce takeoff roll

reduce wheel skidding

retard motion using rotation

retard motion using friction

(215) What is the purpose of deboosters?

to decreace fluid volume

reduce braking pressure

enlarge running clearance

increase braking pressure

(215) What are the two types of emergency brake systems?

electric and manual

hydraulic and electric

manual and pnuematic

hydraulic and pneumatic

(215) What is the purpose of the anti-skid system?

TO REDUCE FRICTION BETWEEN THE WHEEL AND THE TIRE

TO INCREASE FRICTION BETWEEN THE WHEEL AND TIRE

TO PREVENT WHEEL SKID BY APPLYING PRESSURE TO THE SKIDDING WHEEL

TO PREVENT WHEEL SKID BY RELEASING PRESSURE FROM THE SKIDDING WHEEL

(216) How are split wheels balanced?

during build up

as an assembly

individually by halves

by a self-balancing system

(216) An airtight seal is maintained between split wheel halves by use of what?

a rubber liner

an O-ring seal

a phenolic ring

machined-mated surfaces

(216) What type of bearings are used on aircraft wheels?

flat roller

straight ball

recessed cone

tapered roller

(216) What is the bearing cone of an aircraft wheel bearing also called?

outer race

inner race

bearing cup

roller mount

(216) What kinds of pitting affect bearings?

segmented and peel

corrosive and segmented

corrosive and mechanical

mechanical and segmented

(216) The two types of brinelling are:

true and false

passive and active

neutral and natural

negative and positive

(217) An aircraft's tire maximum recommended static load is called what?

ply rating

serial number

service rating

manufatured wear limit

(217) The term "ply rating" refers to what?

maximum allowable tire speed

number of reinforcement cords

number of cord piles in a tire

index of tire casing strength

(217) For tires 24 inches or greater outside diameter, the tire shall be removed when wear reaches the bottom of any tread groove for a continuous length of _________.

four inches

six inches

12 inches

16 inches

(218) Matter is any substance that has mass and.......

can be seen

occupies space

has constance volume

cannot be compressed

(218) Atoms are made up of....

molecules, protons, neutrons

protons, molecules, electrons

molecules, neutrons, electrons

protons, neutrons, electrons

(218) Electrons can be released from their outer orbit by all of the following forces except:

heat

cold

chemical action

changing magnetic field

(219) Thr greather the current flow through an electromagnet, the ...

less the strength

greater the strength

greater the retentivity

higher the reluctance of the core

(219) To determine the direction a current-carrying conductor will move in a magnetic field, you should use the ______ rule for ______.

left had rule for coils

right hand rule for coils

left hand rule for conductors

right hand rule for conductors

(220) Current that periodically reverses is called _______________.

potential

reversing

alternating

directional

(220) The term used to express a condition in which two moving objects are changing in or out of step is:

phase

shunt

current

sine wave

(220) The methods used to cool brushless alternating current (AC) generators are:

blast air and ram air

engine oil and blast air

blast air and generator oil

generator oil and engine oil

(220) The underspeed switch (USS) on the 60/80 kilovolt ampere (KVA) generator constant speed drive (CSD) actuates at:

325 HZ

345 HZ

365 HZ

395 HZ

(221) The internal component of a battery that is a grid or framework , which supports the active chemical materials, is the

plate

separator

electrolyte

chemcial solution

(221) A 24-volt nickel-cadmium battery has:

12 cells

19 cells

20 cells

24 cells

(221) The nickel-cadmium battery

-cells are not replaceable

-is not subject to thermal runaway

-service life is short and it is subject to thermal runaway

 -electrolyte will appear to be low when the cells are partially discharged.

