Term
| (001) Whose responsibility is it to budget on and off-duty time to complete assigned training tasks? |
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Definition
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Term
| (001) For the 3-9 skill level what order does the titles go in? |
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Definition
| Apprentice, Journeyman, Craftsman and Superintendent |
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Term
| (001) What Air Force Instruction can you reference to determine trainee responsibilities? |
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Definition
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Term
| (002) Out of the three distinct and separate enlisted tiers which one has the focus on adapting to the military profession and achieving technical proficiency? |
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Definition
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Term
| (002) Successful completion of a CCAF degree is a way to achieve the _____ _____ concept by achieving academic goals while enhancing knowledge and skills for on-the-job use. |
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Definition
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Term
| (003) Regardless of your unit assignment and duties, you must provide clear and accurate information because key leaders and war fighters depend on it to make what? |
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Definition
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Term
| (003) The various duties and responsibilities for the career field listed in the AFECD states a 1N0 provides FP intelligence support to who and their staff? |
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Definition
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Term
| (003) Commanders will not prosecute a target without _________? |
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Definition
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Term
| (004) Name of the most common methods for conducting intelligence analysis used for identifying connections of known information between objects. |
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Definition
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Term
| (004) Critical thinking, along with the variety of analytical methodologies, can produce clear and accurate intelligence while removing what? |
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Definition
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Term
| (004) The purpose of critical thinking is to ask yourself questions in order to ensure your conclusions have all of the following EXCEPT _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| (005) When referring to Air Force Doctrine Document 2-4.1 Force Protection protecting the force is who’s responsibility? |
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Definition
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Term
| (005) Who is inherently responsible for base force protection (FP)? |
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Definition
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Term
| (005) The IDWG coordinates and provides deliberate planning for all AT/FP issues, while this group provides threat information to the IDWG by comparing enemy capabilities and their intentions against our installation defense, vulnerabilities, and countermeasures. |
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Definition
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Term
| (006) The application of active and passive defense measures, employed across the legally-defined ground dimension of the operational environment, to mitigate potential risks, and defeat adversary threats to Air Force operations is known as what? |
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Definition
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Term
| (006) What do the objectives of integrated defense provide for the conduct of integrated defense? |
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Definition
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Term
| (006) What agency is the Air Force’s main point for CI activities? |
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Definition
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Term
| (006) What is the area outside the base perimeter from which the base may be vulnerable from standoff threats? |
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Definition
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Term
| (006) This type of support to FP and OPSEC is particularly critical during mobilization and deployments. |
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Definition
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Term
| (007) Which threat comes from assigned personnel, host-country nationals, third country nationals, or other persons assigned to or transiting the AOR? |
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Definition
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Term
| (007) A commander’s _____ ________ is critical for successful FP measures and mission accomplishment. |
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Definition
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Term
| (007) Which type of attack targets Air Force personnel and infrastructure through psychological operations, propaganda, electronic attacks, and network attacks? |
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Definition
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Term
| (007) Which type of attack utilizes bombers and civilian airliners as weapons? |
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Definition
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Term
| (008) “What is the current location of the adversary SA-20 battery” is an example of what? |
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Definition
| Essential elements of information |
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Term
| (008) As we formulate _____, we define broad, general problems or tasks that must be further developed. |
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Definition
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Term
| (008) Identification of needs for intelligence regarding all aspects of the operational environment starts with which phase of the intelligence cycle? |
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Definition
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Term
| (008) What is the intelligence annex of a CONPLAN or OPLAN? |
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Definition
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Term
| (009) What type of operation is conducted quietly and cautiously to avoid undue curiosity, public interest, or interference that may hinder its success? |
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Definition
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Term
| (009) At what level of collection are the national agencies involved? |
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Definition
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Term
| (009) What determines the success of a retasking mission for collection? |
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Definition
| The capabilities of the asset |
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Term
| (010) ________ is employed as a global system with capabilities to exploit opportunities worldwide. |
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Definition
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Term
| (010) OSINT is available from ________ companies that collect information using their own assets. |
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Definition
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Term
| (010) What phase in the ISR process comes after the collection phase? |
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Definition
| Processing and exploitation |
