Term
| 1. Aircrew, AWO/WDs, and JTAC's are to be familiar with the capabilities and limitations of ______ for mission accomplishment. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 2. According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WDs are responsible for ______. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 3. Aircrews will check-in with the controlling agency, such as AWACS, CRC, or Forward Air Controller (FAC)/TAC, unless restricted by the ATO, with all of the following EXCEPT: |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 4. According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WD will accomplish all of the following upon aircraft check in EXCEPT: |
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Definition
| d. Obtain post mission requirements |
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Term
| 5. What additional information may be provided by the controlling agency/aircrews as required? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 6. During recoveries, aircrews will contact the controlling agency with ______. |
|
Definition
d. both b and c
(Callsign and recovery base)
(Mission results and intel) |
|
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Term
| 7. According to AFI 11-214, what will the AWO/WD accomplish during aircraft recoveries, as conditions require? |
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Definition
| a. Provide recovery instructions including base status, copy and relay in-flight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures |
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Term
| 8. Prior to the "FIGHTS-ON" call, exercise directors, mission commanders, and ABM/WDs will notify and receive acknowledgment from all aircrews for any scenario changes affecting ______. |
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Definition
| b. safety of flight (e.g. airspace changes, weather in area, block changes, altimeter setting) |
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Term
| 9. During exercises, the______ will brief all participants unfamiliar with AFI 11-214, and ensure they know and understand the Training Rules (TRs). |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 10. During exercises, Exercise directors can use which of the following for Separation of Aircraft: |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 11. ______ is used to cease all tactical maneuvering when safety of flight is a factor, where doubt or confusion exists, or when Desired Learning Objectives (DLOs) are met or unattainable for an entire scenario. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 12. The correct response expected by participating aircraft hearing a "KNOCK-IT-OFF" is ______. |
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Definition
| c. acknowledge with callsign/cease tactical maneuvering and the scenario |
|
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Term
| 13. ______ ceases all tactical maneuvering with the terminating aircraft or within a specific portion of a larger scenario. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 14. If transmitting "TERMINATE" during a large scenario, anchor position ______. Use amplifying information if necessary (altitude, type of aircraft, etc.). |
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Definition
| c. geographically or with a bullseye reference |
|
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Term
| 15. Use "TERMINATE" when safety of flight is not a factor in conjunction with the following: |
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Definition
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Term
| 16. In a Communications Jamming environment, transmission required for safety will be prefaced with ______. |
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Definition
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Term
| 17. ______ will be used to terminate both comm jamming and maneuvering. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 18. Comm Jamming procedures will not be conducted on _______ frequencies. |
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Definition
| b. Guard / predesignated safety |
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Term
| 19. AWOs/WDs and aircrew will confirm altimeter, weapons safe calls, and monitor altitude separation for rendezvous EXCEPT during ______. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 20. If a tanker experiences problems preventing completion of an air refueling the ______ will ensure aircraft separation and inform the receiver and AWO/WD of intentions. |
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Definition
| b. tanker aircraft commander |
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Term
| 21. Effective combat operations in a tactical environment, all players involved in the refueling operation will employ ______ to the maximum extent possible. |
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Definition
| d. emission control (EMCON) |
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Term
| 22. Minimized radio transmissions between command and control, the receivers, and the tankers require a ______. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 23. According to AFI 11-214, when conducting training missions in a designated airspace, avoiding lateral spill-outs is a ______ responsibility; avoiding vertical spill-outs is a(n) ______ responsibility. |
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Definition
| d. joint aircrew and AWO/WD / aircrews |
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Term
| 24. ______ will acknowledge all AWO/WD airspace and safety related calls. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 25. During air-to-air training missions, the AWO/WD will advise aircrew ______. |
|
Definition
d. Both a and c
(when any aircraft approaches within 10 nm)
(when they approach airspace boundaries (3nm for fighters and 5nm for heavies) or as directed by the ATC agency) |
|
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Term
| 26. The following requirements apply to authorized carriage of live external Air-to-Air missiles for other than WSEP firing EXCEPT: |
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Definition
| b. Simulate weapons employment, squeeze trigger or depress the pickle button |
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Term
| 27. During Air-to-Air training the engagement begins when opposing aircraft initiate visual maneuvers against each other. The _______ participating aircraft determines the maneuvering category. |