The component designed to convert 115/220-volt alternating current (AC) power into 28-volts (or less) direct current (DC) to operate the aircraft DC system is the

integrated drive generator (IDG)

frequency and load controller

generator control unit (GCU)

transformer-rectifier (T-R)

transformer-rectifier (T-R)

(222) When measuring resistance on a multimeter, the letters OL indicate:

error

infinity

off load

ohms low

INFINITY

(401) It is important to raise the air temperature in a jet engine to

increase its energy

decrease its energy

decrease its volume

increase its efficiency

(401) In a jet engine, the velocity of the air is decreased by the

diffuser

afterburner

compressor

turbine blades

(401) An aircraft taxiing at a constant speed is an example of

Bernoulli's Law

Newton's First Law of Motion

Newton's Second Law of Motion

Newton's Third Law of Motion

Newton's First Law of Motion

(401)  Foot-pounds and inch-pounds are units of measure for

work

power

inertia

friction

(401) The resistance of an object to change its motion is a property of matter called

energy

inertia

friction

potential

(402) The ability to do work is the definition of

energy

intertia

friction

velocity

energy

(402) In a jet engine, fuel is metered for combustion by the

pressurizing and dump (P&D) valve

fuel nozzles

fuel control

fuel pump

fuel control

(402) The average percentage of a jet engine's energy required to maintain engine oepration is

50

60

70

80

(402) What affect does the divergent design of a jet engine diffuser have on pressure?

Increases pressure

Decreases pressure

Results in pressure fluctuations

Has minimum effect on pressure

(402) The required velocity for air and gases flowing through a jet engine is

low velocity at all times

less velocity exiting then entering

equal velocity entering and exiting

greater velocity exiting than entering

(402) The velocity of the stream of air that flows through a jet engine reaches its highest point at the

turbine stator (nozzle diaphragm)

turbine exhaust cone

combustion section

ejector nozzle

ejector nozzle

(403) A jet engine derives its name from the fact that

it is in effect a turbo-supercharger

the nozzles within the engine are called jets

it uses a turbine-type compressor to maintain power

it uses an exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor

it uses an exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor

(403) The three major sections of all jet engines are compressor, combustion and.....

turbo

turbine

exhaust

diffuser

(403) The condition that rapidly reduces the efficiency of a centrifrugal jet engine compressor would be

resultant velocity

tangential velocity

pressure pulsations

air mass leaving the impeller at great velocities

Pressure Pulsations

(403) The type of engine that is CHEAPER to manufacture is the

axial flow because of size

centrifrugal because of size

axial flow because of fewer parts

centrifrugal because of fewer parts

(404)  The percentage of combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between

60 and 70

65 and 75

75 and 95

95 and 100

(404) The term "combustion range" is defined as a jet engine's

steady-state zone

pressure-ratio zone

compressor stall zone

operating temperature zone

(404) The most chemically correct ratio for burning fuel in a combustion chamber is

10:1

10:4

15:1

15:4

15:4

(404) The inner and outer surfaces of an annular-type compustion chamber are formed by

interlocking stainless steel bands

the inner and outer diffuser case

a forged steel casing

solid sheet metal

(404) The most common type of fuel nozzle system is the

pressure-atomizing

fuel-blasting

fuel ejector

fuel tube

pressure-atomizing

(404) Swirl-type fuel nozzles are USUALLY used to provide what type of flame speed?

Low

High

Medium

Medium-High

(405) The three design types of turbines used in jet engines are:

shrouded, unshrouded and fir tree

shrouded, unshrouded and corrugated

impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse

impeller, impulse and reaction-impluse

(405) On some jet engines, the turbine bucket is secured in place by

screws

cables

lockwire

lock strips

(406) The purpose of the exhaust duct is to

swirl exhast gas-flow

equalize exhaust gas-flow

modulate exhaust gas-flow

straighten exhaust gas-flow

(406) When trimming the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) of some jet engines, the nozzle area is changed by

mice

flaps

seals

segments

(406) One common type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters is the

flap

segmented

segmented flap

segmented nozzle

(406) The augmenter component that creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity is the

spraybar

flameholder

screech liner

fuel manifold

(407) The Hamilton Standard 54H60-91 propeller is a

3-bladed, reversible pitch propeller, 13.5 ft in diameter

3-bladed, reversible pitch propeller, 15.5 ft in diameter

4-bladed, reversible pitch propeller,  13.5 ft in diameter

4-bladed, reversible pitch propeller, 15.5 ft in diameter

(407) A method of de-icing a propeller is to use

bleed air

de-icing solution

electrically heated elements

exhaust air from the H-1 heater

electrically heated elements

(408) The type of fuel control that uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers and solenoids, to help control the engine is

pneumatic

fuel injection

hydromechanical

electrohydromechanical

(408) Pressurization of the engine fuel system is controlled by the

N2 sensor

T2.5 Sensor

Fuel Nozzles

Pressurizing and Dump (P&D) Valve

(408) During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged?