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Term
| (011) In which step of the Analysis and Production Phase is information considered finished intelligence? |
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Definition
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Term
| (011) Intelligence production must be _____ and _____ to provide non-duplicative, all-source intelligence products to the requester. |
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Definition
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Term
| (011) Which if these analysis document’s places primary emphasis on characteristics and performance of major items of military equipment? |
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Definition
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Term
| (012) What is the primary vehicle for integrating intelligence and operations? |
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Definition
| Common operational picture |
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Term
| (012) Advances in technology also affect what? |
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Definition
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Term
| (013) Requester ________ establishes customer satisfaction and frees collection assets and resources to be redirected to satisfy other active requirements. |
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Definition
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Term
| (013) Who evaluates the quality of intelligence products? |
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Definition
| Intelligence personnel and consumers at all levels |
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Term
| (014) When performing your duties with intelligence collection and reporting, what is one reason you should perform training for aircrew? |
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Definition
| Because aircrew are a valuable source of perishable intelligence and training the aircrew what to report can ensure they report important intelligence |
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Term
| (014) When indoctrinated into a new unit it is important to research the intelligence annexes of the ________ and ________ publications. |
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Definition
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Term
| (015) Late intelligence is history and late mission results are costly falls under which general guideline? |
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Definition
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Term
| (015) Which type of intelligence data includes information on the number of aircraft on a specific mission? |
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Definition
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Term
| (015) Which prosign would be utilized when intelligence is received that our forces have made initial enemy contact? |
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Definition
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Term
| (015) Which of the following should be reporting by aircrew for both AAA and SAM sightings? |
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Definition
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Term
| (016) Which of the following is not a required administrative data set for a MISREP? |
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Definition
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Term
| (016) What report does the local intelligence unit will submit an update for inclusion to the commanders overall report? |
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Definition
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Term
| (017) The C-130 Scathe View is formerly known as what? |
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Definition
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Term
| (017) This traditional ISR asset was originally designed as a maritime patrol and anit-submarine aircraft. |
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Definition
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Term
| (017) This aircraft is a world leader imagery asset in the field of all-weather, day and night tactical reconnaissance. |
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Definition
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Term
| (018) The AC-130 in employed in a NTISR role with the ________ A/G Package. |
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Definition
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Term
| (018) F/A-18D Hornets are reconnaissance capable when equipped with what package? |
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Definition
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Term
| (018) What non-traditional ISR asset was purchased to fill the void left behind from the retirement of the TARPS system? |
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Definition
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Term
| (019) It is important that collection managers understand fundamental concepts of ________ to include guidance and analysis. |
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Definition
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Term
| (019) This model is a tool used to characterize the sort of processes that typically happen in a collection cycle for a given sensor. |
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Definition
| Tasking, collection, processing, exploitation, and dissemination (TCPED) |
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Term
| (019) This process of the TCPED model refers to the mission planning and execution of operations. |
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Definition
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Term
| (020) Who provide the JFACC with the capability to supervise and manage the activities of the forces assigned, attaché, or available for tasking and to monitor the actions of both friendly and enemy forces? |
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Definition
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Term
| (020) This ISRD team conducts dynamic intelligence preparation of the operational environment and provides the context for understanding the adversary’s intentions. |
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Definition
| Analysis, correlation and fusion team |
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Term
| (020) The primary products of this division include the air tasking order (ATO), airspace control order (ACO) and joint integrated prioritized list (JIPTL). |
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Definition
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Term
| (022) What team is the focal point for the ISRD for implementing, coordinating and maintaining PED support from agencies outside the AOC? |
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Definition
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Term
| (023) Which of the following phases are NOT part of the mission planning cycle? |
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Definition
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Term
| (024) Which charts will normally depict the target areas for mission planning? |
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Definition
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Term
| (025) In the third phase of the air tasking cycle, what provides the basis for weaponeering assessment activities? |
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Definition
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Term
| (026) Which of the following is correct, given that following set of an ATO? MSNACFT/2/ACTYP:F-16C/TEXAN01/A1/111/22222/33333//. |
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Definition
| The aircraft assigned to this mission are F-16Cs |
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Term