|
Definition
| a. altitude of the lowest |
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Term
| 28. What governs commit authority? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 29. The commit must be a joint effort between ______ and ______ and may be initiated by either. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 30. _______enables the maximum use of aircrew and AWO/WD, radar and communication, and Situational Awareness to accomplish the mission. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 31. Broadcast control is a means for AWO/WDs to employ ______ communications primarily to pass target information by referencing a designated location (such as bullseye), not a specific flight. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 32. The Continuum of Control is grouped into five levels, they are: |
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Definition
| b. Close, Tactical, Broadcast, Advisory, Autonomous |
|
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Term
| 33. Controlled maneuvering provides for ______ conducted with ______. |
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Definition
| c. Air-to-air 1v1 night visual training / NVGs |
|
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Term
| 34. Day, low altitude, visual maneuvering is defined as ______. |
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Definition
| b. below 5,000 ft AGL (fixed wing) |
|
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Term
| 35. Fighters may not transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless at least one of the following conditions apply. |
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Definition
| d. Any of the above are correct |
|
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Term
| 36. No more than ______ aircraft may participate in the same visual engagement. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 37. Electronic Warfare (EW) employs __________ to create or exploit weaknesses in an enemy's offensive and defensive supporting capabilities. |
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Definition
| b. EA (electronic attack), EP (electronic protect), and ES (electronic support) |
|
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Term
| 38. ______ is defined as "Aircraft within 3nm in azimuth or range." |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 39. A ____ is a prebriefed maneuver to low aspect to stop closure on the threat or geographical boundary with the intent to reengage. This will be used to initiate a Grinder tactic. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 40. When a pilot calls ____, he/she is reporting leaving a specific engagement and may or may not reenter. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 41. NAILS is a brevity term meaning: ______. |
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Definition
| c. RWR indication of AI radar in search |
|
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Term
| 42. The AFTTP 3-1, Vol 1 codeword for all-aspect missile defensive maneuver to place the threat radar/missile near the beam is ______ (with direction). |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 43. ______ is a brevity term meaning "no RWR indications." |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 44. HIGH is a brevity term meaning target altitude is greater than ______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 45. _____ is an informative call that voice deception is being employed. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 46. PAINT is a brevity term meaning _______. |
|
Definition
| d. an interrogated group/radar contact that is responding with any of the specified IFF modes and correct codes established for the ID criteria |
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Term
| 47. AFTTP 3-1, Vol 1 defines SLOW as a target with a ground speed between ____ knots and ____ knots. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 48. A ______ call indicates an interrogated Bogey group/radar contact which lacks all the ATO (or equivalent) IFF modes and codes required for the ID criteria. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 49. ____________ is a request to provide tactical ground information pertinent to the mission in a digital bullseye format. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 50. _____ is an informative or directive call to execute launch-and-decide tactics. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 51. When a pilot uses the term _____, it is a request for target information as requested or closest group in BRAA (with appropriate fill-ins). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 52. _____ is a brevity term describing the Link-16 Network. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 53. Pilots will use the term _____ to direct the formation to expand laterally within visual limits to maintain a radar contact or prepare for a defensive response. |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 54. _____ is a USAF specific codeword meaning a fighter will establish visual contact with the cockpit of a TOI, attempt communications, and report all observations of activity. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 55. Which of the following BEST defines the sidelobe reference (SLR) antenna? |
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Definition
| d. An omni-directional antenna that prevents false returns from being displayed |
|
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Term
| 56. TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all link capable players are assumed to be TIMBER SWEET unless specifically communicated otherwise. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 57. _____ is an inner group formation with the trailer displaced approximately 45 degrees behind the leader. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 58. _____ is an informative call indicating violation of assigned procedural deconfliction measure. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 59. TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, all aircraft are assumed to be SWEET unless specifically communicated otherwise. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 60. _____ is a brevity term meaning RWR indication of surface threat in search mode. |
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Definition
|
|
Term