a green flag pops out

fuel pressure from the fuel pump is low

a differential pressure indicator is actuated

there is no way to tell without disassembling the filter

a differential pressure indicator is actuated

(409) Classified as to structure, which of the following is NOT a type of an oil pump?

Gear

Gerotor

Rotogear

Sliding Vane

Rotogear

(409) Structurally, the most common type of oil pump in use is the

deaerator

scavenge

gerotor

gear

gear

(409)  The valve that permits jet engine oil flow in only one direction is the

Relief

Check

Bypass

Pressurizing

(409)  The oil cooler that operates on the same principle as an automotive radiator is the

air/oil

fuel/oil

water/oil

hydraulic/oil 

(409) The purpose of an oil-temperature control valve used with air/oil coolers is to

control oil poppet valve

direct oil around fuel filter

control oil exiting from cooler

direct oil around or through cooler

(409) To create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system, use

wadding

packing

a gasket

a filler

(410) The air turbine (impingement) starter used on jet engines

is usually mounted on the engine accessory drive

uses a starter-clutch assembly to disengage the starter from the engine

has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters

requires high-pressure, low-volume air flow to produce torque necessary for engine start

(410) The unit of a jet engine alternating current (AC) ignition system that develops 20,000 volts, delivered to the igniter plugs, is the

inverter

capacitor

generator

transformer

(410) A simple direct current (DC) ignition system consists of

vibrator, alternating current (AC) to DC converter and transformer

transformer, igniter plugs and AC-to-DC converter

vibrator, igniter plugs, and AC-to-DC converter

vibrator, igniter plugs and transformer

(410) An advantage of the high-energy capcitor type jet engine ignition system is it

produces fewer sparks

has fewer components in the system

is not dependent on the aircraft electrical system

makes starting possible when the igniter plugs are fouled

(411)  Aircraft engine indicating instruments must

be light in weight and easy to calibrate

operate on direct current (DC) and be small

be light in weight, small in size, and easy to read

operate on alternating current (AC) and be light in weight

(411) Exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicators indicate the engine EGT in

British thermal utnis (BTUs) per hour

PSI

Degrees Fahrenheit

Degrees Celcius

(411) The three benefits of the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) are improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and.....

recycling of used oil

production of wear metals

increased equipment availability

increased length of time between oil changes

(412) You should NOT use mouth-suction to take jet engine oil samples because

this could cause paralysis or death

this could cause saliva contamination of the sample

there is a chance of dropping the tube into the oil tank

this may result in a mixture of sludge from the tank bottom

(412) The most common contamination found in lubricant systems is.....

dirt and sand

grease and dirt

sand and plastic

plastic and grease

(413) A well-designed aircraft fuel system will ensure

positive and negative fuel-flow

negative fuel-flow under all conditions

positive fuel-flow under positive conditions

positive and reliable fuel-flow under all conditions

(413) The three types of shutoff valves used in the crossfeed fuel system are the

rotary plug, disc, and check

disc, check and sliding gate

sliding gate, rotary plug, and disc

check, sliding gate, and rotary plug

(413) The basic purpose of the fuel vent system is to....

move fuel from tank to tank

pressurize the fuel for transfer

remove residual fuel from manifolds

prevent the rupture or collapse of the fuel tanks

(413) The fuel subsystem designed to MINIMIZE fuel boiling is......

vent

scavenge

crossfeed

pressurization

(414)  The minimum distance an aircraft should be parked from a hangar prior to a defueling operation is.....