| (027) What is used to get aircraft to specific areas for mission accomplishment, and do not have altitude restrictions? |
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Definition
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Term
| (027) Who is the office of primary responsibility for the section of the SPINS that provides guidance to subordinate and supporting commanders of the JFACCs overall C2 battle plan? |
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Definition
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Term
| (028) What does a thorough pre-conflict analysis alleviate when it can be accomplished? |
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Definition
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Term
| (028) Usually the aerospace environment is divided into two sub-dimensions. What are they? |
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Definition
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Term
| (028) What is the classified as the area of concern including the area of influence, areas adjacent thereto, and extending into enemy territory to the objectives of current or planned operations? |
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Definition
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Term
| (029) Which dimension of the physical environment is not constrained by physical boundaries? |
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Definition
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Term
| (029) Which of the following is not an example of broad COAs? |
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Definition
| Human COA (political, religious, economic, environmental) |
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Term
| (029) Which of the following is probably the most important human dimension characteristics to consider? |
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Definition
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Term
| (030) In which step of the IPOE process will you determine the current adversary situation? |
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Definition
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Term
| (030) Which of the following is NOT one of the three elements that intelligence threat models consist of? |
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Definition
| Determine adversary reactions |
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Term
| (031) Which of the following is NOT considered when contemplating “wildcard” tactics for adversary COA’s? |
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Definition
| Unexpected acts of terrorism |
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Term
| (031) In what order should courses of action be developed? |
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Definition
| In order of its probability of adoption |
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Term
| (031) Step 4 of the IPOE process identifies and develops __________. |
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Definition
| The adversary’s likely COA that will influence accomplishment of the command’s mission |
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Term
| (033) What provides the updated intelligence baseline on which to make operational assessments? |
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Definition
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Term
| (033) What is the role of the intelligence staff? |
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Definition
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Term
| (034) What is the term that refers to energy that spreads out as it travels away from its source? |
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Definition
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Term
| (035) What is the rate at which pulse or pulse groups are transmitted? |
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Definition
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Term
| (035) Beam width error increases with _____. |
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Definition
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Term
| (035) The distance a target is from the radar site at the time of the detection is called what? |
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Definition
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Term
| (036) What is the most common type of radar design? |
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Definition
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Term
| (036) Which type of radar was developed to overcome the limitations and jamming susceptibility of scanning radar systems? |
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Definition
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Term
| (037) Identify the method of scan that continuously scans 360 degrees in azimuth. |
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Definition
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Term
| (037) Identify the radar that warns of an impending attack by hostile aircraft. |
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Definition
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Term
| (038) This type of jamming uses a wide-band noise transmitter designed to deny the use of frequencies over wide portions of the EM spectrum. |
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Definition
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Term
| (038) Which of the following is NOT a SEAD asset? |
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Definition
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Term
| (039) What samples the receiver noise content at the end of each PRF and sets the gain accordingly for the next pulse interval? |
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Definition
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Term
| (040) In the Rivet Joint’s electronic support mission, it provides _____ to national and theater consumers. |
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Definition
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Term
| (041) What is the measure of how well an object absorbs incident IR radiation and reradiates it? |
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Definition
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Term
| (041) What occurs as radiation travels through the Earth’s atmosphere and scatters and becomes absorbed? |
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Definition
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Term
| (042) Which visible light concepts refers to the bending of a ray of light? |
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Definition
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Term
| (043) When considering the radar significance of cultural features in suburban areas, what will reflect less energy than the concrete and masonry used in urban areas? |
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Definition
| Shingle roofs, wooden construction, grass and dirt |
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Term
| (043) When classifying radar returns of military installations, what is the usual method of classification? |
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Definition
| Classify the installation into the broad category first |
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Term
| (043) What type of radar returns are generally produced by ships on real-beam systems? |
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Definition
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Term
| (044) Which of the following not is a factor that will affect the thermal signature of equipment? |
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Definition
| The size of the equipment |
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Term
| (044) Which of the following will produce hot infrared signatures? |
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Definition
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