Term
1. What are the four different sources of electrical power available to the aircraft? |
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Definition
3 Integrated Drive Generators (IDG’s),
APU Gen,
Ext Pwr,
Air Driven Gen (ADG) |
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Term
2. How do the AC busses operate in parallel?
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Definition
| Automatically through the AC Tie Bus |
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Term
3. How does the APU generator provide power to the AC system?
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Definition
| Through its own independent supply network, it can not be connected to the AC Tie Bus |
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Term
4. The AC ground service bus allows ground servicing of the aircraft without energizing the whole electrical system by ___? |
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Definition
Using the APU Gen or Ext Pwr connected to the AC Ground Service Bus
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Term
5. What is the power source priority for the AC generator busses? |
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Definition
(1) Associated IDG,
(2) APU Generator
(3) AC Tie Bus (External Power or another IDG) |
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Term
6. What is the power source priority for the AC tie bus? |
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Definition
(1) External Power
(2) Any IDG |
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Term
7. What is the normal power source for the DC busses? |
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Definition
Normally, 4 TR’s provide DC power to the DC Busses (includes the battery bus).
The Battery and/or the ADG (through TR3) may be used as emergency DC power source. |
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Term
8. What is the normal power source for the DC bus 2 when isolated?
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Definition
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Term
9. What is the normal power source for the DC bus 3 when isolated? |
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Definition
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Term
10. What is the normal power source for the battery bus? |
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Definition
DC Ground Service Bus via TR 2B |
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Term
11. What provides power to the battery bus with the loss of normal AC power? |
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Definition
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Term
12. What components are tested when the EMER PWR selector is place to ARM during the preflight emergency power test? |
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Definition
Left Emergency AC and DC busses,
ADG circuits,
Battery Charger
Static Inverter |
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Term
13. Once the emergency power system is armed, how is it activated? |
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Definition
When either the Left Emergency AC or DC Busses are de-energized. |
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Term
14. When the emergency power system is activated and the ADG is deployed in Hydraulic Mode, approximately how many minutes of electrical power will be available? |
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Definition
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Term
15. What equipment is powered when operating on emergency battery power only (no IDG, ADG, or APU)? |
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Definition
DEU 1, DU 1 (PFD), DU 3 (EAD), IRU 1, CADC 1, MCDU 1, VOR 1, VHF 1, A ignition, Standby flight Insturments, Stab Trim via the Longitudinal Trim Handles only. |
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Term
16. When the emergency power system is activated what additional items are powered when the ADG is deployed in Hydraulic Mode?
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Definition
| Left Emergency AC Bus and Aux Hydraulic Pump 1 |
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Term
17. What should you do if emergency power is activated with normal AC power present?
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Definition
| The Emergency PWR selector switch must be cycled to “OFF” and then back to “ARM”. |
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Term
18. What is required for normal battery charging?
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Definition
Battery swtitch “ON” (Emergency power not in use)