50 feet

75 feet

100 feet

150 feet

(414)  The air-refueling (A/R) receptacle is operated....

hydraulically, but controlled electrically

electrically, but controlled hydraulically

electically, but controlled pneudraulically

hydraulically, but controlled pneudraulically

(415) The output pressure and the flow ratings of a centrifugal-type fuel pump are GREATER than the system needs in order to.....

prevent fuel boiling evaporation at high altitudes

provide an ample supply of fuel in case of a single pump failure

provide fuel to the engines during negative g's or inverted flight conditions

prevent the reverse flow of fuel from a pump with a greater pressure output

provide an ample supply of fuel in case of a single pump failure

(415) The kind of centrifugal pump is used when a fuel supply is required during periods of negative gravity conditions is....

a rotary-vane

a top-mounted

a dual-impeller

an in-line ejector

(415) What characteristic distinguishes the ejector-type fuel pump from other types of fuel pumps?

is hydraullically driven

will operate without fuel

contains no moving parts

is activated by electrical motor

(416)  The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the

direction of free flow

direction of restricted flow

location of the drilled hole in valve

location of the manufacturer's data block

(416) One disadvantage of a sliding gate fuel system is that it....

is large and heavy

cannot control a large flow of fuel

cannot withstand extreme pressures

tends to restrict fuel flow when open

(416) The fuel system component used to prevent excessive pressure from building up in trapped lines is the .....

thermal-relief valve

pressure-relief valve

one-way check valve

spring-loaded relief valve

(416) Another name for the disc type valve in a fuel system is.....

butterfly

swivel vane

sliding gate

swinging disc

(416) A primary fuction of the low-level shutoff valve is to control the flow of fuel

at altitudes below 10,000 feet

while taxiing on the flight line

being added to an unpressurized tank

being transferred out of a pressurized tank

(416) The action used by the low-level shutoff valve to prevent the reverse flow of fuel through the valve is.....

spring

venturi

check valve

hydromechanical

(416) Malfunctions of a fuel system vent float valve can be caused by

overfilling the fuel tank

operating the valve in a "dry" tank

loose electrical connections to the valve

rough handling of the valve during installation

(417) In a direct current (DC), liquid-level fuel indicating system, the wiper contact is positioned on the resistance strip by....

signals from the amplifier

the movement of a float in the tanks

voltage changes in the indicator circuit

the amount of bleed air pressure applied to the tank

(418) The primary purpose of the air pressure regulator in a fuel system is to

indicate the manifold pressure

open the vent valves during a climb or a dive

actuate a micro switch and turn the air flow light on

control the amount of pressure entering the fuel tank

(418) Fuel system disconnect couplings are used....

only in one-way systems

only in low-pressure systems

to interrupt the flow of fuel or air and prevent the loss of fluid

to promote the free flow of fuel or air and prevent loss of fluid

(419) All of the following aircraft systems use engine bleed air (EBA) except

anti-icing

rain removal

air-conditioning

fire extinguishing

(419) Aircraft engine temperature and pressure as it applies to the bleed air system is determined by the....

ambient pressure and ambient temperature

engine throttle setting and ambient altitude

ambient pressure and engine throttle setting

engine throttle setting and ambient temperature

(419) Engine bleed air (EBA) check valves are installed to.....

prevent the loss of compressed bleed air

maintain a balance airflow from each engine

provide a primary source for compressed bleed air

reduce bleed air pressure when the pressure is too high

(420) When installing air-conditioning ducting, the tool used to ensure alignment and sealing is the....

screwdriver

center punch

rawhide mallet

ball peen hammer

(420) When a compressible flange duct end becomes distorted, the corrective action that should be taken is to.....

replace the duct flange ends

use a gasket with the duct ends

reposition the duct for better sealing

reshape the duct flange end to its original shape

(420) Fiberglass fabric duct installations are prevented from swelling when the aircraft climbs to high altitudes by.....

thermal compensators

expansion bellows

puckered flaps

vent holes

(420) A depression in the duct wall, wherein the surface of the material isn't cut or removed but the depression has caused sharp bends or creases in the material, is the definition of a.....