| 61. _____ is a directive term to verify specified elements of ROE, PID, CDE, and/or coordination of forces on the referenced target/track. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 62. _____ is a brevity term meaning ROE, PID, coordination of forces, and commander’s guidance requirements on the referenced target/track have been satisfied. Target/track correlation and CDE must be accomplished prior to employing ordnance/fires. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
63. When controlling F-16s, at “REDEC” range (40 NM or as briefed), ABM/WD will
__________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 64. TRUE or FALSE. If a fighter calls “SPIKED” with a magnetic bearing or sub-cardinal direction and the group spiking the fighter is within threat range, the ABM/WD will respond with a standard spike response. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 65. What CRC battle management position is responsible for coordinating with the ADAFCO? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 66. What CRC position is responsible for overall supervision, mission crew performance and direction of tactical level BMC2 to include air defense and airspace control activities within the assigned area? |
|
Definition
| b. Mission Crew Commander |
|
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Term
| 67. What CRC battle management position is responsible for coordinating with higher, lateral and subordinate BMC2 (Battle Management Command and Control) agencies? |
|
Definition
| c. Mission Crew Commander |
|
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Term
| 68. The purpose of the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is to: |
|
Definition
| d. summarize crew operations for data collection and analysis |
|
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Term
| 69. Who is responsible for ensuring that the AF Form 4145, Daily Activity Log, is completed? |
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Definition
| a. Mission Crew Commander |
|
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Term
| 70. The surveillance section of the CRC is responsible for which of the following? |
|
Definition
| c. Detecting, tracking, identifying and reporting airborne entities within the CRC’s operational area, region or sector |
|
|
Term
| 71. Which of the following CRC duty positions is responsible to the MCC for surveillance, airspace, and data link functions? |
|
Definition
| b. Air Surveillance Officer (ASO) |
|
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Term
| 72. Which of the following CRC duty positions directs the detection, tracking, and identification of air traffic within the CRC’s area of interest (AOI)? |
|
Definition
| b. Air Surveillance Technician (AST) |
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Term
| 73. Which of the following CRC duty positions is responsible for control of aircraft within the CRC’s Battle Management Area (BMA)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 74. Which CRC duty position is responsible to the MCC for the assignment of allocated weapons and for coordinating and directing WD and ADAFCO activities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 75. If a unit reports its Modular Control System (MCS) Operational Level is Level 1, it is ___________. |
|
Definition
| a. able to perform all its operations |
|
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Term
| 76. All of the following is TRUE of a CRC unit that is at level 3 EXCEPT: |
|
Definition
| a. Computer capability lost |
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Term
| 77. The ADAFCO is responsible for all of the following EXCEPT: |
|
Definition
| b. Managing the information flow between the UCC and the mission crew |
|
|
Term
| 78. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions accomplished by the MCS? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 79. The CRC weapons section is responsible for ______________________. |
|
Definition
| b. managing and employing assigned weapons systems in accordance with governing directives |
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Term
| 80. When is the Operations Logbook opened and closed? |
|
Definition
| b. Opens at the beginning of the duty day; closes at 2400Z |
|
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Term
| 81. When an error is made in the Operations Logbook, corrections can be made by doing all the following, EXCEPT: |
|
Definition
| c. Erase the incorrect entry |
|
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Term
| 82. All of the following are duties of the WD, EXCEPT: |
|
Definition
| d. ensure proper track identification has been assigned to tracks |
|
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Term
| 83. The SD is responsible for all of the following, EXCEPT: |
|
Definition
| b. Ensure accurate and timely air situation data, theater action results, equipment, and weapons status reports are provided to the AOC |
|
|
Term
| 84. What is the minimum amount of time that tapes are retained if an aircraft accident or incident has been recorded on the tape? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 85. All of the following are DST duties and responsibilities EXCEPT: |
|
Definition
| b. performing voice tell when necessary |
|
|
Term
| 86. The Ultra High Frequency (UHF) Radio Group consists of _____ UHF transceivers. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 87. The KG-40 provides encryption and decryption for _______ data to/from the Data Terminal Set (DTS). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 88. The ______ is a wide band (WB), tactical, half duplex, encryption device used with UHF and VHF radio communications systems to provide ground-to-air and ground-to-ground secure voice communication. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 89. The _______ is a small, lightweight, battery-operated device which reads an eight-level punched tape and is used to load crypto key variables into encryption equipment or the KYK-13. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 90. TRUE or FALSE: Two computers are required to bring a system of one to four OMs online. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 91. Which of the following is NOT part of the Internal Radio Equipment (IRE)? |
|
Definition
| c. Control and Maintenance Panel (C&MP) |
|
|
Term
| 92. The Radio Patch Panel (RPP) is used to assign crypto to the following internal/external radio circuits |
|
Definition
| a. Nine voice (a combination of two HF, three VHF, four UHF and/or three remote) |
|
|
Term
| 93. Which of the following BEST describes the Recorder/Reproducer Unit (R/RU)? |
|
Definition