Inverter-powered ground refueling is not taking place
APU or Ext PWR on
AC power is present at the battery charger input |
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Term
19. With loss of all generators, how can the battery be charged with the EMER Power system? |
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Definition
| By deploying the ADG and selecting “Electrical” on the overhead panel. |
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Term
20. What is the backup power source for the battery bus on basic emergency power? |
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Definition
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Term
21. What is the backup power source for the battery bus with the ADG operating in the ELEC mode?
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Definition
| Right Emergency AC Bus through TR3 |
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Term
22. If the APU is started with the APU START/STOP switch on the APU panel when will it provide electrical power? |
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Definition
| When the APU PWR Switch is selected “ON”. |
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Term
23. What is the function of the GEN BUS 1/2/3 Fault Reset switches on the overhead panel?
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Definition
| Used by maintenance personnel only, it resets the associated BTR or APR. |
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Term
24. How is the ADG retracted after use? |
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Definition
| On the ground by maintenance personnel. |
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Term
25. What is the circuit breaker policy regarding the Electrical system on the UPS MD-11 aircraft?
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Definition
| One reset of any tripped (non-fuel pump/Aux Hyd Pump) CB may be attempted at the Captains discretion after a 2 minute cooling period. |
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Term
26. What can happen if an IDG is disconnected with engine speed less than ground idle?
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Definition
| It will cause damage to the IDG input shaft and seal. |
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Term
27. What are the consequences of a BAT CHARGING alert after emergency power test? |
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Definition
| No Take Off until the Alert is no longer displayed. |
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Term
28. What is the normal source of pneumatics for each of the three air systems? |
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Definition
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Term
29. What alternate sources of air are available if the normal source is not available?
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Definition
| APU (Ground), External Air (Ground), any other operating engine. |
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Term
30. What is the source of hot air for engine cowl anti-ice?
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Definition
| Uses hot engine bleed air from its’ own engine. |
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Term
31. Which system controllers are directed by the Environmental System Controller (ESC)? |
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Definition
2 Pneumatic System Controllers (PSC)
3 Air Conditioning Controllers (ACC)
2 Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC)
1 Manifold Failure Controller (MFC) |
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Term
32. The manifold failure detection system (MFDS) can detect leaks in which of the following areas? |
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Definition
The 3 Pneumatic systems,
3 Air conditioning packs, the
Center Accessory Compartment (CAC),
Tail pylon area, and
Horizontal stab anti-ice system. |
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Term
33. How is the air temperature adjusted when the crew selects a new compartment temperature?. |
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Definition
| It will adjust pack outlet temperatures and add trim air as needed to obtain the desiered temperature |
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Term
34. Conditioned air is provided to which of the following compartments? |
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Definition
| The Cockpit, Courier area, and the Cargo compartment. |
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Term
35. How are the packs turned off when the crew is ready for engine start?
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Definition
| With the system in Auto, it does it automatically, when IGN A, B, or OVRD is selected (off for 2 minutes or an engine is started). |
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Term
36. How is the avionics equipment located in the forward part of the aircraft in and below the cockpit kept cool? |
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Definition
| One of two (or three for some aircraft) cooling fans supplies cooling air to the avionics racks. |
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Term
37. How is avionics cooling air normally routed for exhaust in-flight?
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Definition
| Normally it is routed into an exhaust manifold and dumped overboard through the venturi using cabin differential pressure across the venturi. |
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Term
38. How is avionics cooling air normally routed for exhaust on the ground? |
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Definition
| an exhaust fan operates to draw air through the manifold and discharge some of the hot avionics air overboard. The remaining hot avionics air is exhausted into the left utility tunnel and exits overboard through the outflow valve. |
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Term
39. What conditions cause the AVNCS FAN OVRD process to initiate and illumination of the AVNCSFAN OVRD light? |
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Definition
| The “AVNCS FAN OVRD” alert is displayed when the avionics exhaust fan and venturi valve are commanded to override. The avionics exhaust fan, normally off while in flight, is now operating. The fan turns on automatically when cooling flow goes below normal, or may be manually selected on. |
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Term
40. How is the Center Accessory Compartment ventilated?
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Definition
The cooling air blows into one side of the CAC equipment rack and exits out the top.
It is similar to the avionics compartment ventilation system. It uses 3 cooling fans, however, unlike the avionics compartment, there is no exhaust system. |
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Term
41. How does the tunnel ventilation operate?
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Definition
| Uses a fan to pull air from the cabin and distribute it to the area under the cabin floor. The fan operates on the ground only. |