scratch

minor dent

major dent

gouge

(421) The air conditioning in a cargo aircraft uses a diverter valve to divert air to....

the cooling turbine

the water separator

the flight station gaspers

flight station and cargo departments

(421)  If the temperature of the bleed air from a cargo-type air conditioning system's primary heat exchanger exceeds 540 degrees F, the high limit section of the temperature anticipator will......

open the ram air valve

turn on a warning light

close the primary heat exchanger ejector valve

close the bleed air regulating and shutoff valve

(421) Bleed air system water separators remove 70 to 85 percent of the moisture that accumulates in the conditioned air.  This is a result of.....

rapid expansion

regulated air flow

interal compression

regulated air pressure

(422)  The action of the outflow valve in a fixed-isobaric, single-differential pressurization system is controlled by.....

a jet pump

flitering cabin air

the unrpessurized range

regulating control chamber pressure

(422) The purpose of the pneumatic relay in a cabin pressurization systemis to.....

control the venting of cabin pressure

control the reference chamber pressure

ensure both outflow valves operate at the same time

ensure the aneroid and diaphragm inlet ports remain open

(422)  The manual control valve in the variable isobaric pressurization system is used as an alternate when.....

safety valve fails

outlfow valve fails

pneumatic relay fails

cabin pressure controller fails

(019) Why are aluminum allow washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low-torque applications?

reduce shearing

prevent vibration

prevent corrosion

reduce shimming

(019) What bolt is used where heavy tension or lengthwise stress MUST be sustained?

Stud

Clevis

Eyebolt

Hexhead

(019) which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications?

stud

eyebolt

hexhead

internal wrenching

(019) At least how many threads MUST be showing through a self-locking nut for maximum locking effect?

One

Two

Three

Four

(019) To use .032 gauge safety wire properly, there should be how many turns per inch?

7-12

8-10

8-12

10-13

(019) If the manufacture's brochure is NOT available, prior to using a torque wrench, you should cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the....

lowest setting and at least four times

maximum setting and at least six times

lowest setting and at least six times

maximum setting and at least six times

(020) Aircraft cable size is determined by its

length

radius

diameter

circumfrence

(020) A 7 x 19 cable has

7 strands with 19 wires per strand

7 wires with 19 strands per wire

133 wires per strand

133 strands per wire

(020) NORMALLY, pressure seals are constructed of

soft rubber

a phenolic mix

nonmagnetic materials

thermosetting plastic materials

(020) To check the engagement of a push-pull rod end, you would

use a depth gauge to check end play

ensure no lateral movement exists

use an inside caliper to check the rod end bearing

insert a piece of safety wire into the hole in the end of the terminal

(021) Aircraft tubing can be constructed of

aluminum-alloy and stainless-steel

aluminum-alloy and galvanized steel

stainless-steel and chromium-alloy

galvanized-steel and chromium-alloy

(021) Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for pressures of what pounds psi and below?

200

300

500

1000

(022) What parts of a cannon plug complete the electrical circuit?

Metals shells

Connector halves

Dielectric contacts

Pin-and-socket contacts

(022) What can you use to tighten cannon plugs?

Fingers

Strap wrench

padded conduit pliers

all of the above

(023) Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is

painted

heat treated

chemically treated

exhausted or salvaged

(023) What is the most severe type of corrosion, because it is hard to detect without some type of nondestructive test?

Filiform

Exfoliation

Intergranular

Corrosion fatigue

(023) Which type of corrosion appears as corroded cracks in a metal?

Stress

Intergranular

Oxygen concentration cell

Metal ion concentration cell

(023) To reduce corrosion, what procedure do you follow when working on aerospace equipment?

do not mark on any metal structural component with a graphite pencil

do not degrade or scratch any surface unless it is an authorized procedure

do not use graphite as a lubricant any component located in a high- heat area

all of the above

(024) The OPTIMUM temperature used to cool sealants that were mixed in an automatic mixing machine is

70 degrees F

75 degrees F

80 degrees F

85 degrees F

(024) What ADVANTAGE is gained by using acclerators to speed up an adhesive curing process?