| c. a six-channel device that copies voice signals from four VCASs simultaneously |
|
|
Term
| 94. TRUE or FALSE: The KGX-40 provides the remote controls and indicators for operation and maintenance of KG-40. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 95. Which of the following provides a means to fully initialize, access, and obtain the fault status of any voice channel in a five-OM system? |
|
Definition
| a. Control and Maintenance Panel (C&MP) |
|
|
Term
| 96. The Radar Interface Unit (RIU) provides the electronic interface between the OM and up to ______ local radar channels via the Radar Data Bus Electro-Optical Converter (RDB EOC) and up to ______ remote radars via the Digital Communications Unit (DCU) controller . |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 97. A single Radar Interface Unit (RIU) can only process radar reports from ________ radars. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 98. Which of the following is NOT part of the System Level Equipment (SLE)? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 99. The KYK-13 is used to load crypto key variables into all of the following EXCEPT: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 99. The KYK-13 is used to load crypto key variables into all of the following EXCEPT: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 100. The Voice Communication Access System (VCAS) provides access to a maximum of ____ UHF radios, ____ net radios and ______ direct access line(s). |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 101. The High Frequency (HF) radio operates in a frequency range of _____ to _____ MHz. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 102. What is the nominal range for the Ultra-High Frequency (UHF) radio? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 103. What area of the OCUWS displays the real-time tactical air picture? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 104. Which area of the Auxiliary Display Subunit (ADS) displays textual explanations of OCU alerts and orders? |
|
Definition
| b. Auxiliary Display Subunit 2 (ADS-2) |
|
|
Term
| 105. What area of the OCUWS DSU displays switches for radar and video selections? |
|
Definition
| c. Display Access Subunit (DAS) |
|
|
Term
| 106. The maximum number of OMs that can be connected is _______. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 107. In a single OM configuration with only one computer operational, all the following functions are available, EXCEPT: |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 108. In a single OM configuration, if one of the computers fails, track symbology is displayed in order of priority. Which of the following is NOT one of the top 3 priorities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 109. The CLEAR ALERT FFS allows the operator to __________________. |
|
Definition
| b. Clear designated alert message from ADS-2 area |
|
|
Term
| 110. The RESTRT FFS allows the operator to ___________________. |
|
Definition
| a. clear the hooked track’s speed, heading, and velocity vector |
|
|
Term
| 111. NOTE – Upon detection of an anti-radiation missile (ARM) alert, the operator has _____ seconds to respond. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 112. Which of the following statements is TRUE for the System Center? |
|
Definition
| b. It cannot be changed once data is entered |
|
|
Term
| 113. To shut down power in the OM, you use the red switch labeled___________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 114. Which character modifier denotes an identity, category, or IFF conflict on a track that is held mutually by two units? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 115. Which character modifier is displayed when the operator activates data recording for a track? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 116. Which track modifier indicates an aircraft emergency involving loss of radio capabilities? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 117. What happens when an anti-radiation missile (ARM) alarm message is initiated? |
|
Definition
| a. the SET EMCON FFS blinks at all OCUWSs |
|
|
Term
| 118. What is the purpose of the EP PLAN VFS? |
|
Definition
| a. To enter, delete, modify, or display pre-planned EP parameters for radars or IFF |
|
|
Term
| 119. Which of the following choices BEST define the Variable Function Switch (VFS) that enables the operator to determine the status of OM equipment? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 120. The Computer Unit Performance (CU PRFM) VFS under the PM & TEST Fixed Function Switch (FFS) array allows the operator to ______________________. |
|
Definition
| b. display CU performance statistics of the computer units |
|
|
Term
| 121. Which FFS contains the OSs that allows an operator to locate tracks based on IFF and to setup plot history areas? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 122. The three VCAS modes of communication which can be selected using the MODE button are_______, _______, and _________. |
|
Definition
| c. internal, external, both |
|
|
Term
| 123. If anti-jam mode is selected for a UHF channel, a ________ border will appear around the channel window. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 124. To terminate a call on the VCAS, select the circuit you wish to terminate and then select ________ on the menu bar. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 125. The maximum system capacity for ATDL-1 data links is _________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 126. Within the Modular Control Equipment (MCE) system, how many Link-1 data links can be active at one time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 127. Which mode 3 code indicates a hijack emergency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 128. A Mode 3 code of 7700 identifies which of the following types of aircraft emergencies? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 129. Which mode 3 indicates a No Operational Radio (NORDO) emergency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 130. Which is a fire control order used to direct or authorize units or weapons systems to fire on a designated target? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 131. Orders of an operational or tactical nature received from external agencies by data links are called what? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 132. Which of the following overlays displays the identification (ID) corridors used in the automatic identification process? |
|
Definition
| b. Overlay 2, ID and Threat Evaluation |
