9350. Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot-in-command required to hold a type rating?

A: When operating an aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot.

B: When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

C: When operating a multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds.

B: When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

9328. A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B-737.  A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate.  What pilot priveleges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?

A: Commercial - B-737; ATP - B-727 and B-747.

B: ATP - B-747; Commercial - B-727 and B-737.

C: ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.

C: ATP - B-747, B-727, and B-737.

9329. A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings.  A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727.  What pilot priveleges may be exercised?

A: ATP - B727 and DC-3; Commercial - DC-9.

B: ATP - B727 only; Commercial - DC-9 and DC-3.

C: ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.

C: ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC-9.

9330. In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing and debriefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?

A: 6 hours.

B: 8 hours.

C: 10 hours.

B: 8 hours.

9331. The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to

A: 30 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

B: 7 hours in any 24-consecutive-day period.

C: 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

C: 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period.

9351. When a facsimile replacement is received for an airman's medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?

A: 30 days.

B: 60 days.

C: 90 days.

B: 60 days.

9332. How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

A: No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.

B: No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

C: Requried to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.

B: No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action..

9325. Which is a definitioin of the term "crewmember"?

A: Only a pilot, flight engineer, or flight navigator assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight time.

B: A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.

C: Any person assigned to duty in an aircraft during flight except a pilot or flight engineer.

B: A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.

9349. When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is

A: required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.

B: required to have a current first-class medical certificate.

C: not required to hold a medical certificate.

A: required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.

9335. An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is

A: required to have a first-class medical certificate.

B: required to have a second-class medical certificate.

C: not required to have a medical certificate.

C: not required to have a medical certificate.

9333. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is

A: required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate.

B: not required to have a medical certificate.

C: required to have a first-class medical certificate.

B: not required to have a medical certificate.

9343. Whgen a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is

A: required to have at least a third-class medical certificate.

B: is not required to have a medical certificate.

C: required to have a first-class medical certificate.

B: is not required to have a medical certificate.

9340. An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft needs

A: a first-class medical certificate.

B: at least a current third-class medical certificate.

C: a second-class medical certificate.

B: at least a current third-class medical certificate.

8191. The "age 65 rule" of FAR Part 121 applies to

A: any required pilot crewmember.

B: any flight crewmember.

C: the pilot in command only.

A: any required pilot crewmember.

8189. Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in FAR Part 121 operations?

A: If the airplane is being flown on proving flights, with revenue cargo aboard.

B: If the airplane is powered by more than two turbine engines.

C: If required by the airplane's type certificate.

C: If required by the airplane's type certificate.

8190. When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer?

A: 80,000 pounds.

B: more than 80,000 pounds.

C: 300,000 pounds.

B: more than 80,000 pounds.

8212. An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer.  In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated,

A: at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.

B: one crewmember must be qualified to perform the duties of the flight engineer.

C: one pilot must be qualified and have a flight engineer certificate to perform the flight engineer duties.

A: at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties.

8213. When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for

A: one pilot to hold a flight engineer certificate and be qualified to perform the flight engineer duties in an emergency.

B: the flight engineer to be properly certificated and qualified, but also at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified and certified to perform flight engineer duties.

C: at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.

C: at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.

8188.  If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?

A: The second in command only.

B: Any flight crewmember, if qualified.

C: Either pilot, if they have a flight engineer certificate.

B: Any flight crewmember, if qualified.

8192. An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers.  What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?

A: Four.

B: Three.

C: Two.

B: Three.

8193. When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?

A: Five.

B: Four.

C: Three.

B: Four.

8201. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?

A: Five.

B: Four.

C: Three.

B: Four.

8202. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?

A: Seven.

B: Six.

C: Five.

A: Seven.

9339. A pilot, acting as second-in-command, successfully completes the instrument conpetency check specified in FAR Part 61.  How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?

A: 12 months.

B: 90 days.

C: 6 months.

C: 6 months.

9344. To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least

A: six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.

B: six instrument approaches, three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, plus holding, intercepting and tracking courses in any aircraft.

C: six instrument approaches and 6 hours of instrument time, three of which may be in a glider.

A: six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.

9342. What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?

A: All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.

B: One-half the time the flight is on an IFR flight plan.

C: One-half the time the airplane is in actual IFR conditions.

A: All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.

9334. What recent experience is requred to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?

A: Whithin the previous 6 months, six ILS approached flown manually to the Category I DH.

B: Within the previous 12 callendar months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I or Category II DH.

C: Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

C: Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

9345. To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?

A: Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

B: Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category I DH.

C: Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the Category II DH.

A: Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

9346. When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?

A: When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.

B: When six ILS approaches to Category II minimums and landing have been completed in the past 6 months.

C: 120 days after issue or renewal.

A: When three Cat II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.