Application time is reduced

fewer chemicals are required

machine mixing

Air isn't required to affect a cure

(025) For the most part, the frequency of cleaning an aircraft exterior varies depending on the

structural design

mission of the aircraft

environmental conditions

corrosion treatments available

(025) What type of cleaners are NOT very effective on grease, but are EXCELLENT for lightly soiled areas, plastics, and instrument glass covers in the interior of an aircraft?

alkaline cleaners

solvent cleaners

detergent cleaners

solvent emulsion cleaners

(025) What solution is used to treat areas that have been affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery?

Boric acid

Aluminum hydroxide

sodium bicarbonate and water

potassium hydroxide and water

(025) Which statement is NOT a good lubrication tip?

heat lubricants to make them easier to apply

never apply lubricants to a corroded surface

force grease into fittings until new grease is evident

filter all oils procured in containers larger than 1-gallon size

(026) Under IDEAL conditions, an aircraft is operationally ready when

the aircraft forms are checked

it is released by production scheduling

all minor discrepancies are complete

the required inspection and servicng are complete

(026) Responsibility for accomplishing the -1 preflight check rests with

the aircrew

the ground crew

operations personnel

maintenance supervision

(026) Which condition is most likely to cause aircraft damage?

tornadoes

hurricanes

sudden local storms

predicted heavy storms

(026) What type of jack would you use to raise an aircraft strut prior to a tire change?

axle

tripod

fuselage

fixed-height

(027) The F-2 lifting bag is designed to lift

22,000 lbs to a max height of 6 feet

22,000 lbs to a max height of 8 feet

24,000 lbs to a max height of 6 feet

24,000 lbs to a max height of 8 feet

(027) during crash recovery, what method of aircraft hoisting is confined to emergencies who no other method is available?

cribbing

lifing bags

crane hoisting

aircraft jacking

(028) Bench stock levels are established to provide a

15-day usage

30-day usage

60-day usage

90-day usage

(028) The maintenance activities that have the option to develop and maintain quick reference lists are those with how many or more aircraft of the same mission, design and series?

3

6

9

12

(028) To issue an item of equipment for short specified periods, use the

AF Fm 2005

AF Fm 2413

AF Fm 1297

DD Form 1348-6

(028) Critical items are generally small numbers of items that cause the largest number of

mission delays

on-time take offs

NRTS conditions

NMCS conditions

(028) Internal control of repairable itmes within maintenance is accomploished through the use of the DIFM notice and the

DD Fm 1131

AFTO Form 341

AFTO Form 350

DD form 1348-6

(028) What copy of the DD Form 1348-1 is retained by the individual who received an item from supply

1

2

3

4

(028) What form is used to report accomplishment of TCTO?

DD Form 1348-6

AFTO Form 349

AF Fm 2413

AF Form 2005

(028) Red margins and letters are used to allow you to easily identify the DD Form

1574 and DD Form 1574-1

15751 and DD Form 1575-1

1576 and DD form 1576-1

1577 and DD Form 1577-1

(028) Green margins and letters are used to allow you to easily identify the DD form

1577-2 and 1577-3

1576 and 1576-1

1574 and 1574-1

1575 and 1575-1

(029) To report quality deficiencies attributed to errors in the workmanship, use a Category

I DR

II DR

III DR

IV DR

(029) Submission of a Category II deficiency report is required within how many calendar days?

10

11

12

13

(029) Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for the first

100 hours of operation or 6 months from date of receipt

100 hours of operation or 1 year from  date of receipt

200 hours of operation or 6 months from date of receipt

200 hours of operation or 1 year from date of receipt

(030) What type of responsibility is assumed by an individual who has acquired physical possession of government property?

personal

custodial

command

supervisory

(030) When pecuniary liability is not involved, an individual may be relieved of perperty responsibility

by report of survey

by turn-in or by transfer

only upon supervisors recommendation

only upon commanders' recommendation

(423) Frequently used in fire warning system, the fire detector that has a high-nickel steel rod located along the centerline of a stainless steel tube assembly is called...

an Iron Fireman switch

a photoconductive cell

a FENWAL switch