|
|
Term
| 133. When the system is in medium threat mode and there is a valid response for Mode 4 interrogation, what ID activity does the system perform? |
|
Definition
| c. The system automatically IDs the track as assumed friend and changes the symbology to assumed friend on the DSU and the ID field of the HDRO |
|
|
Term
| 134. This type of rendezvous requires the receiver to maintain an agreed track and the tanker to maintain the reciprocal track, the tanker will make the final turn on to the receivers heading. |
|
Definition
| b. RV Delta (Point Parallel) |
|
|
Term
| 135. This type of rendezvous is normally used to vector receivers to tankers operating on an AAR anchor area. |
|
Definition
| a. RV Alpha (Receiver Turn-on) |
|
|
Term
| 136. This type of rendezvous is normally conducted without a pre-briefed AAR track. It requires the receiver to use an Airborne Intercept (AI) radar to complete the rendezvous. |
|
Definition
| b. RV Charlie (Tactical Rendezvous) |
|
|
Term
| 137. For all standard refueling rendezvous the following roll-out criteria applies: _____________ |
|
Definition
| a. 1-3 NM, +/- 30 degrees |
|
|
Term
| 138. What kind of airspace is used to separate non-hazardous military activities from IFR traffic outside of Class A airspace? |
|
Definition
| b. Military Operations Area (MOA) |
|
|
Term
| 139. Which of the following is an airspace in which a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aeronautical activity is conducted? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 140. Which of the following is the purpose of an Altitude Reservation (ALTRV)? |
|
Definition
| a. To facilitate the mass movement of large numbers of military aircraft |
|
|
Term
| 141. According to FAA rules, when an aircraft is less than 40 miles away from the radar, how far from the airspace boundary must the Military Radar Unit (MRU) keep the aircraft? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 142. Link 16 uses the ___________ radio frequencies. |
|
Definition
| c. Ultra High Frequency (UHF) |
|
|
Term
| 143. Where is the emergency exit in the OM located? |
|
Definition
| d. Curbside, between OCUWS 2 and OCUWS 3 |
|
|
Term
| 144. Crew rest will normally begin _____ after the debrief. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 145. The two types of missions in the Mission Execution phase of CSAR are immediate missions and ___________ |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 146. The primary facility for coordination and control of CSAR activities is the ___________ |
|
Definition
| a. Joint Search and Rescue Center (JSRC) |
|
|
Term
| 147. Which of the following BEST defines CSAR? |
|
Definition
| a. Recovery of isolated personnel |
|
|
Term
| 148. Which of the following is NOT used to verify the identity of downed personnel? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 149. Which of the following occurs FIRST in a CSAR operation? |
|
Definition
| a. Awareness and notification |
|
|
Term
| 150. Which of the following BEST describes the mission of the TACP? |
|
Definition
| b. Provide terminal attack control for Close Air Support aircraft operating in close proximity to friendly ground forces |
|
|
Term
| 151. Which of the following BEST describes a mission of the ASOC? |
|
Definition
| b. Plan, coordinate, and direct tactical air support of ground forces |
|
|
Term
| 152. Which of the following is an input number used to establish a specified system hopping pattern, rate, and dwell time? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 153. Which of the following assigns several radios to a net and establishes the hop set start frequency? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 154. The THREE elements necessary for successful system operations of HAVE QUICK are: |
|
Definition
| a. common frequencies, time synchronization, and common hopping pattern and rate |
|
|
Term
| 155. Which of the following is a HAVE QUICK modification to a radio’s ability to clearly receive and process more than one signal without mutual interference? |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 156. Within the HAVE QUICK system, time is transmitted using a format referred to as ____________. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 158. The AN/TPS-75 Radar Set has a maximum range of _____ nautical miles and a maximum altitude of ______ feet. |
|
Definition
|
|
Term
| 159. Which of the following is required if a remote radar is to be established? |
|
Definition
| d. A dedicated VHF radio circuit |
|
|
Term
| 160. The AN/TPS-75 radar is capable of blanking what size sector? |
|
Definition
| a. 357.2 degrees, in 2.8 degree steps |
|
|
Term
| 161. The Hooked Data Read Out (HDRO) is divided into three general data areas, which of the following is NOT an area of the HDRO? |
|
Definition
| b. Track information area |
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Term
| 162. All of the following will blink to alert the operator EXCEPT: |
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Definition
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Term
| 163. Which of the following will cause the symbology to expand? |
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Definition
| b. Track is designated as a lost track |
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Term
| 164. The AUTO TRACK FFS does all the following EXCEPT: |
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Definition
| c. repositions symbology onto radar data |
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Term
| 165. When track trace is selected for a track, the displayed trace will not be longer than the last ____ minutes of the track’s movement. |
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Definition
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Term
| 166. What is the legal range of entry for entering a mode 1 in the SELECT M/CODE VFS? |
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Definition
| a. first digit is 0-7, second digit is 0-3 |
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Term
| 167. Which of the following is a valid Mode 1 code? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 168. Crew members will enter crew rest a minimum of _____ hours before show time. |
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Definition
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Term
| 169. If video recordings of missions are made, the minimum classification of the tapes is _______. |
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Definition
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Term