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Term
42. Which of the cargo compartments are both heated and ventilated? |
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Definition
| The Forward Cargo Compartment and the Aft Cargo Compartment |
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Term
43. Which areas are pressurized on the aircraft?
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Definition
| Flight, Courier, Cargo, Center Accessory, and Avionics compartments. |
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Term
44. What function do the pressure relief valves provide? |
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Definition
| Pressure relief valves limit the cabin differential pressure to 9.1 PSI. |
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Term
45. In auto, when does the cabin pressure controller pre-pressurize the aircraft? |
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Definition
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Term
46. In auto, when does the cabin pressure control system begin scheduling the cabin altitude for cruise flight? |
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Definition
| When the aircraft altitude exceeds 5000’ above departure field elevation. |
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Term
47. In auto, after takeoff, when does the environmental system controller restore pneumatics and air conditioning?
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Definition
| When passing through 1000’ above airport elevation and thrust is reduced to “climb thrust”. (If “climb thrust” is not set by 4500’ AGL, then the ESC automatically configures for the climb). |
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Term
48. In auto, what is the normal position of the ISOL valves during flight? |
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Definition
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Term
49. What are the sources that may provide air to a pneumatic system air conditioning pack? |
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Definition
| Each respective engine, from another engine, from the APU, or from external pneumatics. |
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Term
50. How does the environmental systems controller prevent engine exhaust from entering the air supply when the APU is supplying pneumatics to manifold 2? |
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Definition
| Packs using pneumatics from manifold 2, with engines 1 or 3 running, are commanded off when the APU is running. |
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Term
51. What does an amber AUTOPILOT box mean on the FMA? |
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Definition
| Autopilot (AP) is disconnected due to an AP failure and is no longer available. |
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Term
52. What conditions must be met for the aircraft to enter into the flight director go-around mode?
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Definition
| Below 2500’ AGL with flaps down or slats extended. |
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Term
53. On approach, with the auto pilot engaged and DUAL or SINGLE LAND not illuminated, when will the autopilot disengage? |
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Definition
| Altitude below 100′ AGL when any mode other than autoland or GA |
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Term
54. The speed control will automatically change from IAS to the equivalent Mach if the desired Mach was not preselected passing what altitude? |
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Definition
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Term
55. With a valid ILS frequency, the AFS approach and land modes are armed by pushing the APPR/LAND switch on the FCP when the AP or FD is in any lateral or vertical control mode except which modes? |
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Definition
| Takeoff or Go-Around Modes. |
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Term
56. The localizer may be intercepted at angles up to xx degrees, but high IAS and/or intercept angles greater than xx-xx degrees may result in overshoot. |
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Definition
90 degrees,
30-40 degrees |
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Term
57. When available, what conditions will allow DUAL LAND to automatically engage? |
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Definition
| In APRCH Mode, tracking both the LOC & GS, and aircraft has been below 1500’ RA for 10 seconds. |
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Term
58. Automatic landings have been demonstrated using a reference approach speed of 1.3Vs+5kts under what conditions? |
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Definition
| Headwinds to 25 KTS, Tailwinds to 10 KTS, and crosswinds to 15 KTS. |
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Term
59. The failure of the electrical busses to split may cause what to occur during an automatic approach? |
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Definition
| Dual Land will not be available |
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Term
60. During an automatic approach, if a crosswind is present, a side slip runway alignment maneuver is initiated to remove any existing crab angle. At what altitude will the aircraft initiate this maneuver?
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Definition
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Term
61. Can a FD go-around be initiated on the runway after a landing? If yes, for how long? |
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Definition
| Yes, 20 seconds after nose gear compression |
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Term
62. FMS speed edit occurs if a speed is preselected and the FMS SPD switch is pushed within how long? |
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Definition
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Term
63. What is the earliest altitude at which AP NAV can be coupled?
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Definition
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Term
64. The altitude alert system is always on except under what conditions? |
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Definition
Except when the FD or AP is engaged in the Glide Slope mode. |
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Term
65. In ECON, the climb, cruise and descent phase speed/Mach targets are calculated to operating cost per mile based upon what? |
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Definition
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Term
66. During a SELCAL, what happens when a ground station calls the aircraft?
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Definition
The applicable “Call” light on the ACP flashes (or steady) and the Central Aural Warning Systems (CAWS) sounds a chime. |