| 170. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a CRC to call Ops Normal? |
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Definition
| b. Aircraft are under control |
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Term
| 171. During all operations, WD/AWOs will ensure track symbology and sensor data of controlled aircraft are within ___ NM of each other. |
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Definition
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Term
| 172. While aircraft are under control, the following crew positions will monitor UHF guard EXCEPT? |
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Definition
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Term
| 173. During contingency operations, who is the point of contact with the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC) and Job Control (JC)? |
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Definition
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Term
| 174. TRUE or FALSE: During routine training missions of no greater than a 4v4, the SD may conduct red air or flight follow control. |
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Definition
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Term
| 175. Which of the following has the authority to waive all or any part of the 8-hour crew rest period? |
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Definition
| b. Parent/Deployed Operations Group Commander |
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Term
| 176. System Control (SYSCON) is responsible for which of the following: |
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Definition
| a. Managing the unit’s communications/data systems |
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Term
| 177. During CONUS weapons control missions, which crew positions will monitor the handoff frequency/shout line at all times? |
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Definition
d. Both B and C
(SD) (WD/AWO's) |
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Term
| 178. Who is responsible for ensuring all crew members read and initial items in the read file prior to performing duties on scope? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 179. What is the correct sequence for initiating a multiple cursor association ? |
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Definition
| c. Hook the first item, activate the MULT CURSOR VFS, hook the second item, activate the ENTER switch |
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Term
| 180. Site Support is responsible for all of the following duties EXCEPT: |
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Definition
| b. Ensuring the integration of C4I systems with a CRC |
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|
Term
| 181. Which of the following statements about the AN/TPS-75 Radar Set is NOT TRUE? |
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Definition
| b. It records a permanent, three dimensional picture and log of the airspace status |
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Term
| 182. Which component of the AN/TPS-75 radar receives the digital returns from the receive channels and is responsible for generating the required video types and height data? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 183. Which of the following BEST defines the printer unit? |
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Definition
| a. A high speed thermal dot-matrix assembly that automatically provides a record of detected faults |
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Term
| 184. All of the following communication equipment items are located in the AN/TPS-75 radar shelter EXCEPT: |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 185. Which order is a command given to units to refrain from firing on, but to continue to intercept the target; guided missiles in flight will continue to intercept the target? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 186. Which order is an emergency order directing all units to stop firing at a designated air track, missiles already in flight are to be prevented from intercepting if technically possible? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 187. Which of the following equipment houses the environmental control units (ECU), external cables and OM maintenance tools? |
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Definition
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Term
| 188. If the minutes of the actual transmission time is an odd number, what value should be used to find the code on the transmission authentication table? |
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Definition
| d. The actual transmission time minus one number |
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Term
| 189. Which order dictates that units assume a posture where weapons systems may be fired only at targets positively identified as hostile? |
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Definition
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|
Term
| 190. What is the main reason for holding mission crew debriefings? |
|
Definition
| d. To capture lessons learned and improve system performance |
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Term
| 191. Authenticators are used to ______________________. |
|
Definition
| b. Counter the enemies’ attempts at intercepting your communications |
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Term
| 192. All of the following statements are FALSE concerning the reasons for using authentication procedures EXCEPT: |
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Definition
| d. Friendly forces and enemy forces may be using the same frequency |
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Term
| 193. From the following options, select the one that BEST applies to the use of authenticators. |
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Definition
| a. MUST be handled ONLY IAW COMSEC User Procedures |
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Term
| 194. Which of the following CANNOT be used as the FIRST letter of the challenge for ground-to-air challenge and reply authentication? |
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Definition
|
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Term
| 195. Authenticator users must follow the procedures detailed in which of the following? |
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Definition
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