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Term
67. What actions must be accomplished for a pilot to receive a SATCOM call after the incoming chime has occurred?
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Definition
Select “SAT” and then select “Answer” |
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Term
68. When does the SATCOM system log onto the satellite network?
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Definition
Automatically, once the IRU’s are aligned. |
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Term
69. How can the flight crew contact crewmembers in the supernumerary area using the flight interphone system?
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Definition
Pushing the “Courier INTPH” light switch arms the speaker in the supernumerary area to talk via the flight interphone. |
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Term
70. What does pushing the CREW REST/CALL switch cause. |
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Definition
Causes an intermittent tone to sound and a light to illuminate in the crew rest module. |
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Term
71. What powers the Inertial Reference System (IRS)? |
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Definition
115 Volt AC Power with 15 min of “back up” DC power |
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Term
72. The air data sensor heater system consists of integral heating elements within the pitot tubes, AOA sensors, and the TAT probe. Heaters are also mounted to the static ports. What controls all of the heating elements?
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Definition
The Miscellaneous System Controller (MSC) |
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Term
73. What is the difference between a Corrective Resolution Advisory (RA) and a Preventative RA?
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Definition
Corrective RA’s recommend changing vertical speed.
Preventative RA’s recommend not changing vertical speed. |
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Term
74. On the ND, how are RAs displayed? |
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Definition
RA = Red Box with relative altitude readout and climb/descent rate. |
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Term
75. One of the TCAS operating constraints is that the pilot start his maneuver for a corrective RA within how long? |
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Definition
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Term
76. How can GNS position updating to the FMC be manually inhibited? |
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Definition
By selecting the “GNS NAV INHIBIT” prompt on the POS REF page 1/3. |
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Term
77. When will the INITIALIZE IRS* prompt be displayed on the F-PLN INIT page 1/3? |
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Definition
| When there is a displayed LAT?LONG and an IRU is in the align mode requesting a present position entry. |
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Term
78. When calculating performance limitations, what adjustments are mandatory? |
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Definition
When a performance DECREMENT is called for in a particular procedure. |
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Term
79. What is the CLIMB LIMIT WEIGHT FOR LANDING? |
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Definition
The maximum landing weight allowed by FARs which ensures minimum climb
capabilities during an engine-out go around. |
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Term
80. What is CONDITIONAL MAX TOW as depicted on the OPS Takeoff Runway Output page? |
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Definition
| It is the overall limiting takeoff weight with the flex and flap setting displayed. |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
Maximum landing weight with the center gear extended? |
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Definition
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Term
Max zero fuel weight with the center gerar extended? |
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Definition
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Term
Max runway slope allowed? |
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Definition
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Term
Maximum allowable tailwind for takeoff or landing?
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Definition
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Term
Maximum lateral fuel imbalance between tanks 1 and 3? |
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Definition
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Term
Maximum start EGT limits for a GE engine? |
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Definition
750 deg. C (no time limit)
750-870 deg. C (40 sec.) |
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Term
Maximum ground start EGT limit for a PW engine? |
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Definition
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Term
Maximum in-flight start EGT limit for a PW engine? |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
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Term
When must the autopilot be off during a non-precision approach? |
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Definition
not lower than 50 feet below MDA |
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Term
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Definition
ENG. IGN Ovrd Switch- OVRD ON
ADG - DEPLOY . |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
ENGINE ABNORMAL START (HOT, HUNG OR NO START) |
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Definition
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Term
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Definition
THROTTLE - MCT
FLAPS (unless on final) - UP
SPEED (unless on final) - Driftdown or UP RET Vmin +30
GEAR (unless committed) - UP
SLATS (unless on final) - RETRACT |
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Term
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Definition
Oxygen Mask - ON/100%
Outflow Valve - VERIFY CLOSED |
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Term
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Definition
FLASHING CARGO FIRE AGENT DISCHARGE SWITCH - PUSH |
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Term
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Definition
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Term
ENGINE FIRE (or Severe Damage) |
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Definition
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